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00:01
not sure it helps. and tbh i'm not really interested in trying to figure out their reasoning
hi
if r = <x,y,z> and i have r/||r||, then is it true that \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2 + y^2 + z^2} \frac{\partial x}{\partial r} = 1?
because e_r_x is normal to dx/dr?
00:52
@PVAL I finally finished Six Feet Under... :( incredibly sad
01:08
@pallas that's equivalent to asking if $\frac{x}{r} \frac{\partial x}{\partial r}=1$. but the second term is just $x/r$ since the only radial dependence of $x=r\sin\phi\cos\theta$ is in the leading term
so that equals $x^2/r^2=x^2$ (since $r^2=1$ here) not 1.
@MikeMiller Ugh I just realized I won't be here when you're here. I'm flying back home for spring break.
a true fact you can learn from that, though, is that $$\frac{x}{r}\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}+\frac{y}{r}\frac{\partial y}{\partial r}+\frac{z}{r}\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}=1$$
01:37
@anthony toooonyyy
02:03
:(
02:14
Hi
I have a very silly question about independence of random variables... but I cannot really figure it out quickly, and it's been a long day
I have iid Poisson(lambda) random variables N_1,..,N_k and M_1,..., M_k
And weights (w_{i,j})_{1\leq i,j\leq k}
Now, I am looking at the sum \sum_{1\leq i,j\leq k} w_{i,j} N_i M_j
1). Are the summands N_i M_j independent?
2). What would be the least painful way to compute Var[\sum_{1\leq i,j\leq k} w_{i,j} N_i M_j]?
(For 1), I'm pretty sure the answer is "no.")
02:36
hiiiiiiiiiii
 
1 hour later…
04:00
Anybody know if a formula exists to generate the gnomon of a figurate number for a n-gon?
 
1 hour later…
GGG
GGG
05:02
-1
Q: Null space of linear transformation of polynomials

GGGThe set $\mathcal{P}$of all real polynomials $f(x)$ is a linear subspace of the vector space $\mathcal{C}^{\infty}$ of real differentiable functions on the real line. Find the null space of the following mappings defined on $\mathcal{P}$. $F_2(f(x)) = xf(x)$ $F_3(f(x)) = x^2f''(x)-2xf'(x)$ Wh...

Does my question make sense?
 
2 hours later…
07:28
@IlanAizelmanWS: Hi, great news. I'm glad you're doing well!
07:43
Hi, all. I have a very basic question. I went to the calculus chat room but didn't find anyone active. I wanted to know which version of Stewart Calculus book people usually talk about while recommending the same for people looking forward to appear for GRE math subject test.
I see two versions mainly. Calculus 7E and Essential Calculus and both having Early
Transcendentals as another sub-versions(?).

Thank you.
08:01
@TedShifrin Hey, seems I managed to catch you both sides of my sleep for once (assuming you are still here)
 
2 hours later…
09:38
Does anyone know if it is possible to make a function in GAP create global variables?
 
3 hours later…
12:57
For people interested in graph theory software:
I would highly appreciate any response to my question, guys.
I created a Mathematica interface for igraph, so Mathematica's builtin graph functions can be easily combined with igraph. I also contributed some patches to the igraph core meaning that now we have access to three different isomorphism algorithms that also work with coloured graphs, through the same uniform interface.
13:13
I need help for this please: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1686845/…
 
2 hours later…
14:43
I left my window open and it rained through it last night :(
None of my books seem destroyed, luckily
15:25
I want to find how many different necklaces we can create with $m$ symmetric beads if we have $k$ colours.

Burnside's Formula is the following: $$\text{ # orbits } =\frac{1}{|G|}\sum_{g\in G} X (g)$$

$G$ is the group of the permutations of the beads, right?

Do we have that $|G|=m!$ ?
Anonymous
Hello people
Hello @anonymister
Anonymous
Hi
16:01
Hey @robjohn
I have a question... We have that $f \in C_c^{k}(\mathbb{R}^n)$. How can we show that $|f(x- \epsilon z)-f(x)|< \delta$ for any $\epsilon> \epsilon_0$ ? @robjohn
@Evinda that is not true without some constraints
After that there is the following remark:
$f$ is continuous and has a compact support. We know that each continuous function is uniformly continuous in a closed and bounded space of $\mathbb{R}^n$.


Do you mean that we have to consider a closed and bounded space so that the above statement is true? @robjohn
16:19
@Evinda No, I mean it is not true. Why should that be true for arbitrarily large $\varepsilon$? what is $z$?
@robjohn I found it at the proof of the following theorem:

Let $f \in C_c^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$. Let $\rho \in C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^n), \rho \geq 0, supp{\rho} \subset \{ |x| \leq 1\}, \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \rho(x) dx=1, \epsilon>0$. We consider $f_{\epsilon}(x)= \epsilon^{-n} \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(y) \rho{\left( \frac{x-y}{\epsilon}\right)} dy$.
Then $f_{\epsilon} \in C_c^{\infty}, supp f_{\epsilon} \subset \epsilon- \text{ region of } supp f$

$\partial^a{f_{\epsilon}} \to \partial^a f$ uniformly for $|a| \leq k$ while $\epsilon \to 0$.
16:36
Since $\left|f(x-\varepsilon z)-f(x)\right|\le\left|\varepsilon z\right|\sup\limits_{x}|f'(x)|$
0
Q: Showing $\mathcal{A}^*$ is Well-Quasi-Ordered

Julian RachmanI was told that the problem below is supposed to prove that $\mathcal{A}^*$ (defined below in "Attempted Solution") is well-quasi-ordered. Two problems come to my mind: How is this problem proving that $\mathcal{A}^*$ is well-quasi-ordered iff the ordered set $A$ is well-quasi-ordered? I have a...

Anyone?
@robjohn You mean that we use the intermediate value theorem, right?
If so, then we have that there is a $\xi \in (x- \epsilon z,x)$ such that

$f'(\xi)=\frac{f(x)-f(x- \epsilon z)}{\epsilon z} \Rightarrow |f(x- \epsilon z)-f(x)|=|f'(\xi)| |\epsilon z| \leq |\epsilon z| \sup_x |f'(x)| $

But why does the latter tend to zero?
@Evinda since $\varepsilon\to0$.
A ok... And since $f \in C_c^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$ we know that it is bounded and so $\sup_x |f'(x)| \in \mathbb{R}$, right? @robjohn
@robjohn: Scary weather this morning. I decided to head to campus later than usual because of the lightning.
16:51
@MikeMiller Yeah. I am considering driving to Victorville today. Luckily, things have quieted down some.
@MikeMiller The lightning and thunder was very close here.
It wasn't so close here but I consider lightning scary enough to be an excuse not to go somewhere.
@robjohn Also the fact that $|f(x- \epsilon z)-f(x)| \to 0$ implies that there is a $\delta$ such that $|f(x-\epsilon z)-f(x)|< \delta$ for any $\epsilon> \epsilon_0$, right?
@Evinda why do you keep using $\epsilon\gt\epsilon_0$? We are supposed to have $\epsilon\to0$.
@robjohn Oh yes, right... So the statement that I should show is wrong, i.e. that $|f(x- \epsilon z)-f(x)|< \delta$ for any $\epsilon>\epsilon_0$, right?
@Evinda Since $z\le1$, $\left|f(x-\epsilon z)-f(z)\right| \le\epsilon\sup\limits_x\left|f'(x)\right| \to0$
17:02
@robjohn And the latter tends to 0, only for $\epsilon \to 0$, right?

What can we say about $\sup\limits_x\left|f'(x)\right|$ ?
@Evinda $f\in C_C^k$. What do you think we can say about $\sup\limits_x\left|f'(x)\right|$?
That it is bounded, right? @robjohn
@Evinda you think?
Yes, since $f\in C_C^k$ , $f$ and its derivatives are non-zero only near a region around 0. Or am I wrong? @robjohn
@Evinda why does it matter that the derivatives are non-zero?
17:08
Since we have the supremum of f'(x) @robjohn
Aaa you mean that if f is 0 at a region which is not near 0, so the derivative will be, right? @robjohn
$f\in C_C^k\implies f'\in C_C^{k-1}$ which means it is continuous on a compact set.
Therefore, $f'$ is bounded
17:22
@robjohn Ah I see... Thank you very much!!!
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer Hi! Can you help me with a problem sir? :-) I was wondering how would I characterize the functions $f \in C^{\infty}[0,\infty)$ such that $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} f(x)e^{-nx}\,dx \sim \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k \frac{k!}{n^{k+1}}$ where $\displaystyle f(x) = \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} a_k x^k$ (taylor series at $x = 0$)
does $f(x) \to 0$ as $x \to \infty$ suffice, or can we manage with a weaker condition than that? :)
@RandomVariable Hi man! How are you?! :-) I see I&S is up and active again!
@robjohn Helloooo .. :) How are you?
@r9m pretty good. How are you?
r9m
r9m
17:38
@robjohn doing okay .. somehow alive! :-)
@r9m that's promising!
Why people take commenting so personal? You add a comment or 2 so they can improve their answer and they answer with, well, like you attacked their mother.
2
An identity is an expression that has the same value no matter what x you plug in. (I understand your desire to be creative and find some wow logical inconsistency and something that is worth endless discussion for nothing. Please waste your own time. I will not participate. Thanks.) — alex.peter 5 mins ago
r9m
r9m
@ypercubeᵀᴹ 'attacked their mother' .. :P * golden!
@robjohn :-)
@ypercubeᵀᴹ 'attacked their own child' might be the more appropriate metaphor here; they created the question, after all, not the other way around :)
@r9m I've had a cold for the past couple weeks that just won't go away completely. But other than that, I'm doing OK.
r9m
r9m
17:46
@RandomVariable colds can be annoyingly sticky .. it's hard to shake 'em off completely. I see Shobhit's back on action! :-)
Anyone?
0
Q: Showing $\mathcal{A}^*$ is Well-Quasi-Ordered

Julian RachmanI was told that the problem below is supposed to prove that $\mathcal{A}^*$ (defined below in "Attempted Solution") is well-quasi-ordered. Two problems come to my mind: How is this problem proving that $\mathcal{A}^*$ is well-quasi-ordered iff the ordered set $A$ is well-quasi-ordered? I have a...

@r9m I thought he had abandoned the site.
r9m
r9m
@RandomVariable apparently not .. he's back and the site has gotten more active again! :) Btw what you think of this one? :-)
@r9m I'm more interested in this one. There is a paper about it here, but I've been trying to come up with an alternative approach.
r9m
r9m
@RandomVariable ooh yeah! that's a nice problem .. I have a way in mind but been too lazy to write up .. lemme check the paper though .. thanks!!
r9m
r9m
18:13
oh! Weierstrass factorization theorem there too .. 'kay
18:31
Is the empty intersection of subsets of $X$ usually defined to be $X$? And would the empty intersection be a "finite intersection"?
@r9m I don't expect there is a useful characterisation. $C^{\infty}$ can be very ugly. The series need not converge. If it converges, it need not have anything to do with the behaviour of $f$ away from $0$, and it need not have anything to do with the behaviour of $\int_0^{\infty} f(x) e^{-nx}\,dx$. If you require $f$ to be real-analytic, you might have a chance to get a characterisation.
Morning @DanielF.
@s.harp: I would say so, yes.
@s.harp Yes. The empty set is a finite set, so $\bigcap \varnothing$ is an intersection of finitely many sets. And if the universe of discourse is $U$, then $\bigcap \varnothing = U$ is common convention.
@DanielF: I'm quite fond of $C^\infty$. I won't have you besmirching its good name.
@MikeMiller Happy whatever time of day.
18:40
@robjohn Let $E(t,x)= \frac{H(t)}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}}, x \in \mathbb{R}^n$. I want to show that $\frac{\partial{E}}{\partial{t}}- \Delta{E}= \delta(t,x)$.

So it suffices to show that $\langle \frac{\partial{E}}{\partial{t}}-\Delta E, \phi \rangle= \langle \delta, \phi \rangle$.

So firstly we have to show that $E$ is integrable.

In order to do this I thought to show that $E$ is continuous.
It holds that $E(t,x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
\frac{e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}}}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} &, x>0 \\ \\
@robjohn Sorry I meant: $E(t,x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
\frac{e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}}}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} &, t>0 \\ \\
0 &, t \leq 0
\end{matrix}\right.$
@Evinda So $H(t)=1$
$H(t)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
1 &, t>0 \\
0& , \text{otherwise}
\end{matrix}\right.$

It's the Heaviside function @robjohn
18:57
@DanielFischer Isn't $f(z) = \exp \left(i z \frac{z^{2}-b^{2}}{z^{2}-c^{2}} \right) $ bounded in the upper half-plane for positive values of $b$ greater than $c$? My reasoning is that $f(z)$ is essentially $e^{iz}$ when $|z|$ is large in magnitude and essentially $\exp \left(\frac{i}{2} \frac{c^{2}-b^{2}}{z \mp c} \right) $ near $z = \pm c$. But are those estimates accurate enough?
I just got a 'welcome to math.SE-chat, keep some things in mind ... be nice ...'-bubble. Did everyone get that or did I do something bad?
I got it too
Does anybody know how to write fraktur letters without boldface?
nevermind sorry you can google that quite easily :S
I will never forgive you
2
19:12
I think that bubble we got was meant for you, Mike.
They just sent it to everyone so it wouldn't be awkward.
@robjohn How else could we show that E(t,x) is integrable?
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer 'kay .. so does the result hold if $f$ is uniformly approximable by $p(x)e^{-x}$ for polynomials $p$ on $[0,\infty)$ (I know $f \to 0$ as $x \to \infty$ is a sufficient condition for that)
@RandomVariable Hmm, you should go into more detail when writing. As a handwaving argument in speech it works, but in writing one should be more precise. Write $f(z) = e^{iz} \exp\Bigl(-iz\frac{b^2-c^2}{z^2-c^2}\Bigr)$ to deal with large $\lvert z\rvert$, and similar for $z$ close to $\pm c$, then you can explicitly show the boundedness.
@r9m Oy. Since we're integrating over a set of infinite measure, uniform approximation doesn't really give you very much. Suppose you have $f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$ for $x > 1$. Then whatever polynomial $p$ you take, you have $f(x) - p(x)e^{-x} > \frac{1}{2x}$ for $x > x_p$. Then, as $n\to \infty$ you have $\int_{x_p}^{\infty} \bigl(f(x) - p(x)e^{-x}\bigr)e^{-nx}\,dx \in \Theta (n^{-1})$, so I wouldn't be too optimistic.
What is the context for this?
r9m
r9m
19:38
@DanielFischer I see your point now .. I was actually trying $\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-nx}}{1+e^x}\,dx$ and once I expanded $\frac{1}{1+e^{x}}$ in it's taylor series at $x = 0$ and integrated term by term I got the exact asymptotics :o is that a coincidence?
@r9m That's probably not a coincidence. That function is analytic.
If $F \subset \mathfrak P(X)$, $A \subset X$ how is the trace of $F$ on $A$ defined?
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer yes .. I am having a hard time pinpointing why this is happening .. I tried it for a couple of other functions too (I had alternative ways of verifying exact asymptotics .. and it checks out :o .. )
@r9m Hmm, wait. The radius of convergence of the MacLaurin series of $\frac{1}{1+e^z}$ is $\pi$. Then $$\sum_{k = 0}^{\infty} a_k \frac{k!}{n^{k+1}}$$ doesn't converge if $\frac{1}{1+e^z} = \sum a_k z^k$.
@s.harp: How's it defined if $A=X$?
19:46
@s.harp $\{ A \cap M : M \in F\}$
Usually.
(That was not a pedagogical comment, I'm asking for myself.)
@MikeMiller I don't know
@DanielFischer: How does that parse? $M$ is an operator, right?
@MikeMiller No, $M$ is a subset of $X$.
@DanielFischer thank you, but in the book I am reading it says if $F$ is a filter then the trace of $F$ on $A$ is a filter iff every set of $F$ meets $A$
19:48
$F$ is a family of subsets of $X$.
but the definition there does not allow the trace to be a filter, since it does not contain ie the whole set $X$
Oh, that's a mathfrak P. I thought it was a B, for bounded operators.
Sorry.
@s.harp Yes. If not all elements of $F$ meet $A$, then $\varnothing$ is in the trace.
@s.harp A filter on $A$, and $A$ is in the trace.
I meant, if you take for example the principal filter of $A$, then every set of $F$ meets $A$. But the definition above makes the trace to be just $\{A\}$ which is not a filter on $X$
@s.harp The trace in $A$ of a filter on $X$ is a filter on $A$.
(If all filter sets meet $A$)
19:51
Ok thank you
Also it holds that $\langle E, -\frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{t}}-\Delta{\phi} \rangle= -\int_{t \geq 0} \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} E \left( \frac{\partial{\phi}}{\partial{t}}+ \Delta{\phi}\right) dxdt=\int_{t \geq 0 \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}} \frac{1}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}} dxdt$ . Is it right so far? How could we continue? @robjohn
But I am shocked that Bourbaki just write: Let $F$ be a filter of a set $X$ and $A$ a subset of $X$. Then the trace $F_A$ of $F$ on $A$ is a filter iff each set of $F$ meets $A$
from the grammar I expect $F_A$ to be a filter on $X$ :(
20:08
@DanielFischer So $\left|e^{iz} \right| \le 1$ in the upper half-plane, and $\exp\Bigl(-iz\frac{b^2-c^2}{z^2-c^2}\Bigr)$ is tending to $1$ as $|z| \to \infty$. Is that what you meant about being more precise?
@RandomVariable Yes. The case $z \approx \pm c$ is the one that takes a bit more work to break down.
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer hmm .. I see! But how do I frame the question if I wanna ask that over main?
@r9m I probably misinterpreted your series. It's meant as an asymptotic expansion, $$\int_0^{\infty} f(x) e^{-nx}\,dx = \sum_{k = 0}^N a_k \frac{k!}{n^{k+1}} + o(n^{-N-1}),$$ is it?
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer yes .. that's what I meant (:P my life depends on it .. I have used it to prove something and now I can't explain why this is happening :P)
hi @DanielF, @r9m, DogAteMy :)
20:19
Hi @Ted.
Well, grading midterm exams is depressing even after I've retired :P
r9m
r9m
@TedShifrin Hello professor! :-)
I doubt your life depends on anything mathematical, @r9m, but it's a common expression :P
@DanielFischer Sorry to bother. I am trying to find an example of special kind of maps on Banach algebras called derivations
@r9m Okay, then we have a much better chance. We integrate by parts and get a remainder $$\pm \frac{1}{n^k} \int_0^{\infty} f^{(k)}(x)e^{-nx}\,dx.$$ So all we need is that $f^{(k)}(x)$ stays civil.
20:23
Would you help please
@AndrewT: Clearly the bubble was meant solely for me.
stands up and slams hand on table The bubble was mine!
I haven't seen you misbehave ... ever.
Well, maybe just a bit of temper, like now ... :D
@Evinda $$ \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\frac{e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}}}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n}\,\mathrm{d}x $$ is independent of $t$
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer ooh!! By parts by parts ... dear me .,. that's right! :D I forgot about that ..
20:25
hi @robjohn
Haha. Maybe the closest I've been to being worthy of such a bubble is nagging Mike with diffgeo-questions or asking an artist critical questions about their art.
@robjohn hello
I do occasionally lose patience with people who repeatedly refuse to listen/read/think ... or who want us to do every step of every problem for them.
I haven't seen you learning any of what I call differential geometry, @AndrewT :D
@TedShifrin How goes?
@Mambo Hmm, the typical derivation is a differential operator. But I can't think of a Banach algebra of infinitely differentiable functions that is closed under differentiation.
20:27
Other than dental work and pains, I'm doing well, thanks, @robjohn. Looking forward to more blustery weather today.
@DanielFischer the definition is something else here
We didn't learn much in general. It was a stundentarranged course, we were all supermotivated in the beginning of the semester, and that faded as time went.
@TedShifrin we had very blustery and thunderous weather this morning.
I'm sorry to hear you aren't still super-motivated, @AndrewT
We all passed, the clever ones in a respectable manner, but I doubt any of us truly enjoyed that course.
20:28
@Mambo A linear map satisfying the product rule, $D(a\cdot b) = a\cdot D(b) + D(a)\cdot b$, right?
@TedShifrin Well, I am, for things not differential geometry.
@AndrewT: When I was an undergraduate, I think one of my top favorite courses was Guillemin and Pollack. And in the numerous times I've taught it, my students, too, have really liked it, even though it was hard.
Yes. here that $\cdot$ is module operation
I still don't think you guys did differential geometry. Learning basics about manifolds isn't differential geometry per se.
@Mambo What is "module operation"?
20:30
Yes, @AndrewT, I know you (and mr @Pedro) are becoming totally renegade algebraists :(
@TedShifrin: Unfortunately one of our first years absolutely despised that book. More algebraic/symbolic thinking than geometric. Takes all types.
@TedShifrin I agree, and so does a good diffgeo friend of mine.
Well, the book is a bit chatty for grad students, @MikeM. And it annoys me how Guillemin gives away too much with hints (that's his teaching style), so I've always written a lot of my own exercises. Even when I've taught algebra, I've tried to encourage geometry/conceptual thinking, as opposed to symbolic manipulation, but, sadly, most algebraists seem to like to teach more symbolically :(
It just happens that for some people, that's an easier or more helpful way to think. I don't blame them for that.
So we all got that bubble to be politically correct/nice because I finally snapped when someone repeatedly ignored what I said ...
20:32
I certainly can't cope that way myself.
@DanielFischer Suppose $A$ is a Banach algebra. A Banach space $B$, a left $A$ - module is called a left Banach $A$ module if there exists $K > 0$ such that $$\norm{a.x} \leq K \norm{a}\norm{x} (a \in A , x \in B)$$
@MikeM: It makes me sad how few algebra students understand what the point of conjugation/normality actually is.
When you say algebra students, you mean undergrad?
Most books just settle for saying it's what's needed to make the quotient be a well-defined group and leave it at that.
It is representation of algebra $A$ on linear operators of $B$
20:33
I might mean larger scope than that, @MikeM :P
@DanielFischer *continuous representation
@Mambo But then the product rule makes no sense. So please give a precise definition of what a derivation should be in that context.
@Ted: I would have trouble finding more than one algebra grad student here who didn't understand the point.
Well, perhaps I have a unique viewpoint on the point :P
A bounded linear map $D : A \to B$ is called derivation if it satisfies the product rule.
$A$ - algebra and $B$ is Banach $A$-bimodule
20:36
Regarding symbolpushing, off to prove that something is a pushout using the simplicial identities. Buh-bye!
Much as I complain about the algebra books not making the point, I didn't really make it clearly enough in my own algebra book, @MikeM ... although in lecturing I made a big point of it.
Push well, @AndrewT.
@DanielF: Is your point that in most norms, differentiation won't be bounded?
For each $b \in B$, $a \to a.b - b.a$ is a derivation.
But other than these !!
@DanielFischer Any problem with the def ?
@TedShifrin Yeah, a sensible norm can only consider finitely many derivatives, so you can't make $C^{\infty}(X)$ a Banach algebra with any sensible norm.
@MikeM: Sadly, neither of my topology students figured out what the one-point compactification of the line with two origins is ... because they haven't understood what the one-point compactification of $\Bbb R$ is. Oh well, ...
@Ted: I find the latter surprising.
20:40
I suspect they hadn't read the section in Munkres where he talks about one-point compactification and gives $\Bbb R$ as an example.
It's obvious what the 2-point compactification is...
@Mambo No, that definition works, if we have a two-sided module.
Good day to all!
Somehow they're thinking of $\infty$ as an isolated point :(
I was wondering if someone can help me out with: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1686507/…
20:41
Good day, Chemist.
Those derivations like adjoint operation are called inner derivations.
Your question is impossible to decipher, @Another.Chemist. Part of it is an English issue, part of it isn't. What do you mean by "Probe"?
I am trying to find a derivation which is not inner
@Ted: I think a nice hint might be to ask them to find a 2-pt compactification first.
Do you mean "Prove"?
@MikeM: First they have to understand what the correct neighborhoods of $\infty$ are.
20:43
Thank you so much Mambo. But My chemist knowledge tried to solve those matrices problems.... this is why I'm asking for help :)
I think they've both seen the Riemann sphere, so ... really ...
mmm... good point... I write it thinking in spanish....- what I mean is to demonstrate
@robjohn Do you have any idea to check where?
See, I'm not even thinking of nbhds. Just... a compact space with an open dense wmbedding of $\Bbb R$ and 1/2 extra points.
@MikeMiller Gonna be mean and say the line with two origins doesn't have a compactification, since it's not a Hausdorff space ;)
20:45
Fair enough, @MikeM.
corrected
@DanielF: Why does it need to be Hausdorff? It needs to be locally compact, which it is.
@TedShifrin Because any subspace of a Hausdorff space is Hausdorff, and compact = quasicompact + Hausdorff.
@DanielFischer Do you have any idea where to check?
I don't define compact to be Hausdorff, @DanielF. Maybe that's a European custom.
20:47
@Mambo Sorry, no idea.
@Another.Chemist: What you have makes no sense. To say that $\hat U = BY$ means that $BX\hat B = O$.
@TedShifrin That's how Bourbaki did it, and HE knew right from wrong.
Well, ha ha ... Not the custom in this country.
Bourbaki is thinking more about algebraic geometry terminology, and Zariski topology is never Hausdorff, of course.
@Mambo nope, sorry.
20:49
@DanielFischer Okay np. I will try. Do you think set of inner derivations be closed in set of all linear operators from $A$ to $B$ ?
I mean the zero matrix. Seems highly unlikely.
@Mambo A very cautious "I guess so".
Why do you think so?
sigh... My maths are not so advanced ... and to be honest, I get lost :/
20:51
Why should the limit be like adjoint at some point?
@Mambo I don't think either way. I very cautiously guessed. For no particular reason, just a hint of a soupcon of a gut feeling.
Are you sure your definitions are right, @Another.Chemist. Shapes of matrices aren't making sense in some cases. I suspect the definition of $\hat B$ may be wrong.
@DanielFischer The set of derivations is closed. It is fine. But for the inner derivations !!
@DanielF: Ah, but I never said a double origin once. That was all Mr. Shifrin's doing.
@DanielFischer There are certain algebras where the inner derivations are only derivations.
20:55
I had the same doubt. But, I focused on the definitions ... and it worked, at least with the tried that I posted with the question
@Another.Chemist. On one hand you say $B$ is a $k\times 1$ matrix, but then you have an equation $B=I-A$, which makes it an $n\times n$ matrix. Something is just nonsense here.
And then I don't know where $BY=BU$ comes from.
You have to get the exercise precisely correct.
@DanielFischer Do you know anything about group algebras of free groups?
@TedShifrin don't forget the hat on the definitions
You need to proofread very carefully. It makes no sense as it is now.
It is literally what I receive
20:57
Well, it's wrong.
@Mambo No, not really.
Go to your professor and ask him to explain what I just wrote up there ^^^^ ...
ok, thank you so much ! :)
Good luck!
@DanielFischer Thank you Sorry for bothering too much
21:00
@Mambo No problem. Sorry I couldn't help.
@DanielFischer Perhaps it's an inefficient approach, but by substituting $x+iy$ for $z$, I get that $ \left|\exp \left(- i z \frac{b^{2}-c^{2}}{z^{2}-c^{2}} \right) \right| \le 1 $ if $y >0$. I could have made a mistake, though.
@RandomVariable We want $\operatorname{Im} \frac{z}{z^2-c^2} \leqslant 0$, or equivalently $\operatorname{Im} \bigl(z(\overline{z}^2-c^2)\bigr) \leqslant 0$. Hrrmbl hrmmbl, $x\cdot (-2xy) + y(x^2-y^2-c^2) = - (x^2y + y^3 + yc^2)$, yup looks non-positive.
21:21
0
Q: Shoe equality of distribution

EvindaLet $E(t,x)= \frac{H(t)}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} e^{-\frac{|x|^2}{4t}}, x \in \mathbb{R}^n$. I want to show that $\frac{\partial{E}}{\partial{t}}- \Delta{E}= \delta(t,x)$. So it suffices to show that $\langle \frac{\partial{E}}{\partial{t}}-\Delta E, \phi \rangle= \langle \delta, \phi \rangle$. S...

@robjohn Oh, now I saw your answer... Why is it independent of t? Isn't it a function of it?
@DanielF: Oops. Upon further checking of the textbook, it does require Hausdorff and locally compact to get a Hausdorff and compact one-point compactification. Mea culpa.
afternoon
@DanielFischer I didn't actually think I made a mistake. I don't know why I say stuff like that.
hey @ted. here's something small (and not actually too surprising) which you might find amusing.
21:28
namely, i was checking books out of our math library and saw a book on the return cart with a name that looked familiar
"Theodore Shifrin" :)
was it "Geometry: A geometric approach"?
couldn't tell. all i could see was the name.
Salut @TedShifrin
21:42
@Evinda substitute $x\mapsto x\sqrt{t}$
@JeSuis o/
ca va @Hippalectryon ?
@JeSuis Oui :D et toi ?
¿Cómo estáis?
@robjohn If we substitute $x$ with $y \sqrt{t}$, then the integral is equal to $\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \frac{e^{-\frac{y^2}{4}}}{(2 \sqrt{\pi t})^n} \sqrt{t} dy$.

Or am I wrong?
21:47
@RandomVariable It's good practice to be cautious.
ça va grâce à la grève national j'ai pas d'examen mercredi_
@JeSuis Haha :P
nationale*
@Hippalectryon tu connais le livre Geometry and the Imagination ?
@JeSuis Pas vraiment... laisse moi regarder de quoi ça parle :D
@JeSuis Celui de 99 (Conway) ou de 52 (Hilbert) ?
Hilbert
dommage il n'est pas traduit...
22:01
@JeSuis Ca a l'air simpa
@Hippalectryon en tout cas je vais aller voir cela demain à la bu... bon je vais dormir, bonne soirée et bon travail!
@JeSuis Bonne nuit :-)
@Evinda No, it is not. Remember that $\mathrm{d}x$ is really $\mathrm{d}x_1 \,\mathrm{d}x_2 \dots\mathrm{d}x_n$
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer Looks like I hit a new benchmark in stupidity today .. :|
22:12
Wow! I just got this message. I guess I'd better watch what I say.
@robjohn Yeah, you're a well-known trouble-maker, aren't you?
@DanielFischer I just looked, and this comment was flagged.
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer nvm ..
@robjohn Errr, wot? Who, why???
r9m
r9m
@robjohn ?! Hey I didn't do it .. looks like it was addressed to me .. :o
22:16
@DanielFischer I have no idea. I was just looking to see if something had been flagged recently, and that was why i got that message.
@r9m it was. I don't know who flagged it. It is probably one of the three downvoters I've had in the last two days.
@DanielFischer oops. I missed that that expired again.
r9m
r9m
@robjohn what would a downvoter gain by flagging a message in chat? :o
@r9m Who says that flags and downvotes are logical? I don't think any of the downvotes I've received recently are logical anyway.
These seem to be more a personal attack
Perhaps they don't like my avatar
r9m
r9m
@robjohn sigh ..
22:21
Who doesn't like cute little mean squares :(
r9m
r9m
@robjohn I see Chris'ssis isn't/hasn't been around lately .. moreover he seems to have changed his user name once again ..
Hello, can we find an example where $\cap F_n=\emptyset$ :math.stackexchange.com/questions/1685896/…
gre.kaomanfen.com/question/635 : can someone explain why they say that they answer is D (The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.). They say that Q could be >90 OR <90 but doesn;t messing with that angle mess with the constraint that RPQ angle is 30 degrees\?
@Vrouvrou Take closed balls of radius $1/n$
@r9m Yes. She was around for quite a while after the last name change. However, she hasn't been to chat this year.
22:29
@Vrouvrou Take $E=\mathbb{Q}$ and let $F_n = [\sqrt{2},\sqrt{2}+1/n]\cap\mathbb{Q}$.
@r9m Oh, I didn't see that she was here a bit in February
and that her name has changed again.
r9m
r9m
@robjohn I see .. odd .. must be busy (with her book probably)..
@user2692669 The constrain does act on the rectangles, but it is not constraining enough that it determines Q
This might be a long shot. Does anyone here have experience with publishing papers that describe new mathematical software? Having trouble finding a journal which (i) is not just looking for papers implementing new algorithms (our program only implements published algorithms which haven't been coded before) and (ii) doesn't mind the underlying mathematics being very pure (algebraic topology in my case)
@Hippalectryon if we fiddle with RQ line, wouldn't it change length? I can't base the answer on a theorem
22:41
@robjohn @DanielF: I'm assuming that "be on your best behavior" note was entirely because I lost patience with someone a few days ago. :P
salut @JeSuis, @Hippa.
@DanRust: Look at Ben Burton and Ryan Budney's papers about Regina and see where those went. (I think such papers exist.)
@TedShifrin Hi :-) JeSuis is already gone
done = parti?
to bed. Yes.
Ah ... tu t'endors maintenant?
22:43
Not yet :P
@MikeMiller You've used that one before. :)
@TedShifrin No, everybody gets that message once, it's not personal.
Well, @DanielF, there must be some reason we're all getting it now.
@Ted ? I've never actually used Regina.
Oops, did I mis-link?
22:44
@user2692669 Let me find a concrete example, 6 mins
Nope, I did not mis-link. :P
@TedShifrin Yes, it's a new thing. Couldn't have got it earlier.
OK, @DanielF ... Thanks.
@MikeMiller cheers for the suggestion.... looks like they haven't published regina yet, as they say to cite the program only by its download URL.
I wonder if @Balarka has figured out sets of discontinuity for pointwise limits of continuous functions.
@Hippalectryon I cringed a little when I saw that it wasn't exactly 30 degrees xD
@Hippalectryon I thought of something but I'm not sure if it's right:
@Ted: On my phone there are no arrows.
@Hippalectryon Line RQ, if we "play" with it, forms a circle. So if we want the radius NOT to be perpendicular to the line then the line (PQ) must be crossing exactly two points and no more.
thus making it possible to be >90 OR <90 but with one solution per case (my head hurts :P )
22:59
@DanRust: HM, maybe try looking at SnapPea then.
23:32
0
Q: Without Cauchy Integral Formula or Residues: $\int_{L}\frac{dz}{z^{2}+1}$

Jessy CatI am currently working on the following: Prove that $\displaystyle \int_{L}\frac{dz}{z^{2}+1} = 0$ if $L$ is any closed rectifiable simple curve on the outside of the unit disc, i.e., $L$ is contained in the region $|z|>1$. Show that the equality is in general false for arbitrary closed rectifia...

Please help! I'm having so much trouble...
@TedShifrin I keep on missing when you're on
@robjohn How does on determined which of their comments are flagged?
@AkivaWeinberger: A mod does.
Ah
'Cause I got that message recently
@AkivaWeinberger one doesn't. A moderator does.
and I'm not sure what I could've said that got me flagged

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