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00:00
@mikemiller as i try to read some stuff on symplectomorphisms, the more i'm faced with the fact that while i may understand exterior algebra, i don't know the ins and outs of differential forms :/
in particular, my appreciation of them as forms is pretty terrible
00:13
I dunno what you mean by "as forms"
as things which act on vector fields, basically. and on those same lines, i'm not great with thinking of vector fields as partial derivatives
What do you think of them as? Infinitesimal flows?
@user2692669 Not necessarily. At least in interest theory, interpolation is quite common
00:33
@mikemiller to be honest, i tend to think of them in the most elementary way possible. e.g. the electric vector field in physical space as $\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}^3$
@Semiclassical A vector gives you a direction to differentiate in (to take directional derivative). Nothing fancy is going on.
But that's not correct in most settings, @Semiclassical :/
and with basis vectors being unit vectors $\hat{x},\hat{y},\hat{z}$
not saying it's fancy. just saying it's not something i've had to properly absorb in practice
not saying it is
Ok. I understand that feeling well. @Semiclassical
it's 'fine' for multivariable calculus, but not for differential geometry
or, to put it another way: if you asked a physicist what a vector-calculus based intro course looks like, you'd see basis vectors, div/grad/curl, divergence theorem etc.
00:37
But what does curl or div mean?
their coordinate representation, really
which, no, is not a good description if you want to do things in a coordinate-independent way
why should I give a shit about div?
I didn't ask how they're defined, I asked what they mean
Differential topology is locally multivariable calculus, and since most constructions are local (differentiation, degree of singularities) or patched from local things (integration, maps) if you understand the multivariable calculus picture well, then understanding the topological story basically just amounts to understand the calculus and feeling confident that everything glues together. Things gluing amounts to them being geometric, i.e. not dependent on your choice of coordinates.
mostly they come up in intro physics when people talk about maxwell's equations
ugh, my connection right now is just being crap
And what do Maxwell's equations tell us?
00:46
maxwell's equations tell you how sources---namely, electric currents and electric charges (or charge densities)---give rise to electric and magnetic fields which themselves act on currents and electric charges
so, for example one expects that a positive charge acts as a source of electric field. that corresponds in terms of vector calculus to Gauss's law $\nabla\cdot \mathbf{E} = \rho/\epsilon_0$ where $\rho(x,y,z)$ is the local electric charge density
and $\epsilon_0$ is a physical constant
by contrast, the magnetic field $\mathbf{B}$ is divergence-free ($\nabla\cdot \mathbf{B} = 0$) since there's no such thing as magnetic monopoles in classical electromagnetism. in particular, that means that all magnetic fields lines will be closed.
similarly, one has Faraday's law $\nabla\times \mathbf{E} = -\frac{\partial \mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$ and Ampere's law $\nabla \times \mathbf{B}=\frac{\partial E}{\partial t}+\mathbf{J}$ where $\mathbf{J}$ is the electric current density. (i'm missing a physical constant in front of $J$, but w/e)
which tells you that 1) electric currents give rise to magnetic fields which circulate around the currents, 2) time-varying electric/magnetic fields also produce circulation of magnetic/electric field lines.
(blah blah blah physics) @MikeMiller
So clearly you have a conceptual understanding of div and curl that aren't just formulas... what are they?
i guess i'd say it as: the divergence of a vector field is a scalar field which describes how much electric field is coming in/out of the neighborhood of some point. and we can identify that with the local electric charge density.
So we have a notion that vector fields can go into or out of a point. Do you agree that they encode directions, then? :)
sure
would be hard to talk about electric flux otherwise
i suppose you're aiming for the fact that, if i have an electric field, i can talk about the electric field lines as being themselves integral curves.
But that's no different that the idea of them being directional derivatices you claimed not to appreciate - a directional derivative is really nothing more than, well, a direction to derive in.
Sure, that's another point to be made. If you believe vector fields are just directions at each point (I certainly do) then these other notions - derivative wrt a vector field, integral curves of a vector field - come immediately and naturally.
01:02
ehhhh. you also get that same notion of direction from thinking of them as maps to $\mathbb{R}^3$
Not on a manifold.
sure. but that's not the intro physics context, is what i'm getting at
The point is precisely that your notion of maps to R^3 is the same as direction (or weighted direction, if you're oicky about the fact that direction usually means unit vector).
and in general the physics context is on $\mathbb{R}^3$.
back in a bit, have to eat dinner
Ok, I give up b
01:30
back
all i'm trying to say is that, within the context of Euclidean 3-space, there's just not the same motivation for thinking of vector fields in the way that one needs for manifolds. and that's the viewpoint i've been exposed to, both as a student and as one who teaches for intro physics courses. @MikeMiller
now, you can certainly argue that that's a limited way of thinking, and i wouldn't necessarily disagree. but that's the convention i'm used to, and that's why the 'proper' way of thinking about vector fields isn't one which comes naturally to me.
nor is it a perspective i'd expect someone who works in physics (and has never taken a course in differential geometry) to possess. (general relativity is an exception to that, but i've also never had a course in that.)
 
1 hour later…
02:39
@MikeMiller This question (which you commented on) now has an answer.
I saw and upvoted.
OK
Doesn't answer if the projection can contain a disk, though.
those are some darn nice pictures
btw, thinking on it more, i think the issue above really comes down to: in physics, we work in euclidean space and so we end up identifying vector functions with vector fields. that's not the right POV for generalizations to manifolds, but we typically don't do those.
02:54
I don't think I care about the magnitude of nonzero vector fields.
then that's your luxury. it'd be hard to talk about particles accelerated by electric fields, for example, if one couldn't talk about how strong those electric fields are.
but at this point i feel like i'm just punching at shadows. shrug
03:44
hi
@Semiclassical i have a geometry question
04:40
@TedShifrin fyi, i went and turned this into a question on the main site
05:28
has anyone used one of the packages successfully? multimedia, movie15, media9, animate, etc... I want to put a video in my pdf
@BalarkaSen I generally agree, but in some areas of math there is a great power in being able to think purely formally/symbolically, for example forcing in set theory.
one foot ahead of the other
to the extreme
 
2 hours later…
07:55
Hi @DanielFischer
 
2 hours later…
09:28
@m0nhawk wow
moonhawk?
je suis un homme @JeSuis
je suis un mathematician
mathématici e n :-)
oh right
mathematicienne
mathematicien
oui bien sur!
you are like hippopotamus and electricity?
Haha not really, more like a horse and a rooster en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hippalectryon
@ForeverMozart j'en suis ravi
09:41
hey frenchies
@Agawa001 We're taking over the room :D
I'm only canadian
@Hippalectryon oui au fait ;D
this show is so sad
Six Feet Under
so sad
@ForeverMozart Hi?
10:50
How can I prove that Prove $u,v$ are linearly independent $C = \frac{1}{2}uu^T + \frac{1}{3}vv^T$, whereas u,v are orthonormal vectors.
@robjohn any ideas? :)
$C$ = (2x2) matrix
0
Q: Prove $u,v$ are linearly independent $C = \frac{1}{2}uu^T + \frac{1}{3}vv^T$, $u,v$ are orthonormal vectors

Ilan Aizelman WSProve $u,v$ are linearly independent $C = \frac{1}{2}uu^T + \frac{1}{3}vv^T$, $u,v$ are orthonormal vectors. I'm not quite sure how to approach that. I believe that because uu^T will give me a vector wih size one, and same about $vv^T$, so when multipled with different scalars, we will surely g...

11:16
@IlanAizelmanWS It is definitely unclear what you are asking.
what is to be shown?
what does $C$ have to do with anything else?
are the simplicial homotopy groups of a Kan complex isomorphic to the homotopy groups of its geometric realization?
oh, yes, they are. that's reassuring.
@robjohn i have a question please, to prove that $(R,|.|)$ is complete we take any cauchy sequence then it is bounded we apply Bolzano-Weirstrass then we can deduce a convergent sub-sequence
but then why the sequence is convergent ?
11:38
@user19405892 also the uh..... weirstrass function is everywhere continuous, yet nowhere differentiable
@robjohn I need to show that $u,v$ are linearly independent.
$C$ is a matrix, $2x2$. and it equals to the equation above. and we also know that $u,v$ are orthonormal vectors.
and $u,v \in R^2$
12:30
Hi I'm struggling with this trig problem : http://i.imgur.com/LPx2ae5.png
Using the value o f k = 4 here's my working - http://vpaste.net/ND0JT
 
2 hours later…
14:08
@Vrouvrou I have no idea what $(R,1,1)$ is.
@IlanAizelmanWS what is the first thing you need to assume when showing linear independence?
14:49
hi
@robjohn i need help with a geometry question
15:03
@user19405892 that's nice.
here is the solution
i don't get the prolongation arugment
From the statement, this seems to satisfy the constraints
Maybe I have it backwards... The lengths get smaller as the angles get smaller. Never mind.
there is no condition on the last two angles they could be concave or convex
$A_0A_nA_{n-1}$ and $A_1A_0A_n$
yes they can't intersect, but you could make that last angle concave
15:19
@robjohn: It rained pretty hard down here last night.
do two things have to be orientable to be similar?
like we can have congruence if two things are non oriented
in other words one of objects, say a quadrilateral is a reflection of the other
15:47
morning
15:57
morning
any nice math stuff today?
nah, yesterday was a good day though
ah, cool
sorry if i got a bit ranty re: vector stuff yesterday
mm, no need to apologize at all
16:08
Hey guys
@MikeMiller how is your french?
Somewhere around "reading competence".
ah same
brb
16:42
@MikeMiller we were supposed to get an inch last night. It certainly sounded as if we did.
It rained hard from midnight to 5 AM
@robjohn i mean $(R,|.|)$
16:59
@Vrouvrou It depends on how you are defining $\mathbb{R}$. It is usually defined as the completion of $\mathbb{Q}$.
we define R as all real numbers Q and R\Q
sorted out my problem @MikeMiller :)
i'm new here
mh not much action here
17:20
hi
is it possible to have a concave pyramid?
@JC574: Phew, that was easy.
17:54
If there exists an inverse to a function f, can I say that this function is bijective?
18:07
If by inverse you mean two-sided inverse (a $g$ such that $f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x$), and such that the domains and codomains match up ($f: X \to Y$; $g: Y \to X$), then yes. That's actually the same as being a bijection.
And if it's not two-sided?
Then no, and you should be able to construct counterexamples. Try working with finite sets (let one of them be one point, and the other two, say.)
19:13
Hello, all.
Suppose $f\colon\mathbb{RP}^2\to\mathbb{RP}^2$ is a homeomorphism. How can we show that $f$ is isotopic to identity?
@ForeverMozart Je suis <del>un</del> mathematicien.
@Frank: Start by having it fix a disc. This reduces the problem to "homeomorphisms of Möbius bands that fix the boundary are isotopic to the identity". From here you want to show that you can isotope it to fix a vertical band.
Then, the complement of the fizes region is a disc, whose boundary is fixed, so now just isotope it to be the identity on that disc.
The hard part here is the vertical band.
19:50
hi @ted
hi @Semiclassic
You get an answer yet?
to the asymptotic one?
@TedShifrin Hi
Uh huh
hi @Tobias
i'd be curious if you see any obvious counterexample to the question as i formulated it :)
19:52
I upvoted the question :)
This is not the sort of mathematics I think about, but I hope you'll get some experts responding.
internet validation woohoo
yeah, same
When you say the coefficients are comparable, you mean $\lim a_n/b_n = 1$?
I wouldn't be surprised if the question, as posed, has a reasonably simple counter-example. but i also wouldn't be surprised if strengthening the conditions a bit makes it work (i.e. validate the 'proof' for the hypergeometric series example)
yeah
presumably one could generalize that to something like $a_n/b_n$ always being 'constant enough' but eh
not my ballgame
19:56
Well, be careful. Seems that could give you something like $e^{2x^2}$ versus $e^{x^2}$, whose ratio is far from polynomial.
good point.
i had more in mind something like $a_n/b_n$ always being 'almost equal' to 1
the funny thing is i'm grading the extra credit assignment which inspired that question right now
@MikeMiller Thanks. I'll spend time thinking. It doesn't seem easy to me.
which means i end up crediting people for an argument which on its face just isn't sensible
the joys of being a TA :)
Another question: suppose $C$ is a connected topological curve in $\mathbb{RP}^2$. Then the homeomorphic type of $(\mathbb{RP}^2,C)$ is determined by the image of $C$ in $H_1(\mathbb RP^2,\mathbb F_2)$.
These statements are described without proof on Viro's book.
i am being pretty generous on that part for that very reason, though. not much point being strict about something which isn't really rigorous.
20:01
@Frank: That one should be easier to prove. Think of intersection numbers with the obvious curve in $\Bbb{RP}^2$.
Well, it's not the place of the physics course to be rigorous. But it would be nice to know if the result is even correct. :)
quite!
hah, here's something funny
@MikeMiller The problem is converse. When the images are the same, I need to show that they homeomorphic.
most people stated the pseudo-argument just in terms of "oh, higher powers look the same for both series"
I know. I mean to say use the intersection number and reduce the actual intwrsection number to 0 or 1 depending on parity.
And do that by hand. You will probably prefer to think of smooth curves here.
20:03
which is kind've nonsense to me. but on this guys paper, they did the same truncation argument i came up with myself. (which isn't rigorous either, but w/e). so that's pretty neat :)
Well, keep me posted, @Semiclassic. I'm heading out ...
$C$ splits $\mathbb{RP}^2$ into one or two parts. If it's two parts, one is inside and the other is outside. Maybe we can apply Riemann's mapping theorem to identify the inner parts.
@TedShifrin bonsoir
Bonne soirée.
GGG
GGG
20:18
Let $T$ be the linear operator on $\mathbb{R}^3$ defined by

$$T(x_1, x_2, x_3)= (3x_1, x_1-x_2, 2x_1+x_2+x_3)$$

Is $T$ invertible? If so, find a rule for $T^{-1}$ like the one which defines $T$.

Prove that $(T^2-I)(T-3I) = 0.$

I've found that $T$ invertible, and that the rule is $$T^{-1}(x_1, x_2, x_3) = (\frac{1}{3}x_1, -x_2, -\frac{2}{3}x_1+x_2).$$

But to show that $(T^2-I)(T-3I) = 0$, am I supposed to use linearity/earlier part, or just the matrix?
These methods are equivalent.
GGG
GGG
Cool!
Does anyone know sources for linear transformation problems at level of the one above?
I don't know what that level means, but Linear Algebra Problem Book by Halmos is valuable.
GGG
GGG
20:34
Thanks!
21:11
Hello!!!
If we have a test function $\phi$ why does it hold that $\sup { \phi(x)- \phi(0)} \to 0$ ?
@robjohn Do you maybe have an idea?
21:46
@robjohn Well I solved it. they are orthonormal vectors, meaning they are orthogonal vectors normalized. and orthogonal vectors are linearly independent they they isn't a zero vector in the set. and because we know that they are orthonormal, it makes sure there isn't a zero vector. this is the proof that $u,v$ are linearly independent.
@robjohn if there isn't a zero vector*
@TedShifrin Hey Ted! finished first semester.. I haven't disappointed with math marks ;)
GGG
GGG
22:17
If $T = \begin{pmatrix}1&0&1\\0&1& 1\\ 0& 0& 0\end{pmatrix}$, why does $\text{Im}(T) = \text{span}\left\{(1,0,0), (0,1,0)\right\}$? I thought image of $T$ was the span of the columns of $T$, in which case $\text{Im}(T) = \text{span}\left\{(1,0,0), (0,1,0), (1,1,0)\right\}$?
22:39
Can anyone please explain the above question? I tried to approach it using Cauchy-Riemann and took the complex number in polar form. However, for the CR equations to be satisfied the radius comes out to be zero. It doesn't seem correct. Any help would be appreciated thanks!
23:00
@Paradox101 what do the Cauchy-Riemann equations look like in this case?
@Semiclassical $u_r= cos \theta (-2r^2 e^{-r^2}+e^{-r^2})$, $u_{\theta}= -r e^{-r^2}sin {\theta}$, $v_r= sin \theta (2r^2 e^{-r^2}-e^{-r^2})$ and $v_{\theta}= -r e^{-r^2}cos {\theta}$
and then when i use $r u_r= v_ {\theta}$ i get $r=0$
mmkay. so if i'm reading that right, you've got $(u,v)=(re^{-r^2}\cos\theta,-re^{-r^2}\sin\theta)$. which i agree with
i think it's actually easy enough to use the Cartesian form of Cauchy-Riemann, btw
since $(u,v)=(xe^{-x^2-y^2},-ye^{-x^2-y^2})$
hey semi
(i say that mostly b/c i remember what the Cartesian form of the CR equations are off the top of my head)
i got a question about the question we were working on a while ago
23:08
hi.
1
Q: Construct an infinitely differentiable function $f$, that satisfies $f'(x) = 3(f(x))^{2/3}$ and $f(0) = 0$

user19405892 Construct infinitely many differentiable functions $f$, that satisfy $f'(x) = 3(f(x))^{2/3}$ and $f(0) = 0$. It seems that we must solve this so we can integrate to get $\displaystyle \int f'(x) dx = f(x) + C = \int{3(f(x))^{2/3}}dx$. Then I am not sure how to simply the integral on the lef...

so we constructed one particular example, correct?
we did. do you remember which one? i'm not sure I do.
@Semiclassical ok but even if I try that I'll still get the same answer which doesn't seem right. And i've tried this again and again and the calculations appear to be right but don't give a right answer
the (x-1)^3 for x ≥ 1 and f(x) = 0 for x < 1
but didn't the question ask to construct infinitely many
sure. but was there anything special about choosing the transition point to be $x=1$?
23:10
no
in fact we could've chosen any!
right?
right. anything nonnegative, at any rate---if it's negative, you'd want to flip it around
and, well, how many examples does "any nonnegative number" give you?
yeah, but one of the users answers says that there aren't infinitely many
right.
Alex's answer?
check Alex M.s
yeah. i think he's on the wrong base.
23:12
yeah me too
@Semiclassical got the right answer. Thanks :)
we have constructed infinitely many so any other conclusion is wrong
btw, the easiest way I see that CR one is using the version $\partial f/\partial \overline{z}=0$
which is a useful version, if not in any sense the polar form
here it gives that $$\frac{\partial}{\partial \overline{z}}\overline{z}e^{-\overline{z}z}=e^{-\overline{z}z}-\overline{z}z e^{-\overline{z}z}=0$$
which, since $e^{-\overline{z}z}$ doesn't vanish for any finite $z$, means that you need $\overline{z}z=1$
and that's what you were trying to show, albeit in a different manner.
@Semiclassical yes that does seem to simplify it. Is there a particular name for the theorem so that I can look it up? I haven't seen this form before
23:19
i forget, tbh. it's definitely mentioned on Wikipedia's CR equation page
Thanks a lot :)
i need help with this question
don't think I can help there. just to check, though, by $A_i A_j$ they mean the distance between those two points?
yep
i have the solution
mmkay. that's not the clearest notation in the world.
i'm guessing they do it by induction?
23:26
yes
right. yeah, not going to be able to help here.
i just don't get why we can reduce the problem to the case it is convex
i remember someone telling me because by prolongation it reduces the concave case to convex
and angles A0AnAn-1and A1A0An don't have to be convex
so if it intersects in the concave case, it must also intersect in the convex case
best i can suggest is testing it for some small $n$ case, say $n=5$, and try to find an example which looks like it 'has to be concave'
does that match the conditions, though?
it doesn't look immediately so to me
yes i didn't match the length conditions i am just working on the angle condition and seeing what they mean by this prolongation thing
well, even the angles don't seem to work. the first angle (A0-A1-A2) should be the smallest, and then the subsequent ones should all be progressively larger
but the second angle seems to be the biggest of all of them.
hmm yes i didnt try to draw this accurately at all but i am just wondering about the prolongation argument
fair enough. it depends on whether said argument depends at all on those conditions.
and the fact that it selects $A_{n-1}A_n$ (i.e. the one that should be longest) as the segment to be prolonged makes me wonder about that
but this does make me think that the $n=6$ case is probably more annouying to give an example of than is reasonable
23:49
yeah
but why would we want to prolong $A_{n-1}A_n$ so that it intersects a segment? don't we not want that?
well, they're trying to do a proof by contradiction
so i think in effect they're trying to construct a counterexample, and show that any such attempt will fail.
oh i see we just want to show a contradiction and that none of the segments intersect
it really upsets me how hard it is to get access to some theses.
@MikeMiller access in general can be a right arse, though i can imagine theses in particular are a pain
can't even get it on SciHub.
23:58
@user19405892 here's a fairly concrete example
actually, i'll just link it: i.sstatic.net/liVSj.png

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