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16:05
I guess I've been implicitly assuming that $f$ is unbounded as you go to infinity. :P You win.
Secretly the problem is caused because there are "critical points at infinity".
:D
Yeah.
Or maybe not secretly.
Now assume it's unbounded in both directions at infinity.
Yeesh.
Wow, it seems they've updated the mobile version of the chat!
16:31
@BalarkaSen: Though this one, I think, finally gives the desired result, let's rephrase 4) to "Provided $f$ accumulates on the critical set"
err, $\gamma$
0
Q: Proof of existence and uniqueness of the exponential function using ODEs

Jessy CatIn our lecture notes for our complex analysis class, we were given the following theorem: Theorem: There exists a unique complex function $f$ such that $f(z)$ is a single valued function $f(z) \in \mathbb{R}$ whenever $z \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f(1)=e$. $\forall z_{1},z_{2} \in \mathb...

What I'm having trouble with now is what I mentioned in my last comment at the bottom of the page.
I don't know if the guy who answered me is ever going to get back to me with an answer to my follow-up question.
16:50
@s.harp you gave me awesome example for my doubt but now the another doubt pops up, so anyody please help.. i know $\lim_{N\to \infty}\sum_n^N f_n(N) \neq \sum_n^\infty \lim_{N\to \infty}f_n(N)$ but my doubt is
i got it that we should sum firsat the apply the limit
but then how can i apply limit here $\lim_{x\to \infty} (x+x^2+x^3)$
anybody want to answer my question, please do. I have to go to class now.
@MikeMiller Actually, I am not sure anymore where compactness of the critical set is required for 1). Given $f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R$ is unbounded as I head to infinity, and that $\lim_{N \to \infty} f(\gamma(N))$ is finite, $\gamma(t)$ must always be finite, i.e., image of $\gamma$ must be bounded. As $(f \circ \gamma)'(t) = \nabla f(\gamma(t)) \cdot \gamma'(t) = - \| \nabla f(\gamma(t))\|^2 \leq 0$, $f$ decreases monotonically along the image of $\gamma$. But $f \circ \gamma$ must also have bounded image, so $f$ cannot decreasing along $\gamma$ without bound.
I mean, we are essentially looking at a compact set $K \subset \Bbb R^n$ where the image of $g$ lives ('cause it has to be bounded). And then the bit of the critical set that lies in $K$ is automatically compact, so we don't really need any compactness assumption, do we?
@sharafzaman if you want you can reformulate the expression as $x^3+x^2+x=x^3(1+1/x+1/x^2)$ for $x\neq0$. Then you can see that if eg $x>1$ the 3 little sums are always in the inteval $[1,3]$ whereas the $x^3$ term grows without bound
You're making me work too hard, @Balarka!
But, yes. Once you have unbounded at infinity, you're right, you've just given a correct proof that you must accumulate to the critical set.
Let's modify appropriately.
@s.harp the can i apply limit after that
17:02
3) Find an example where you get arbitrarily close to the critical set, but do not accumulate to it.
That's what I was gunning for in 3).
This is not possible if the critical set is compact.
@MikeMiller Phew, ok. I was trying to be very careful so that I don't say anything silly, good to know I haven't so far.
Drop the unboundedness assumption for (3)-(4), you've solved (5), you still need to do (1) and (6).
(My mistake came because in the example I usually think about, the critical set is compact and finite energy is equivalent to accumulating to it, but this is because I can reformulate the notion of being on the critical set in this special case.)
OK, thanks, noted.
@sharafzaman I don't know what you mean with "apply the limit"
@MikeMiller I can't quite understand the statement of (3), but do you mean that "Find an example where given the gradient flow line $\gamma$, for any $\epsilon > 0$ there is a $T > 0$ such that $d(\gamma(t), A) < \epsilon$ whenever $t > T$, but for every $x \in A$ there is an nbhd $U_x$ of $x$ which is disjoint from the image of $\gamma$"?
17:15
Sure.
@s.harp i was evaluating a question and i got the limit $$\lim_{n\to \infty}[ \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6n^3}x+\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6n^3}]$$
and i just took the higher power of n out then i just substituted the value of limit at places of n and i got $$\frac{x}{3}+\frac{1}{3}$$ and answer is correct but i wondered in that $\lim_{N\to \infty}\sum_n^N f_n(N) \neq \sum_n^\infty \lim_{N\to \infty}f_n(N)$ case i didn't get my answer but here i got how?
Thanks.
@BalarkaSen Hello
@sharafzaman if you pull the $1/n^3$ into the products, you get expressions like $1(1+1/n)(2+1/n)/6 x +1(1+1/n)(2+1/n)/6$. You can use standard statements of convergent sequences to calculate such expressions. (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_of_a_sequence#Properties )
@s.harp ya! this mean $\frac{1}{n}$ will tend to zero so i will get my answer, correct?
Huy
Huy
17:35
hey @Soham
how's it going
@MikeMiller Right, I agree with you that (3) is impossible if critical set is compact. An example can be obtained by looking at a function $f : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ with critical points at $1/n$'s, $n$ integer, I believe. If I can make $\gamma$ pass through $0$, I am done, because that's the limit point. Making $f$ $C^\infty$ at the origin needs care though, but I think it's possible.
Eh, sorry, there's something wrong.
You can't possibly do this in $\Bbb R$ for topological reasons.
@Huy Could you give me a hint on how to get started? I have two matrices, say $A$ and $B$, with the same number of rows. If their column spaces are equal, how can I show that their projection matrices must be equal? Geometrically, this makes sense, but I don't see how to prove this using matrix algebra
A gradient flow line in $\Bbb R$ that doesn't go to infinity accumulates somewhere and has a limit because, well, obviously.
(But also you can prove it.)
Huy
Huy
@Clarinetist: what do you mean by their projection matrices, precisely?
17:46
@Huy E.g., $P_A = A(A^TA)^{-}A^T$
Huy
Huy
is this the generalized inverse stuff again? :D
What I was thinking is in the positive half of $\Bbb R$ I can make $f$ have local max at $1/n$'s of gradually decreasing height and on the non-positive half make $f$ zero. Start $\gamma$ at $0$. Then it stays at $0$, which has distance $0$ from $\{1/n:n \in \Bbb N\}$ but accumulates nowhere on the critical set.
But I doubt this $f$ would be smooth.
If $f'$ is continuous, and $f'$ is zero at $1/n$, then...
Huy
Huy
@Clarinetist: any useful properties of the projection matrix you can use?
17:48
Right.
It cannot possibly be even $C^1$.
@Huy Symmetry, idempotency... umm
@Huy Rank of projection of $A$ is equal to rank of $A$ which is equal to trace
@Clarinetist in what sense is that a projection matrix? without some other properties of $A$, i don't see how it'd be idempotent
@Semiclassical Idk, that's just how we define it in stats. It projects whatever we put after it to the column space of $A$ in that case
Huy
Huy
@Semiclassical: take a 1-dimensional subspace and a unit vector $v$ spanning it. then, you can project to that space with $P_v = v v^T$. if you have a $k$-dimensional space, take a matrix $A$ with columns being an ONB of that space. then, $P = A A^T$ does the job. however, if you just take a matrix $A$ with columns forming a basis, you need to normalize. that's what the $(A^T A)^{-1}$ does. if you think vectors, you have $(v^T v)^{-1} = \| v \|^{-2}$.
17:56
@MikeMiller I am having dinner right now, but I will whip up an example after I finish.
um, but it's $(A^T A)$ (no reciprocal) in the expression before
Huy
Huy
@Semiclassical: did you read my message right after that expression?
(also it's not just $A^T A$ in that expression)
generalized inverse stuff?
@BalarkaSen: You should probably prove what I said above: a gradient flow line on $\Bbb R$ that doesn't go off to infinity has a unique limit in the critical set. (It might be a stationary point, but that's fine.)
Huy
Huy
@Semiclassical: I think by $(A^T A)^-$, @Clarinetist meant to write $(A^T A)^{-1}$ which seemed more reasonable in this context
17:59
ugh, i misread that expression worse than that
@Huy $A^TA$ doesn't necessarily have to be invertible
Huy
Huy
yes, hence the generalized inverse
i read it too quick and thought the minus was a subtraction
Huy
Huy
lol
facepalm
Huy
Huy
17:59
that would have been an odd projection
yep
regardless, that's a lot more sensible
Huy
Huy
given some space $V$, there are a lot of different projections projecting to $V$, right?
is there some way to restrict this to get a unique one? kernel?
yes
the kernel determines the projection
Huy
Huy
kernel + image is enough, yes?
kernel & image I should say
Huy
Huy
18:03
yeah, that's what I assumed
by what properties is $A^-$ defined?
@Semiclassical $AA^{-}A = A$
Hi!!!
Suppose that we have a vector $v$ with $m$ non-zero components.
Also assume that $w$ is a vector with $2m$ non-zero components.
Why does it hold that $v+w$ has $m$ non-zero components?
@Evinda Without loss of generality, suppose $v, m \in \mathbb{R}^k$, $k > 2m$.
Huy
Huy
18:04
@Clarinetist: I think that is the argument I'd try to go for - showing kernel and image of the projections coincide. but maybe there's a better method.
@Huy < hasn't heard of kernels in something like 3 years
Huy
Huy
get used to them
@Clarinetist m is a positive real number, isn't it?
not seeing how that can possibly be true. i mean, isn't $(1,0)+(1,1)=(2,1)$ a counterexample?
@Semiclassical That's true. I didn't think about that. The zeros would have to be in the same coordinates
< needs to spend this summer reviewing linear algebra
18:07
now, i could see it being true if it were "show that $v+w$ has at least $m$ non-zero components"
Huy
Huy
@Clarinetist: I thought you were studying topology so you could teach me some
@Huy Sigh, I've decided to prioritize knocking out the quals I have in May
Huy
Huy
:P
priorities
I'm getting a study group together from the local university for math stuff in the summer though
Huy
Huy
such a pain
18:08
The power of reddit :)
Huy
Huy
the last study group on reddit I joined didn't work out well
I can hope :P
$v$ is a vector of weight $m$, so with m non-zero components. So all vectors in $C+v$ have weight at least $m$.
$w \in C$ is a vector of weight $2m$ and $v$ is a "subset" of $w$ then $v,w+v \in C+v$ are two vectors of weight exactly $m$. @Clarinetist @Semiclassical
Why does it hold the weight $w+v$ is exaclt m?
what is $C$ here, the vector space?
It is a linear code @Semiclassical
18:11
@Huy: I am tempted to not blame teddit
that's a rather huge part of the context you've omitted.
the last study group I joined also failed
Huy
Huy
@MikeMiller: you joined a study group?
@Semiclassical Oh sorry, is my question related to the fact that C is a linear code?
what's a linear code
18:13
seeing as the claim you gave above is clearly false according to the counterexample I gave above? yes, i'd say that it must be pretty important
It's a linear subspace of $\mathbb{F}_q^n$. @Clarinetist
Huy
Huy
probably just some $X^n$ for some countable set $X$
yeah but then we all stopped studying
*sees abstract algebra*
*runs*
@Semiclassical Why does the statement hold for linear codes?
18:16
considering I have no idea how linear codes work, i couldn't tell you.
i'd start with understanding why all vectors in $C+v$ have weight at least $m$, since that clearly fails to be true if $-v\in C$
Hello; I want to prove that this set $D=\{x\in E, d(x,A)>d(x,B)\}$ is open
@clarinetist what confuses me is that the projector is written as $A(A^T A)^- A^T$ rather than $A^T A(A^T A)^-$
I choose $r= d(x,A)-d(x,B)$ bur i can't prove that $B(x,r)\subset B$
i can see how the latter expression is idempotent, but that doesn't seem right for the first
can you help me @Huy
18:22
or the reverse order for that second expression. same difference.
unless $A^T$ is itself invertible, but that seems bizarre in a generalized-inverse context
@Semiclassical $$A(A^TA)^{-}A^TA(A^TA)^{-}A^T = A(A^TA)^{-}A^T$$
This is because by definition of $(A^TA)^{-}$, $$A^TA(A^TA)^{-}A^TA = A^TA$$ and there's a result that says that $$AB = AC \Longleftrightarrow A^TAB = A^TAC$$
hmm. so $A^T$ is effectively 'invertible' in that specific context.
0
Q: Proof of existence and uniqueness of the exponential function using ODEs

Jessy CatIn our lecture notes for our complex analysis class, we were given the following theorem: Theorem: There exists a unique complex function $f$ such that $f(z)$ is a single valued function $f(z) \in \mathbb{R}$ whenever $z \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f(1)=e$. $\forall z_{1},z_{2} \in \mathb...

@Semiclassical "Invertible" yes. To see why this is true, $\Longrightarrow$ is obvious. For $\Longleftarrow$, you get $A^TA(B-C) = 0$ or $(B-C)^TA^TA(B-C) = 0$, which implies that $[A(B-C)]^TA(B-C) = 0$, and there's a result that says that this implies that $A(B-C) = 0$.
that sounds right.
18:38
@Huy @Semiclassical I found the proof in an obscure book I have
The idea is to prove two things: let $A$ be $n \times p$ and $B$ be $n \times q$ with $C(B) \subset C(A)$. Then show: (1) $P_A B = B$ and $B^{\prime}P_A = B^{\prime}$, and (2) $P_A P_B = P_B P_A = P_B$
18:55
Back.
hello, @BalarkaSen
I want to prove that this set $D=\{x\in E, d(x,A)>d(x,B)\}$ is open
I choose $r= d(x,A)-d(x,B)$ but i can't prove that $B(x,r)\subset B$
have you an idea please
@DanielFischer have you an idea ?
19:13
People keep posting answers and comments and then deleting them!!
If anybody in here can please, please help me with the last part of the question I posted, I would be so incredibly grateful!
@PVAL, I think you posted something before.
@MikeMiller Getting the easy ones done: 6) Assume $\gamma$ is finite length but does not have a limit. Then there's a sequence $\{t_k\}$ in $[0, \infty)$ such that $\{\gamma(t_k)\}$ is not convergent.
It's also not Cauchy, as $\Bbb R^n$ is complete. So there's an $\epsilon$ such that $\|\gamma(t_{k+1}) - \gamma(t_k)\| \geq \epsilon$ regardless of whatever $k$ I choose. Then $\int_{t_k}^{t_{k+1}} \|\gamma'(u)\| du \geq \epsilon$ for all $k$, hence $\int_0^{t_k} \|g'(u)\| du \geq k \epsilon$. As $k \to \infty$, left side is the length while right side blows up to $\infty$: impossible situation.
Uniqueness is clear.
(I should have mentioned I chose $\{t_k\}$ so that $t_k \to \infty$, sorry).
19:41
Someone help me please
19:54
@Vrourou What is E?
@Mambo it is a metric space $(E,d)$
Are A and B any two subsets?
20:12
@Mambo have you an idea on a good choice of $r$ ?
@Vrouvrou Do you know anything about the function $f(x) = d(x,A)$, where $A$ is any subset of $E$
it is continuous
Can you prove it?
by using that $|d(x,A)-d(y,A)|<d(x,y)$
Help please.
20:17
Do you notice something more?
something more than continuity?
@Mambo no, like what ? it is Lipschitz
What is the definition of continuity?
in $\mathbb{R}$ ?
In metric spaces
Say you have a function $f:(X,d) \to (Y,p)$
When will be $f$ continuous?
@JessyCat What kind of help do you need?
0
Q: Proof of existence and uniqueness of the exponential function using ODEs

Jessy CatIn our lecture notes for our complex analysis class, we were given the following theorem: Theorem: There exists a unique complex function $f$ such that $f(z)$ is a single valued function $f(z) \in \mathbb{R}$ whenever $z \in \mathbb{R}$ and $f(1)=e$. $\forall z_{1},z_{2} \in \mathb...

I need help getting the very last part done
20:23
$\forall \varepsilone>0, \exists \delta>0, \forall x\in E, d(x,a)<\delta\Rightarroe d(f(x),f(a))<\varepsilone$ @Mambo
but i don't see the relation with the choice of $r$
and $\delta$ depends on?
f from $(E,d)$ to $(E,d)$
okay
on $\varepsilone$
For the function $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} x \to x^2$, Will you get such a delta working for all $x \in \Bbb R$
20:27
yes and then ?
Take $\varepsilon = 1$ give me $\delta$
HELP PLEASE
@Mambo in what this help me to find $r$ ?
say we have O at the origin and A,B,C, G points in space
what is the condition that A,B,C, G lie on the same plane?
20:30
Do you know what continuity does to open sets?
I am told we must have aOA+bOB+cOC = OG
the pre-image of open sets is open
@Mambo
but i don't knoe to use this
i want to find $r$
Consider the function $f(x) = d(x,A) - d(x,B)$
it is continuous yes
What is $f^{-1}((0,\infty))$?
20:32
equal $D$
but i have to prove that D is open usins $B(x,r)\subset D$
i have to find r
@Mambo
HELP PLEASE
Let $X = A\cup B ; A,B $ are disjoint closed sets.
What is your desired set in this case?
you are with me @Mambo?
yes
PLEASE ADVICE
20:43
By the way, your definition of continuity said above is not correct. With that definition you cannot give the $\delta$ I asked for
i don't understand how the continuity give me r
Take $\varepsilon = 1$ and find the corresponding $\delta$
$\delta$ is $r$.
PLEASE DO THE NEEDFUL
Whatever you have stated as definition of continuity is actually the definition of uniform continuity
i don't know how to do @Mambo
i think that $r=\frac12 [d(x,A)-d(x,B)]$ works
21:00
Can you prove it?
i don't know using continuity
as you tel me
@Balarka More straight forwardly: The integral from 0 to infinity of $\grad f$ exists and is finite.
I figured it out 8-)
Take any $y \in B(x,r)$ and compute $d(y,A) - d(y,B)$ by plugging in $d(x,A)$ and $d(x,B)$
ok thank you i found it
21:08
@MikeMiller Right.
Hi @TedShifrin.
@Vrourou Did you understand what was the problem with the definition of continuity?
Can you recall again?
i use $|d(x,A)-d(y,A)|<d(x,y)$ and $|d(x,B)-d(y,B)|<d(x,y)$
Yes
@Vrouvrou The definition of continuity?
21:14
$\forall \varepsilone>0, \exists \delta>0, \forall x\in E, d(x,a)<\delta\Rightarroe d(f(x),f(a))<\varepsilone$
@MikeMiller About 1), lots of curves with finite energy but not finite length. E.g. $f(x) = 1/x$ on $[1, \infty)$. $\int_1^\infty f(x)^2 dx = 1$, whereas $\int_1^\infty f(x) dx$ isn't finite. I can extend $f$ to a smooth curve on $[0, \infty)$ by hand: glue a curve $g$ on $[0, 1]$ to the end of $f$, so that all the derivatives of $g$ at $g(1)$ is equal to the derivatives of $f$ at $f(1)$.
@Vrouvrou Do you mean If you fix an $\varepsilon$ then $\forall x \in E$ same $\delta$ works?
(Sorry, I forgot to say that the curve is $\gamma(x) = \log(x)$ on $[1, \infty)$. That has finite energy, but not finite length).
I am a bit skeptic that finite length implies finite energy though. Antiderivative of $f(x) = 1/\sqrt{x}$ on $(0, 1]$ has finite length: $\int_0^1 f(x)dx = 2$. But $\int_0^1 f(x)^2dx$ doesn't converge, so anti-derivative of $f$ doesn't have finite energy. Can't this happen with $[0, \infty)$ instead of $(0, 1]$?
Hi
say we have O at the origin and A,B,C, G points in space
what is the condition that A,B,C, G lie on the same plane?
I am told we must have aOA+bOB+cOC = OG
is this right?
does this have to do with linear combinations?
21:36
@Balarka: No. Do it!
22:18
What's a good policy on unnecessary logical shorthand?
@PVAL Avoidance?
@DanielFischer grading of
@PVAL You're grading and the students are still in the phase of "if it isn't all symbols it ain't maths"? Tell them that words are awesome for readability.
@DanielFischer Apparently a professor (not the one I'm grading under) told them that "Real Math" was filled with logical shorthand. Arxiv was open on my computer so I clicked a random article.
22:32
@PVAL Real maths uses a balanced mix of symbols and words.
9
can anyone help with my question?
These symbols are usually not logical shorthand.
23:13
@PVAL @DanielF: When I took point-set topology from Munkres, he forbade us to use any symbols (other than implies, element of, etc.) ... He insisted that we write words and complete sentences.
I've always taught my students the same way. I find it impenetrable to look at a line (or worse, a page) of symbols.
23:26
@Ted I was at some point taught to not use the logical symbol for implies.
I have regressed though.
I use $\implies$, not the right arrow.
I think I only use that for bidirectional proofs so it is easier to denote the direction (as saying something like the "if direction" or "forward direction" can get confusing otherwise.
Well, good for you. I still write "if then" if I'm in prose mode, but use the implies symbol if there are some lines of math formulas ... I think ... :)
Well I haven't had to do analysis in a while..

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