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22:00
MyDogAte: So I'm alleging that you can prove that when $R$ is any quotient of an integral domain (a ring with no zero-divisors), so it'll hold in any $\Bbb Z/n$.
Also, $(xy-1)a=(xy-1)b=0$
whereas $D$ definitely isn't. (the momentum operator $p=-i D$ is, but then that gives $xp-px=i$)
yes, I get the point, @Semiclassic. Cool.
one also should have that $a^{\dagger}a$ serves as a 'number operator', namely $(a^{\dagger}a)a=a^\dagger a-1$
nope, i'm still wrong
Not quite sure what that means.
22:03
@PvAL: Still that's a nice start.
You're doing well so far, MyDogAte.
Hmm, I think I understand implicit and inverse function theorem now. Will do harder problems tomorrow morning.
the main reason $a^\dagger a$ matters is that, if $a^\dagger a \psi = n \psi$ for some state $\psi$, then $a^\dagger a(a^\dagger \psi) = (n+1)\psi$
so if we have a ground state $\psi$ such that $a\psi=0$, we immediately have a tower of eigenstates $\psi, a^\dagger \psi,(a^\dagger)^2 \psi,\cdots$ with integer eigenvalues
and if one uses the representation I said above, then $\psi = e^{-x^2/2}$ is such an example
Ah, there's that eigenfunction for the Fourier transform again ...
in which case one finds $(a^\dagger)^n \psi = H_n(x)\psi$ where $H_n(x)$ are the Hermite polynomials
22:08
Ah, right.
@ted yep. note that $a^\dagger a = \frac{1}{2}(x+D)(x-D) = -\frac{1}{2}D^2+\frac{1}{2}x^2 +\frac{1}{2}$
Yup, I can do Algebra I :D
which maps to itself under Fourier transform
Suppose that we have two parallel vectors and want to find all the unit vectors that are orthogonal to these vectors.
Then it suffices to find all the unit vectors that are orthogonal to one of these vectors, let d.
If we find two non-collinear vectors, a and b, that are orthogonal to d , does it hold that all the vectors that are orthogonal to the initial two vectors are $t \cdot a+s \cdot b, t,s \in \mathbb{R}$? If so, why does this hold?
What dimension are you working in @evinda?
22:11
$\mathbb{R}^3$ @TedShifrin
in terms of $x,y$ as earlier, one has identites like $(yx)x=x(yx-1)$ and $(yx)y=y(yx+1)$
So draw some pictures. If you fix a nonzero vector in $\Bbb R^3$, what do all the vectors orthogonal to it look like?
"drawing some pictures" is really the first step one should always do in a problem like that
One reason my books are full of pictures ... even the algebra book. :)
yep
going back to my stuff, one also can consider the eigenvalue problem $a\psi = \alpha \psi$
22:14
Typographical nightmare.
in which case one gets the so-called coherent states, which are a bunch of fun
maybe, but it's exactly the kind of nightmare you'd see :P
@TedShifrin They will be parallel to it
I prefer $T$ and $\lambda$, which don't look the same :P
What does orthogonal mean, @evinda?
probably for these purposes I'd do $x\psi = \lambda \psi$
No, $x$ is already the variable.
22:15
@TedShifrin Say I have a sequence $f_k : B \to B$ of contraction mappings, $B \subset \Bbb R^n$ a compact ball, converging pointwise to a contraction mapping $f : B \to B$. When can I say that the fixed points $x_k$ of $f_k$ converge to a fixed point $x$ of $f$?
Hi @Khallil
I can prove this if $f_k$ converges to $f$ uniformly: Fix some $\epsilon > 0$. Uniformity says I can find an $N$ so that for $n > N$, $\|f(t) - f_n(t)\| \leq \epsilon$. Thus, $\|x - x_n\| = \|f(x) - f_n(x_n)\|$ which is smaller than $\|f(x) - f_n(x)\| + \|f_n(x) - f_n(x_n)\| \leq \epsilon + c_n\|x - x_n\|$ where $c_n \in (0, 1)$. But this clearly implies $\|x - x_n\| \leq \epsilon/(1 - c_n)$, so we're done.
true. i was trying to honor the fact that $xy-yx=1$ was used earlier
Sigh, I'm stuck on a "trivial" question again :P
Oh sorry , it means perpendicular @TedShifrin
But what can we say geometrically?
22:16
@Balarka: A priori, $x_k$ needn't even converge.
But I do not know if this is true for arbitrary $\{f_k\}$ converging to $f$.
So what are the things perpendicular to the vector $(1,0,0)$, @evinda?
but $T\psi = \lambda \psi$ with $T S-S T=1$ is fine.
@TedShifrin I am not sure of that. Can you give me an example?
$(x,y,z) \cdot (1,0,0)=0 \Rightarrow x=0$ @TedShifrin
22:18
one is typically interested in the time evolution generated by $\exp(-i \tau ST)$
Right ... So you get all vectors $(0,y,z)$ for any $y,z$.
What does that look like geometrically, @evinda?
Doing some analysis, @BalarkaSen? :P
Oh, you're assuming contraction mappings.
Oh no, I am on the perfect path to becoming a real analyst. Nightmare.
Hey, @TedShifrin!
22:18
@Ted Right.
Long time no see, @BalarkaSen too! ^_^
I was thinking of nonunique fixed points. Can't happen, then.
Hi @Khallil.
That there is no intersection point? @TedShifrin
@TedShifrin Cool. Can you give me a proof? I need this thing to prove something I want to prove.
@Danu Exactly.
22:19
Not yet I can't, @Balarka.
@evinda: Draw pictures.
4 hours ago, by Danu
Please don't make people solve your problems for you
(just kidding)
going back to differential forms: I'm forgetting if there's a tidy expression for $d(fg)$ for scalar $f,g$. is it just $f\,dg+g\,df$?
PRODUCT* rule?
yeah, i guess in the scalar case there's no need to get complicated
In fact that's kind of what one aims for in the general case, too
22:21
@Danu That's a strange sense of humor.
This is typically a situation where one applies the inverse/implicit function theorems, @Balarka: If you have a family of functions depending on parameters, and you want to study the solutions to some equations, do they vary continuously/smoothly with the parameters?
You can define $d$ as the thing that extends this kind of thing
Yes, @Semiclassic. It's called the product rule :)
Right, I came up with this trying to generalize a portion of the proof of inverse function theorem.
22:22
Can all the orthogonal vectors to (1,0,0) be written as follows: $s(0,2,0)+t(0,0,3)$ ? @TedShifrin
^But also in a simpler way
how does it look for $d(\alpha\wedge \beta)$ with $\alpha,\beta$ being $n$-,$m$-forms respectively?
Sure, @evinda, but no need to put $2$ or $3$. $1$'s will do.
@Semiclassical Product rule up to a factor $(-1)^{\operatorname{deg}\alpha}$ on the second term
i seem to recall that it's just $\alpha \wedge d\beta$ and $d\alpha\wedge \beta$ with appropriate signs
22:23
Never mind. Danu answered.
(as is easily seen in coordinates)
there we go
@TedShifrin But note that applying IFT means I need C^1 assumptions. I only have C^0.
I know, @Balarka. Yes, this is a standard uniform convergence exercise. What's an example of a sequence of contraction mappings that does not converge uniformly?
So if we have a vector and two non-collinear vectors that are orthogonal to the vector, then any linear combination of these two non-collinear vectors will be perpendicular to the initial vector since the three vectors span $\mathbb{R}^3$ ? @TedShifrin
22:26
$f_n : I \to I$, $f_n(x) = x^n$ works, I believe.
It converges pointwise to the char function at $1$, which is obviously not continuous, so doesn't converge uniformly at all.
The limit function isn't a contraction mapping.
Are you assuming convergence is to a contraction map?
Oh, you want the limit function to be C^0 and a contraction. Hmm.
Well, I'm asking.
OK, so a sequence of contractions converging to a contraction ptwise but not uniformly.
Let me think.
okay, then. so from my above i have $$d(\omega F)=F\,d\omega+\omega\, dF=\star d(\omega G)=G(\star d\omega)+\omega(\star dG)$$
22:29
What is $F$?
@Semiclassic. Most of us use $\omega$ as a differential form, so this is very confusing.
and $G$
Oh, $\omega$ is not a form? Okay, I guess I'll shut up :P
some scalar functions such that $dF\wedge \star dG =0$
Physicists have weird taste for notations, of course.
ducks twice
not sure what else to use for an integrating factor :/
pffffft
22:30
Um, $\lambda$ is nice. So is $u$.
i'll go with $u$.
@Balarka: I have an example on $\Bbb R$, I believe. I won't ruin your fun.
$$d(uF)=F\,du+u\, dF=\star d(u G)=G(\star du)+u(\star dG)$$
better?
@TedShifrin At least now I know the thing I am looking for exists. I'll keep on thinking.
I should probably read about Lipschitz continuity following @MikeMiller's advice on becoming the world's leading expert on Lipschitz manifolds. Analysis is good stuff.
What is $u$? And aren't you omitting some wedges?
22:33
Well, maybe I do. Maybe not. BTW, do we consider the zero function a contraction?
Why wouldn't you?
anyways, i can wedge those expressions with $dF$ and get $F dF\wedge du = G (dF\wedge \star du)$
Well, the Lipschitz constant of the zero function is not in $(0, 1)$.
well, all the forms in there are 1-forms
But some people allow it to be in $[0,1)$.
22:34
Ah, you take it to be in the open interval, fair enough
I think in my book I didn't do that, though.
so i don't see how including wedges would matter since the only products are with 0-forms
Ah, alright.
@TedShifrin Nope!
So, I don't have an example yet.
22:35
doing the same with $\star dG$ gives $F du\wedge \star dG = G(\star du)\wedge (\star dG)$
@Balarka: In particular, of course, the definition of a form on a Lipschitz manifold.
which is starting to hurt my head a bit
i think i've done something nonsensical back there :/
So I need to learn chapter 8 either ways. Good for me!
Huh? @MikeM
no, wait, i think i'm fine. i keep forgetting that $\star$ maps 1-forms to 1-forms here
22:38
@Ted: Mm?
What do Lipschitz manifolds have to do with contraction mapping constants?
8 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
I should probably read about Lipschitz continuity following @MikeMiller's advice on becoming the world's leading expert on Lipschitz manifolds. Analysis is good stuff.
Ohhhhh. Sorry.
Side-comments can be confusing, I agree.
LOL @ "Analysis is good stuff."
22:41
@BalarkaSen It looks like you have enough problems to keep you busy, at the moment, but I'd like to remind you of that topology problem I gave you a while ago.
MyDogAte: You still have my (revised) algebra problem :)
@AkivaWeinberger I remember it :) I'll do it as soon as I get free.
I think I put a false problem on a topology qual some years ago. I was about to put it on my students' topology midterm, and I think it's not quite right.
Namely, if $A$, $B$, and $C$ are closed subsets of $S^2$, then at least one of $A$, $B$, $C$, and $S^2\setminus(A\cup B\cup C)$ contains a pair of antipodes.
Wow, that took a while to type.
different forms question: $\star(\alpha\wedge\beta)=?$
22:43
@Ted: My officemate does quasicomformal manifolds. Those are cool.
@TedShifrin Yeah, I know, still thinking about it
Suppose $f: X\to Y$ is a surjective local homeomorphism. If $X$ is compact and $Y$ is Hausdorff, prove that $f$ is a covering map.
@AkivaWeinberger Speaking of, did you ever prove that S^\infty is contractible?
Ah, Lipman Bers stuff, @MikeM.
@BalarkaSen Nah, I looked it up. Sorry.
22:43
(in the 2D setting i'm working with, it looks like $\star\alpha \wedge \star\beta = -\alpha\wedge \beta$)
But I don't know how to do it using only the CW structure (i.e. without coordinates)
Could someone help me with this latex? $$P(1) = \frac{4\choose2*5\choose1}{9 \choose 3}$$
Are you sure about the minus, @Semiclassic?
@TedShifrin That seems true to me.
no, i'm not. geometrically it seems wrong
22:45
@AkivaWeinberger OK, here's a geometric way.
You don't want an asterisk, @misheek. I don't use \choose. I use \binom.
rotating two planar vectors by ninety degrees each shouldn't change their cross product
\frac{\binom{4}{2}\binom{5}{1}}{binom{9}{3}}
@TedShifrin thanks!
$S^\infty$ is built inductively from gluing two $n$-cells to $S^{n-1}$, correct? You get $S^n$, and then you glue 2 $n+1$-cells, and so on and so forth.
22:46
Yeah
It seemed true to me, too, @Balarka, but I seem to be wrong most of the time.
@Ted Would you know any book that could give me a very basic introduction to sheaves and related things (in a concrete fashion)? Would Forster's book on Riemann surfaces be good?
@Ted: Donaldson and Sullivan did work on these in dim 4, which people abandoned soon after since they're not as smart as Donaldson and Sullivan.
So each $S^n$ is realized as a subcomplex of $S^{n+1}$ as the equator.
I like Forster. The introductory stuff on sheaf theory in Griffiths/Harris is good, too.
Bott/Tu is a great source, too, @Danu.
22:47
but when i do $\star \alpha =\star(\alpha_x dx+\alpha_ydy) = \alpha_y dx-\alpha_y dy$ and wedge it with $\star\beta$
Note that I can nullhomotope the equator $S^n$ inside $S^{n+1}$ by pushing it through one of the attached disks (equators).
@Ted I told you Forster is lecturing on his book here next semester, right? :)
Try $\alpha = dx$ and $\beta = dy$, @Semiclassic. Don't be so complicated.
@BalarkaSen Small typo when I reminded you of that topology problem: we need $A\cap B\cap C=\varnothing$
fair enough
22:47
Forgot to mention that
Yes, @Danu. I've lectured out of his book several times, but I'm sure he'll do it much better :D
Not that it's immediately relevant
@TedShifrin In the introduction he says it's material for ~3 semesters. I assume that means he'll skip a lot of stuff.
So just push each $S^k$ through the equator of $S^{k+1}$, at each level. This gives you a contraction :)
in that case, the minus sign goes away. so now i should figure out what i'm doing wrong
22:48
@AkivaWeinberger Ok, gotcha.
I did a bit more geometric stuff with curves than he does, in fact. But I did just one quarter. So I only covered about half the book.
Which makes me sad, and also makes it harder for me to read up on it before the course start (which I wanted to do, since I'll be taking too many courses next semester)
bah, caught it. yeah, $\star\alpha\wedge \star\beta = \alpha\wedge \beta$
The right question, @Semiclassic, is: What is $\star\star$? It depends on $n$ (dimension) and $k$ (degree of form).
@BalarkaSen Why is that continuous at $t=1$?
At the very end of the contraction
22:49
Exactly the question I expected from you :D
You need to do it with care. Then you get continuous.
should be $-1$ in this case, since $\star$ rotates $\vec{A}$ in $\alpha=\vec{A}\cdot \vec{dx}$ by ninety degrees in the plane.
*waves back*
More precisely, call the nullhomotopy of $S^n$ as $H_n$.
22:50
That sounds handwavy, is what I mean
OK, @Semiclassic.
You need to glue the $H_n$'s by a $[1/2^k, 1/2^{k+1}]$ trick.
Remind me what nullhomotopy is?
@Akiva: Then do the work to make it not.
22:51
Challenge possibly accepted
i'm more used to the case of 3space, i suspect
@AkivaWeinberger Homotopy between the map you have and the constant map.
@Ted: Here's a question I luke to ask students. What happens to * when you change the metric?
OK, gotcha
Still have a nasty knot at $1$ for me to untangle.
22:52
You're doing the nullhomotopy quicker and quicker as you get closer and closer to the vertex point, intuitively speaking.
That's why you don't mess up.
Sometimes, MyDogAte, it's ok to wait a few years, as I've suggested before :P
But it sounds like I may get a $\sin(1/x)$-type problem
Where it also gets faster and faster until continuity breaks
Um?
Yeah, well, check that you don't.
You have to consider what the topology on $S^\infty$ actually is, too.
Speaking of topology, @Balarka, what's your proof that that's a covering map?
Right. *mutters something about the inverse image of neighborhoods of $1$*
22:54
The subspace topology from R^\infty is nasty.
The CW topology is cool.
(I don't think they are the same, but it's contractible in both topologies anyway)
@TedShifrin Give me a few minutes.
I want to show that $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_p)$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_{p-1}$.

The group $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is cylcic and is generated by one element. The possible generators are $1,2,\dots ,p-1$.

Each automorphism maps each of the element of the set $\{1,2,\dots ,p-1\}$ to one of the element $\{1,2,\dots ,p-1\}$, right?

But how can we show that that the automorphism group of $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_{p-1}$ ?
OK, @Balarka, but soon I have to go help 4th graders at the library.
@MaryStar Only for $p$ prime, right?
Aren't the automorphisms $z\mapsto az$ (or $z^a$ if you're using multiplicative notation, which would be weird)?
For $a\ne0$
@TedShifrin Yeah, probably now is not the best time. I am going to drool off soon.
(That doesn't completely solve it, though)
@BalarkaSen What time is it where you live?
22:59
4:30 AM.
okay, i've entirely lost the thread of what i was trying to do
*Googles "time in Kolkata"*
Oh, wow
OK, @Balarka, let me know tomorrow. I think it's wrong.
Don't you have school to go to…?
As I said, I'm mostly wrong these days :)
22:59
@AkivaWeinberger It isn't specified but I think so.
Talk to you tomorrow. I don't think it's wrong, but I'll have a look carefully.
How are you even mathing competently…
Yes, $p$ has to be prime.
It is ridiculous, isn't it, MyDogAte?
@AkivaWeinberger Why are these the automorphism?
What is special about cyclic groups, @MaryStar?
23:01
'Cause $f(x+y)=a(x+y)=ax+ay=f(x)+f(y)$
@AkivaWeinberger For the first question, school's off. And I was about to ask the same question to you. For the second question, I have learnt to be nocturnal. I think @Ted and @Mike has noted that I am saying garbage a lot less than usual.
And similarly for inverses
@TedShifrin Do you know anything about mirror symmetry, and why mathematicians care about it?
It's 6pm here, school's over
Not any more, @Danu. I knew some a long time ago. It's about beautiful algebraic geometry stuff.
23:02
Technically I have choir but I'm too sick to sing
(Cold)
I think this room should just be left to the 15- and 16-year olds.
@TedShifrin Okay.
@TedShifrin Pfft
@Danu You want to see yourself asymmetrical when you look in the mirror?
Other than me and Balarka, who… @TedShifrin
Observation 1: Physicists say "pfft" a lot more than normal standards.
23:03
@TedShifrin Each of the elements $\{1,2,\dots ,p-1\}$ generate the group, right?
There were lots of others ... Soham and Julian and ...
Explanations: String theory.
Not always, @MaryStar, but $1$ generates the group always.
@BalarkaSen Maybe you're not saying "pfft" enough.
23:03
I'm interested to learn about the mathematical ideas around mirror symmetry, since I'm supposed to start working on it from the physics side at some point soon :P
hi @Forever.
Then you need to learn a ton of math, @Danu.
@Danu: What are you looking for?
@TedShifrin Why not always? Do you mean in general or for this specific group?
There is this huge (~950 pages I think) book on mirror symmetry but it really doesn't do justice to the math, even though it pretends to
@MikeMiller Some mathematics books that could somehow provide a "way in"
@MaryStar Does $2$ generate $\Bbb Z_8$, for instance?
23:04
To what?
To mirror symmetry
@MaryStar: Try $\Bbb Z_4$. Does $2$ generate it?
I don't need to be an expert but I'd like to have some kind of idea
Note that classical mirror symmetry and homological mirror symmetry look a lot different.
Both are probably interesting to me.
23:05
The latter is now known to imply the former, I think, by work of Perutz.
(Though I think the physical one is the classical one, but I'm not too sure)
If you know any references that'd be highly appreciated.
To see why symplectic geometers might care look up the review of Seidel's book on Fukaya categories.
@Danu "Through the Looking Glass" - Louise Carroll.
@MikeMiller is that the one i linked you?
Did my joke earlier piss you off a little @Balarka? :P
23:06
@AkivaWeinberger No the generators of $\mathbb{Z}_8$ are $1,3,5,7$, right?
It did, thus I am trying my best to piss you off with my jokes.
@TedShifrin No, the generators are $1$ and $3$, right?
@BalarkaSen -1/10
You're way too obvious
23:08
Yes, @MaryStar. But $1$ always generates $\Bbb Z_n$ for any $n$.
Good night, @Balarka.
Also it isn't "Louise" Carroll :P
@Danu: If you want to understand homological mirror symmetry, you need to start by knowing what the Fukaya category is. Auroux has an intro to this that I like.
@MikeMiller Okay, let's take about 23 steps back from there. Is there an "intro to the intro"?
I like that i linked that review to you because of the first half of the title, not the second :)
@Danu auto-correct.
23:09
Poor @Danu.
@TedShifrin I feel motivated, if anything.
So, for clarity, I know beginner-level (2 courses) diffgeo and some stuff about Seifert-Van Kampen. Everything else that is above undergrad is probably unknown to me.
I don't expect to know anything about mirror symmetry by the end of next year, but maybe in 3?
Learn some symplectic geometry is a good start.
I'm off to bed. See you all later.
23:12
Yeah, and some stuff about complex algebraic geometry.
@MikeMiller Okay, there's a course on that next semester.
Or maybe I'll die tomorrow and won't see you all later again.
@TedShifrin I'll be taking two courses on alg.geom. next academic year.
@BalarkaSen err, okay.
I don't know anything about the complez geometry side.
For now, the planning for next semester is (1) complex geometry (2) Riemann surfaces (3) math. gauge theory (intro; very basic as Mike already heard) (4) alg. top. 2 on (co)homology
23:13
@Balarka: See you on the flip side.
+physics courses
You're insane.
...but there's still the course on symplectic & bi-lagrangian structures
:\
@MikeMiller I think it doesn't have to be so terrible. I've got about 2 months of holidays now to start preparing, too.
I've got the notes of last year's complex geometry, and the book on Riemann surfaces that we'll be using
Math. gauge theory will probably overlap with a lot of stuff I already know (as we discussed)
I'm worried most about the physics courses and schedule clashes :(
einfach-zusammenhangend translates as easy-coherent.
Lol
23:19
It took a while to see it meant simply-connected
No, as simply connected
Ya I thought it was quasi-coherent
quasi in English -> quasi in German
for like a minute and had no idea what was going on.
@MikeMiller Are you still in the stages of taking any courses, or have you already progressed beyond that?
23:22
@TedShifrin The truth is, I'm terrified of learning a math concept for the first time in an actual math class
hi @TedShifrin
@BalarkaSen
I will probably sporadically take whatever Inferestig courses we have until I leave.
@AkivaWeinberger It'll be nice: Someone actually trying to make you get it ;D
It's so much easier to have at least a general idea of the concept before actually having to do homework about it
...that's what the lecture is for!
23:23
@Danu But I'm trying to make me get it!
you know @TedShifrin so I didn't study anthropology or even attended classes for that class. So, one day I discovered we had an exam for that class and so I had to do it the exam people were finished after 30 min(it was multiple choice), but I took whole class since I was analyzing the questions to see which answer makes sense. So, I ended up getting 95 % in the exam haha.
that is very risky though
@Danu But what if I don't get it after the lecture? If it's not my first time seeing the concept, I understand the lecture much more
I can't bring myself to get motivated on art electives
@AkivaWeinberger There will also be a book or lecture notes, don't stress!
@Danu your a master student?
23:25
Yes
that is insane semester !!!
@L33ter Sorry, I don't understand what you mean
Are you taking those subjects in 1 semester?
1)complex geometry 2)Riemann surfaces 3)gauge theory 4)alg top ?
the one you mentioned above
I plan to try!
I'll probably fail to keep it up and end up having to drop one; I've also got physics courses to take care of.
I took last semester grad algebra,grad mechanics,grad topology,complex analysis, and English.
It was hell
I did ok, but nonetheless, it was something I am never doing again.
graduate courses take a lot of time to understand
23:30
Well, I'm a grad student so I should be taking grad courses!
I don't know how it is in your country, but here it is actually 6 courses + a thesis for masters.
Here we need 8, I think.
I'm taking a lot more than that, though.
that is nice
I'm spending an extra year here to do more courses
when I enter masters next year I will also attend some undergrad courses to brush up on some stuff
23:35
@TedShifrin Ah ok... How can we use this fact to show the isomorphism?
So what information do you need to specify to determine an automorphism of a cyclic group?
you just need to show where generators go
the generator of your cyclic group capture all its information.
I'm not a native English speaker. Would you say "logarithmically increasing"? It is the "logarithmically" part I'm concerned about.
I certainly wouldn't be able to say it ten times in a row.
brb
@L33ter You're spoiling the god damn exercise!
23:43
The automorphisms map the generators to generators, or not? @Danu @L33ter
You should be able to finish the proof on your own now
All the possible generators of $\mathbb{Z}_p$ are the elements $\{1,2,\dots , p-1\}$. The automorphisms map each of the elements $\{1,2,\dots , p-1\}$ to one of the element of $\{1,2,\dots , p-1\}$.
That means that $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_p)$ contains $p-1$ automorphisms, right?
But how do we continue to show the isomorphism?
Could you give me a hint? @Danu
@BalarkaSen I got a $T_1$ counterexample now
@HowDoIMath I would totally say this... unless I could go a step further and say that it's "increasing at a rate proportional to the reciprocal of time"

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