@AndrewThompson so then we just prove it without using the idea that the function is injective? So then if I say that if $x \in C \cap D$ and $f(x)=y$ then $y \in f(C \cap D)$ which implies that $f(x) \in f(C)$ and $f(x) \in f(D)$ and therefore $f(C \cap D) \subset f(C) \cap f(D)$?
No problem @TedShifrin. @Paradox101 You want to show $f(C \cap D) \subset f(C) \cap f(D)$, so we better start with $y \in f(C \cap D)$. Now we want to deduce $y \in f(C) \cap f(D)$. You were doing fine until the "which implies"
@AndrewThompson so if I instead wrote that $y \in f(C \cap D)$ and there is an $x\in C\cap D$ such that $f(x)=y$ then as $x \in C$ then $y \in f(C)$ and same with the subset $D$ then that proves the conclusion?
@Idle001 the rocket launched uses ballistic tech (that's against UN directives .. ) I am not sure if anything is known about the satellite it was carrying ..
@TedShifrin J'ai une application différentiable $f$ de $\Bbb{R^2}$ dans $\Bbb{R^2}$ qui est propre $\Vert f(x)\Vert\rightarrow +\infty$ et $Df(x)$ est injective. Je dois montrer que $f$ est surjective... je dois donc trouver un vecteur $a$ tel que $f(x)=a$. Puis-je me placer en $0$? Car si ce n'est pas $0$ je n'ai qu'a translater le graphe, non ?
@AndrewThompson maybe something like the floor function? So that for example if $C$ is a set that just contains 1 and $D$ contains only 1.5 then $f(1)=1=f(1.5)$?
@AndrewThompson if I take this example then $C \cap D$ in a null set for the function of that is also null. But the intersection of the function of these sets individually is not null so then they won't be equal?
A fair die is rolled twice. If the two results are the same, a coin is tossed. What's the total number of different possible outcomes of this experiment? Answer: $6 \times 6 = 36$, so $30$ outcomes are a dice roll and $12$ outcomes are a coin toss. $30 + 12 = 42$. Why have they subtracted $6$ from the outcomes of the dice roll?
@AndrewThompson if I prove that by contradiction will that be right? I mean if I first state that there is a function such that $f(x)=f(y)=y$ where $x$ and $y$ are notequal would that be the right start?
@user276387: It's 36 outcomes for the dice roll, but if both outcomes are the same, you pick up an additional option of H/T. So for those 6 cases, there are two outcomes each.
@MikeMiller Nice, which book are you using? @Paradox101 Hm, I think a direct argument is better. I think you can do the exact same argument as you did before, in fact, however as you now want to prove $f(C) \cap f(D) \subset f(C \cap D)$, you have to start with $y \in f(C) \cap f(D)$. Try to carry out the same argument, but note that you will need two (a priori distinct) $x$'s, using the notation from before. Then injectivity will save you.
I seriously recommend starting with the undergraduate curves/surfaces stuff before you go off the deep end to $n$-dimensional manifolds. Lang is doing it all with Banach manifolds, even worse.
I'm suffering the backlash from having a 'top-down' education in diffgeo. At this point I can only think of the tangent space as equivalence classes of curves.
I posted this same question on space.stackexchange but never received any answer. So I am posting here hoping to get an answer as this is a quite mathematical topic.
I am trying to fully understand the TRIAD algorithm for attitude determination of a satellite.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tria...
@Ted: They did Moser's trick, so they've done some geometry. I gave them two examples of things they probably already care about where Frobenius is useful: integrability of almost complex structures and the Lie group - Lie algebra correspondence.
@AndrewThompson so then we start with $y \in f(C) \cap f(D)$ which means that $y \in f(C)$ and $y \in f(D)$ then if we also assume that $x \in C$ and $x \in D$ then $x \in C\cap D$ so from this point we assume an injective function $f(x)=y$?
At some point, I also wanna check out "The Garden of Words". This AMV makes it look so good. The animation looks like the budget was unlimited. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pfBhOcjhowA&index=2&list=WL
@Paradox101 What you write is either correct but extremely unclear or gibberish. '...then if we also assume that" Why can you make such an assumption? (Regardless you are on the right track.)
@AndrewThompson if I instead write after the $y$ parts that let $y=f(x)$ where the function is injective and then say that $f(x) \in f(C)$ and same with $D$ and then state that this implies that $x \in C$ and same with D would that make sense?
$y \in f(C) \cap f(D)$ and therefore $y \in f(C)$ and $y \in f(D)$. Let $y=f(x)$ where the function is injective, then, $f(x) \in f(C)$ and $f(x) \in f(D)$ . Then $x \in C$ and $x \in D$ and therefore $x \in C \cap D$ which implies $f(x) \in f(C \cap D)$ i.e $y \in f(C \cap D)$? @AndrewThompson
Right, so in fact when you wrote "Then $x \in C$ and $x \in D$." Here's how I would've written it:
Let $y \in f(C) \cap f(D)$. Since $y \in f(C)$, there is an $x \in C$ such that $f(x) = y$. Since $y \in f(D)$, there is an $x' \in D$ such that $f(x') = y$. Since $f$ is injective, $x = x'$.Hence $x \in C \cap D$, so $f(x) = y \in f(C \cap D)$.
But your way of writing it is fine, no worries, I'm just being pedantic.
Well, what (s)he is writing is completely correct, however it might suggest (s)he doesn't understand it completely. Had a person written that where I didn't know the author I wouldn't have any suspicions.
Which is the problem of teaching people stuff over the internet: you don't know if they understand what they're writing.
I posted this same question on space.stackexchange but never received any answer. So I am posting here hoping to get an answer as this is a quite mathematical topic.
I am trying to fully understand the TRIAD algorithm for attitude determination of a satellite.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tria...
@MikeM: I won't offer to send notes, because you'll say you can't read them. Basically, for surfaces in $\Bbb R^3$, having the Gauss and Codazzi equations hold is the obstruction to having a given first and second fundamental form determine an immersed surface. The nicest way to see this is the Cartan game.
second most perfect moment of a coder right beside when bying a new computer, seeing his new mathematic formula working out its programatical fruits . toast of the moment
@TedShifrin Indeed. Figured I shouldn't make fun of students on the internet. But I do believe they should do concrete stuff as to be able to manipulate letters cleverly :)
The only way to practice is to do lots, @Michael, and get someone to criticize what you write. (That's why I'm such a believer in graded homework, ignoring cheating.)
@TedShifrin how does it seem to you if a student told you he had over 20.000 results in mathematics? Is that much? Just curious if this volume is a promising one for a student or out there are greater expectations.
As with everything else, you need to start with examples in lectures and texts as models and try to understand them 1000%, then do similar ones yourself, then harder ones, etc.
Here's an easy one at the beginning of linear algebra. Suppose $x$ is a vector in $\Bbb R^n$ and $x\cdot y = 0$ for all $y\in\Bbb R^n$. Prove that $x$ must be the zero vector.
There are lots of possible ways to proceed. See how many proofs you can find and which is simplest.
@TedShifrin Une question que j'ai pas réussi : J'ai une application linéaire $A:\Bbb{R}[X]\mapsto \Bbb{R}$ such that $A(P)=P(1)$, pour la norme $\Vert P\Vert=\bigl(\sum_{i=1}^n\vert a_i\vert^p\bigr)^{1/p}$, j'ai montré que pour $p=1$ elle est continue. Mais pour $p>1$ je dois montrer que non. Donc je dois trouver une suite qui tend vers une limite tel que l'image par $A$ de celle-ci ne tende pas vers l'image de la limite. Mais je ne trouve pas une telle suite de polynômes..
In mathematics, the exponential integral Ei is a special function on the complex plane. It is defined as one particular definite integral of the ratio between an exponential function and its argument.
== DefinitionsEdit ==
For real non zero values of x, the exponential integral Ei(x) is defined as
The Risch algorithm shows that Ei is not an elementary function. The definition above can be used for positive values of x, but the integral has to be understood in terms of the Cauchy principal value due to the singularity of the integrand at zero.
For complex values of the argument, the definition...
In case you miss the point (some of you) I want to tell you that the tiny area of calculating integrals and series is extremely vast. Then, to master this area, one needs to work for years, and a lot of hours a day. Just read this once in a while, especially before opening a contradictory discussion with me.
Let me put a challenge that will also tell a lot about one can do in my area. I'll ofer a free copy of my book for a solution to this probem. Defining $\varphi=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^2 4^k}$, calculate in closed-form $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_k}{k^3 2^k}$$ without using special functions at all (no polylogarithms, no beta function)
It was posted on MSE, and it appeare din many problem, but no one did it according to the requirements above.
I let you also cheat! Here is the point: I let you have talks with colleagues, professors with anyone you want, but don't post it on sites where thousands of people can work on it.