« first day (2005 days earlier)      last day (3313 days later) » 

01:47
I'll repost this here in the main chatroom, maybe somebody will be able to help with that problem:
in Calculus and analysis, 15 hours ago, by johnny09
If we have a $1$st order ODE $\dot{u}=f(u)$ where $f(u)=u^2-4$ how can we do the linearisation about a fixed point?
@BalarkaSen When I read in his profile that he described himself as a failed mathematician, then I do know what I am.
02:22
Is there a faster method than the Euclidean algorithm for finding the $\gcd$?
10 hours ago, by Partly Putrid Pile of Pus
Is the transcendence base of $E/F$ just the subset of $E$, consisting of all transcendentals of $E$ over $F$?
02:38
@PartlyPutridPileofPus I do not not know anything about this topic. But just by having look at what Wikipedia says about this, it seems that the basis definitely does not contain all transcendentals. Elements of the basis have to be algebraically independent.
They list $\pi$ as a basis of $\mathbb Q(\sqrt2,\pi)$ over $\mathbb Q$.
And algebraic independence of a set of $n$ elements, $\{a_1,\cdots,a_n\}$ means that there exists no $f(x_1,\cdots,x_n)\in F[x_1,\cdots,x_n]$ such that $f(a_1,\cdots,a_n)= 0$
And the set of all transcendental elements should satisfy this property, but I could be wrong. Surely there are no algebraic elements in the set
Oh yes I see. There are many transcendentals generated by $\pi$...
No non-trivial $f$. (I.e. non-zero?)
Yes, forgot to write that
Like $\pi$, $2\pi$, $\pi+1$. Again, Wikipedia seems to say something along those lines: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_independence
02:54
I would like to discuss something related to CW complex
I am trying to wrap my head around the way we do the identification
@MartinSleziak familiar with algebraic topology ?
No. But a few people who know about this area frequent this chat. There even is a chat room called Algebraic Topology & Homological Algebra.
oh oke
 
3 hours later…
06:14
@L33ter What is le question?
I asked this in the Homotopy Theory chat room and recieved no answer so i guess I will ask it here.
Given the example,
Let $[n]$ be the finite chain poset $[0\to1\to\codts\to n]$. Then define an infinite sequence
$F:\text{Seq}\to C$
in $C$ to be essentially finite if $F$ factors through some $[n]$, i.e., as the composite
$\text{Seq}\to[n]\to C$
What does it mean to "factor through?"
A map $f : X \to Y$ is said to factor through $Z$ if there are maps $p : X \to Z$ and $q : Z \to Y$ such that $f = q \circ p$.
Ok. So I was given this this other day:
Categorically, you can represent an infinite sequence in C as a functor F: Seq-->C, where Seq is the posetal category [0-->1-->2-->...]. Would you agree that F is equivalent to an infinite decreasing sequence iff it does not factor through a finite chain category [0-->1-->...-->n]?
Does this mean that we can show properties or characteristics from one category to another using this method?
There's a lot of undefined words in there, but I am no category theorist. You'd have to ask someone else.
@MartinSleziak :) I believe both you and him are good mathematicians.
06:30
Ok. So even if I defined everything you still would not be able to provide me with an answer?
I don't know. I am not reading the question carefully, mostly because I do not want to.
@L33ter I answered.
Well... Ok.
Know of anyone that I could ask?
Why don't you ask it on the main site?
Sorry, I don't. We don't have too many category theorists here: most of them belong in the homotopy theory chat. If they're not answering, probably they are not interested either.
@PartlyPutridPileofPus's suggestion is good.
I got downvoted a lot for my first attempt and ended up deleting the question
06:39
Perhaps write out like so:

* Question

* Context

* Definitions

* Thoughts

Or some rearrangement.
Ok. I'll form a question out of that format.
I give up on this question. Maybe someone can figure out how to finish my answer.
But actually, my problem does not require that much as you saw above.
@JulianRachman Regardless, I doubt you will be downvoted for that format. Think of it as covering your backside more than anything else.
@MikeMiller Interesting idea.
06:57
@PartlyPutridPileofPus Got it. :)
07:32
@PartlyPutridPileofPus Done: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1632880/…. Thanks again. Let's see what the turnout is going to look like.
 
3 hours later…
10:41
cant understand the proof about the naturality of binomials
Huy
Huy
11:34
@BalarkaSen: are you still alive?
12:20
When I saw this question, it reminded me that I have heard or read somewhere that some mathematician re-invented differential and integral calculus on his own as a kid. He had his own symbols for derivatives and integrals, but he was able to get at least some basic results. Anybody heard the same story? Do you remember the name? (I think he was Russian.)
Huy
Huy
@DanielFischer: "Let $p: \tilde{S} \to S$ be any covering space. By a lift of a closed curve $\alpha$ to $\tilde{S}$ we will mean the image of a lift $\mathbb{R} \to \tilde{S}$ of the map $\alpha \circ \pi$, where $\pi: \mathbb{R} \to S^1$ is the usual covering map. Note that a lift is different from a path lift, which is typically a proper subset of a lift." - what's a path lift?
is that what I get if I take a path in $S$ with $p$ on the path and then pick some point "above" $p$ in $\tilde{S}$ and then get a unique path in $\tilde{S}$ through that point above $p$?
i think that comes togather along with huge time/sacrifice/vain effort, people can reach same deductions in maths without inter-contacting that proves the uniqueness of maths
user189740
12:39
Anyone with a moment or two for a group theory question?
@byteofthat People pop in and out from my observation. If you ask, people may or may not answer depending on how busy or interested they are. Ask away.
12:59
@Huy I would guess that they mean a (continuous, of course) map $\tilde{\beta}\colon [0,1] \to \tilde{S}$ with $p\circ \tilde{\beta} = \beta$, where $\beta \colon [0,1]\to S$ is a path.
Huy
Huy
ok, so what I meant
@DanielFischer: do you understand their notion of a lift? it seems later on that these lifts are not unique, but I don't exactly understand how to get different lifts
We have moved with byteofthat into the algebra room. And his question is basically the proof that reduced residue system is a group with multiplication.
Just in case somebody will have some comments on that. (BTW I am surprised I did not find this question on the main. Probably I have to learn to search better; since this is rather common question.)
user189740
@MartinSleziak thanks for notifying everyone here
That was more an effort to advertise that room, since it is not used that much.
@Huy If you have two coverings $p_1 \colon E_1 \to B_1$ and $p_2 \colon E_2 \to B_2$, and a (continuous) map $f \colon B_1 \to B_2$, then, under suitable hypotheses, there is a continuous map $\tilde{f}\colon E_1 \to E_2$ with $p_2 \circ \tilde{f} = f\circ p_1$. That sort of lift they mean. And of course you can compose such a thing with deck transformations to get a different lift.
Huy
Huy
13:08
@DanielFischer: Are you sure? They never talk about two coverings, but maybe they implicitly mean it. For more context, later on they write "suppose $\tilde{S}$ is the universal cover and $\alpha$ a simple closed curve in $S$ that is not a nontrivial multiple of another closed curve. In this case, the lifts of $\alpha$ to $\tilde{S}$ are in natural bijection with the cosets in $\pi_1(S)$ of the infinite cyclic subgroup $\langle \alpha \rangle$."
@Huy They explicitly mention the covering $\pi \colon \mathbb{R}\to S^1$. I'm not sure I guess right, but going by what they say about lifts, and that they distinguish them from path lifts, that would make sense.
Huy
Huy
13:22
ok, it makes sense now
I had to draw the diagram, composing three maps is too much for my brain
$$\require{AMScd}\begin{CD} E_1 @>\tilde{f}>> E_2 \\ @Vp_1VV @VVp_2V \\ B_1 @>>f> B_2\end{CD}$$
Huy
Huy
:D
thanks
is the fact that the deck transformation group of a universal cover is isomorphic to the fundamental group trivial?
(it is just stated here and I don't immediately see why)
13:41
Trivial would be an exaggeration. But take a deck transformation $t$, and a path from $x_0$ to $t(x_0)$. Pushing that path down gives you a loop in $p(x_0)$, and that loop is nullhomotopic if and only if its lift - the original path - is closed, so if and only if $t = \operatorname{id}$. Verify that this map is a group homomorphism. Then you already have an embedding $\operatorname{Deck}(p) \hookrightarrow \pi_1(B,p(x_0))$.
For surjectivity, take $[\alpha] \in \pi_1(B,p(x_0))$ and lift $\alpha$ to the cover, starting at $x_0$. Let $x_1 = \tilde{\alpha}(1)$ be the end point of that lift. Show there is a deck transformation $t_{\alpha}$ with $t_{\alpha}(x_0) = x_1$ - you can skip that if you already know that the deck transformation group acts transitively on the fibres. Of course that's only true if the spaces are nice enough (sufficiently connected etc.).
13:55
Hey @DanielFischer. The operator $$T:L^2(\Omega)\to L^2(\Omega),\quad f\mapsto \int_{\Omega} k(-,y)f(y)d\mu(y)$$ is compact, right? Here $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\mu)$ is some measure space and $k\in L^2(\Omega\times \Omega)$.
@iwriteonbananas I'm not entirely sure whether we must assume $\mu$ nice enough, or if it holds without restrictions on $\mu$. But at least for decent $\mu$ it holds. If $(\psi_i)$ is an ONB of $L^2(\Omega,\mu)$, then - at least for decent $\mu$ - $(\psi_i \otimes \psi_j)$ is an ONB for $L^2(\Omega\times \Omega,\mu\otimes\mu)$, where $(\psi_i\otimes \psi_j)(x,y) = \psi_i(x)\cdot \psi_j(y)$. And then you have an easy approximation by finite-rank operators.
@DanielFischer Hm, ok what will the approximation by finite-rank operators be in that case?
@Huy barely
@iwriteonbananas Write $k = \sum_{i,j} c_{ij} \psi_i \otimes \psi_j$. Take a suitable finite subset of the $(i,j)$.
@Huy the deck transform. group acts on the fiber. the fundamental group acts on the fiber. you use the two.
14:12
@DanielFischer I see, thanks for the help.
14:27
Hi to everyone! What is the definition of a trivial intersection ? I googled but havent really found anything definitive. My guess, based of search results, that a trivial intersection it is an intersection whose result is one element, is it correct ?
Huy
Huy
context?
general topology
Huy
Huy
that's almost as specific as "mathematics"
the proof of Tychonoff ’s Theorem for the general case
topologywithouttears.net here is the book the proof is on page 257
Hi sweets, can anyone provide some help in R?
14:43
@user3165667 I cannot open your webpage, but I would say the intersection is trivial if it is the empty set, ie the sets are disjoint
Thank you!
If you are talking about subgroups or subvector spaces though then "trivial intersection" means that the intersection is the unit or the 0 element respectively
15:03
Hi @JulianRachman.
@Balarka Hello
Does anybody know of an example of a proper ideal that is not contained in a proper maximal ideal? (Preferably in the setting of normed algebras)
@s.harp: If you believe Zorn's lemma, that's not possible.
Huy
Huy
morning @Mike
Morning.
Huy
Huy
15:11
@Mike you said once that you like the primer on mcgs from farb & margalit
have you read all of it?
No. I thought the parts I read were well-written and I liked the table of contents.
Huy
Huy
ok
@Huy What are you studying?
Huy
Huy
@BalarkaSen: said book
what's up?
15:13
ah, ok.
Huy
Huy
but my topology knowledge is ... lacking
not sure if I can already tackle it
I think you can pick up the needed topology.
@MikeMiller In the beginning of the book by Murphy on C* Algebras he notes that zorns lemma gives that every proper modular ideal is contained in a maximal ideal. Since he specifically mentions that it holds for modular ideals I would have thought that there must be counterexamples for non-modular ideals
You'll have to remind me what a modular ideal is.
an ideal $I$ in an algebra $A$ is modular if there exists an element $u$ in $A$ so that for all $a$ in $A$ $a -a u$ lies in $I$
sorry both $a-au$ and $a-ua$ must lie in $I$
15:17
@s.harp: I think I see my error; my claim above that ideals are contained in a maximal ideal only works if the algebra is unital, but I'm guessing your operator algebra needn't be.
Huy
Huy
@Balarkasen: where do I go to revise basics on covering spaces, deck transformations and the relationship to fundamental groups? just munkres or do you know of something more suited?
@Huy Hatcher :)
Huy
Huy
his algtop book on his website?
Huy
Huy
I wish I had taken algtop at some point
15:18
It can be a bit verbose, but just read the theorems and proofs if you don't want to read those.
Hatcher gives nice intuition though.
@MikeMiller sorry to bother you, but do you know where I can find a proof of how the maximal containing ideal exists (in unital algebra or modular ideal case)? I think that would help me find counter examples
off-topic: i can't understand any of the recent questions of this full-twist guy.
sounds like he got some really twisty terminologies.
@s.harp: Given an increasing chain of ideals $I_n$, their union is clearly an ideal. It's a proper ideal because the union does not contain 1 since none of the ideals $I_n$ contain 1. Apply Zorn.
Huy
Huy
@BalarkaSen: please never become a comedian
i thought that was a better pun than half of Ted's ones?
15:22
Are operaror ideals supposed to be norm-closed?
@MikeMiller in my definitions not, since the algebras themselves also need not be complete
Huy
Huy
@BalarkaSen: if half of his puns are terrible and half are incredible, then yours could still be terrible
Gotcha.
"I wish half of his puns would be half as terrible as half of mine, but then i don't know half of his good puns half as well as mine"
15:44
@s.harp OK, I don't have a counterexample but I've convinced myself they exist. I'm gonna stop thinking about this.
@MikeMiller thank you for your time, I think I have gained more understanding for the topic ^ I will ask the question on the website also since it doesn't look trivial anymore
15:58
@s.harp I have an example.
Take $R$ to be the ring of "polynomials in $\Bbb Q^+$". Explicitly, elements are finite sums $\sum a_i T^{\lambda_i}$, where $\lambda_i$ is positive and rational. The sum and product are what you expect.
Let $I_a$ be the ideal consisting of those elements such that $\lambda_i > a$. Another way of putting this is that it's the ideal generated by $T^a$.
No proper ideal contains all of the $I_a$.
So Zorn fails here. My money is that there are no maximal ideals. You should verify this.
How much money are we talking about?
But thank you I will look into it
One dollar and thirty three cents.
16:18
Grad school life bank account balance
16:30
Hellu @MikeMiller.
@DanielFischer By the way, do you know an example of an integral operator as above which is compact despite $k\notin L^2(\Omega\times \Omega)$?
Hi @AndrewT.
morning
16:45
Are you done with this one?
Don't miss it ...
@iwriteonbananas No. It's already not easy to pick a $k \notin L^2(\Omega\times \Omega)$ such that $$x \mapsto \int_{\Omega} k(x,y)f(y)\,d\mu(y)$$ defines an operator $L^2(\Omega) \to L^2(\Omega)$. If that is possible at all.
@DanielFischer Ah, good point
By the way, I sent the above integral to more students and professors and no one did it so far. The interesting thing is that the integral is not hard. What is the missing picture in the puzzle then?
@AndrewThompson can you tell me a single useful step for the integral above? Not a full solution.
17:01
@I'manartist No.
@AndrewT: How are your courses going?
What are you taking again?
@AndrewThompson OK
@MikeMiller Pretty well so far, although the undergraduate project is the only one I've really started. Lie Theory, K-theory and undergradthesis.
What are you working on there? You said something about homological algebra.
Yes, more precisely hochschild homology. I want to see if some results from the Auslander-Reiten world can simplify computations in some particular cases.
At the moment I'm learning about Morita equivalences and functors between module categories in general.
17:06
@I'manartist Why would one calculate this?
@AndrewThompson: So this is some sort of representation theory, I guess?
@PartlyPutridPileofPus For at least the same reasons one would do other math stuff as crazy as it seems at first sight mine, no matter it's about different fields.
@I'manartist Sorry, I didn't understand this?
@MikeMiller I do know reptheory can be useful in this setting, although the relation is as of yet not entirely clear to me.
What I post here is perfectly as fine as any other math others post here.
17:09
Oh, I don't know what you are responding to. I meant, what is the use of solving it?
@PartlyPutridPileofPus What would you expect to find after solving a math problem? What is the use you have in mind for the math you do?
@PartlyPutridPileofPus My math is an art to me, so I do art.
Okay, so you are doing recreational mathematics, that was the (type of) answer I was looking for.
I was just curious about the 'without pen and paper'. (I have no idea how that would be possible)
@MikeMiller What I want to learn on the homological algebra is definitely closely linked to representation theory, though. (More precisely I want to work in the stable module category, Auslander-Reiten's Representation Theory of Artin Algebras is probably the canonical reference.) The Hochschild homology part of things: not so sure.
@PartlyPutridPileofPus What is the use you have in mind for the math you do?
@AndrewThompson I think the representation theorists are into Hochschild stuff.
But I don't understand, algebra, so : o )
17:14
Can you name a great mathematician for which mathematics wasn't considered an art to him/her? I ony want to know out of curiosity.
The question is available to all users here.
Just name the mathematicians and I immediately write their names down. To recollect once in a while that in their case wasn't about art.
BBL (I have to finish some stuff)
@AndrewThompson Want to tell me what Hochschild homology is about?
@BalarkaSen I can tell you that Wikipedia is inaccurate :)
Jokes aside,
I know the definitions and can compute some simple cases. I know its important to (our) topologists because it acts as an invariant in K-theory in some precise sense.
@AndrewThompson Heh.
@AndrewThompson Ah, ok. I was hoping for a small expository, though. E.g., what is it about and why is it relevant to algebra.
If you're not busy that is.
Alright, gotta do some stuff, back in five minutes. Then I can tell you what little I know (so far, in a few months the plan is I will know significantly more.)
Cool!
Thanks in advance.
17:26
No problem. On second thought: I could just send you my project outline which gives an exposition on what I want to do. Do you have an e-mail?
got it.
Hello @TedShifrin!
hi @TedShifrin
Hi @AndrewT, mr eyeglasses, Balarka
Hi @TedShifrin!
I am ill again :(
stop that!
@BalarkaSen you always get sick so often
17:41
Math makes him sick — no sleep.
Haven't seen you in ages, mr eyeglasses
Huy
Huy
it's not math, it's his decision to not follow a somewhat normal sleeping pattern
Was just a little depressed for a while
@TedShifrin Trying :(
There's correlation, perhaps not causation ....
Sorry to hear that, mr eyeglasses
@morphic Hi :)
What's up?
@TedShifrin: It's because of Huy.
18:21
Morning @Ted.
Is anyone here into foundations?
I don't use much makeup, no.
5
No, but really, @Anthony, you should just go ahead and ask.
18:56
afternoon chat
19:18
Start with a reasonably nice topological space with a reasonably nice involution $i$ on it. (This includes eg smooth manifolds with smooth involutions.) Then if the space is path-connected, so is the fixed point set. I wonder if there's an elementary proof of that.
@MikeMiller what about $S^1$ with $i(z)=1/z$? Fixpoints are $1,-1$. The map is smooth, and $S^1$ is a very nice space that also is path connected
Huh. I'm confused.
Ah, ok, I see my error. Whoops! Thanks.
What I said is true if the space is contractible (or just has trivial $\Bbb Z/2$-homology). But the need for that assumption makes me feel it's unlikely to have a simple proof.
I am worried if contractibility is sufficient. What if I take cone on a Hawaiian earring and reflect along the obvious hyperplane?
Goodnight @MikeM ... and hi @Anthony
You'll get some sort of a broom space - which is not path-connected.
19:32
But I guess this still gives the nice statement "A smooth involution on $\Bbb R^n$ has path-connected fixed point set". ($\Bbb Z/2$-acyclic, even.)
I think the fixed point set is connected in that case, @Balarka.
Connected, yep. But not path-connected.
And path-connected, unless your cone on Hawaii is different from mine. Everything connects at the vertex point.
Oh, are you doing a double cone?
Nah, even that works, I think.
I am not sure what you mean. By cone I mean the unreduced cone: $H \times I$ with the top $H \times 1$ pinched up. If you slice along the 2-plane of symmetry, you'll get the broom space, no?
But a broom is path connected.
19:35
Nobody should be talking about Hawaiian earrings even before I define sufficiently nice because that's obviously nice nice by virtually any definition. Sufficiently nice means there's a CW complex structure such that the involution is cellular.
is there a simple statement/example of what K-theory is about? I feel like I should know that much at least.
To me, @Semiclassic, it's about vector bundles :) But I don't think about it.
@MikeM: If you can put a metric on the space that's involution-invariant, then the fixed point set will be a submanifold, right?
@Semiclassical: Consider vector bundles over a topological space. You can take the direct sum of vector bundles, so you might want to turn it into a group by adding "negative rank vector bundles" so that you have inverses. You just defined K-theory.
19:38
Well, you need an equivalence relation or two ...
'negative rank vector bundles'?
@Ted: What kind of metric?
Riemannian, @MikeM.
Yes, fixed point sets are submanifolds (and you can of course pick an invariant metric).
Oh, I see, so that only answers the question locally, not globally. Sorry.
19:39
@Semiclassical: Direct sum adds the rank of vector bundles. If I wanted to turn the set of vector bundles into a group, what would the inverse of the trivial rank 1 vector bundle be?
@TedShifrin Ok, I am thinking about collection of rays from origin in $[0, 1]^2$ of slope $1/n$ plus $(0, 1/2]$. If you look at all of $[0, 1]$, of course it'll be path connected. Right. But I can look at the modified $H \times I/H \times 1$ minus $x_0 \times [0, 1/2)$ where $x_0$ is the interesting point.
It also has a natural 2-plane of symmetry, reflecting along which gives me the non-path connected broom space.
@MikeMiller lol
What if we use stable equivalence, @MikeM?
not a clue. evidently its direct sum with said trivial rank 1 vector bundle would be rank zero, but beyond that
shrug
@Semiclassical: Have some imagination!
19:41
If direct sum adds rank, it should have "rank -1".
@Semiclassic: Mike wants you to draw us a $-1$-dimensional vector space.
it's just standard group completion, as far as I know.
add in the inverses.
i don't have intuition when it comes to vector bundles, to be honest
@Semiclassical: Then work with vector bundles over the point.
nobody can visualize a rank -1 bundle rolleyes
19:42
let me rephrase that. I don't have intuition when it comes to bundles
not formally, anyways. i probably have something if I can turn it into a physics example
@Semiclassical: You have intuition about vector bundles over the 1-point space.
OK, I'm off to meet friends for lunch. Y'all have fun drawing $-1$-dimensional vector spaces.
Bubye.
when you say "over the 1-point space" that's the base space?
19:43
then wouldn't a vector bundle over that just be any vector space?
Yes. Hence my claim that you understand them.
Think about what I'm saying for vector spaces up to isomorphism. With direct sum that's the monoid $\Bbb N$. If you wanted to make that a group, you'd add negative numbers.
sure. but how?
19:45
@Semiclassical A fiber bundle is a map $p : E \to B$ such that fiber over any point is $F$, i.e., $p^{-1}(x) = F$ for any $x \in B$ and $p$ locally looks like a projection map $F \times U \to U$. But you can ignore this if you know it already.
Of course these are not literal objects. You make K-theory by taking the so-called monoid of vector bundles and passing to the "Grothendieck group" (its just a formal construction, it's the biggest thing you can get if your monoid suddenly had inverses.)
yeah, that sounds sensible @balarka
But the "intuition" is that suddenly I've created some object called a negative rank vector bundle.
i can see the goal, but I guess I have to trust that said construction makes sense
Bleh, mathematicians.. Creating things out of thin air, as usual.
19:47
What Ted was saying was that you can avoid this if you're willing to let the trivial rank n vector bundle be zero in your group.
Which remark was that?
i couldn't tell which part of that conversation was re: K-theory and what was for involutions
Hey @KarlKronenfeld.
You equate vector bundles that are isomorphic upon summing with a large trivial bundle. Then this thing, under direct sum, is an actual group.
@Semiclassical May I know about your experience with representations of locally compact groups?
19:49
less than i'd like
not enough to answer questions, tbh
@MikeMiller hrm
@KarlKronenfeld How's life?
Locally compact abelian groups?
Not non abelian also
what i'm confused about is that the phrase i'd expected to hear about is 'clifford algebra'
But I heard that the theory of representations for noncompact groups isn't complete.
19:51
I have issue with Peter Weyl theorem for compact groups
There's a theory about $SL_n$, say, in Lang's book.
@Semiclassical i was confused upon hearing that phrase in a physics conference discussing k-theory, on the other hand.
For a compact group every unitary representation is on finite dimensional hilbert space
you guys are weird
19:53
@Semiclassical: There's a way of talking about K-theory in terms of Clifford algebras. It is a later development, not the origin of the idea of K-theory. Topological K-theort just comes from wanting to understand bundles.
i wondered if that was the issue
Mostly about the decomposition of $L^2(G)$ as a Hilbert direct sum for compact groups.
Exactly
applications of K-theory rather than K-theory itself, I guess?
When $G$ is Abelian, it's Fourier transformation (to the dual group).
19:54
No, it's not about applications. It's just a different viewpoint.
Why does $L^2(G)$ have exactly corresponding dimension of unitary repns copy
@BalarkaSen There are way too many ways to answer that one. Perhaps "good" will suffice?
is there a typical name for that perspective? I see adjectives like 'topological', 'algebraic' and 'operator' applied to K-theory
Maybe via character theory.
19:56
@KarlKronenfeld Truth be told, logic has turned you into a mutant.
No character theory
@BalarkaSen I cannot deny that.
When characters are considered we should consider lower class
namely central functions
which I suspect means "K-theory according to Kitaev"
@BalarkaSen I promise, I'm not so bad "in person," though.
(Not focused on logic btw)
19:57
@KarlKronenfeld I presume that means you haven't agreed with that either, mr. constructivist.
@Semiclassical: Those aren't reslly approaches, those are apparitions of the same idea in different fields (topology, algebra, operator algebras).
@KarlKronenfeld I believe you :)
I would probably just say "K-theory via Clifford algebras"
i had the impression is that "operator K-theory" would be the closest
20:00
@FrankScience When commutative groups are under consideration, we can definitely think about characters
OK, maybe we cannot study characters for infinite groups.
but anyways. is there a good place to read up on "K-theory via Clifford algebras"?
No we can study characters for infinite groups
Probably googling it will give you plenty of sources. I don't have one for you.
fair enough
20:03
For infinite compact groups, every unitary representation is finite dimensional
Define the character as trace of representation
Here characters are central functions in the sense $\chi(xyx^{-1}) = \chi(y) ; x,y \in G$
@Semiclassical no one succeeded with this one so far
not surprised, it looks beastly
I have no idea on abstract harmonic analysis.
And these characters form basis for subspace of central functions
But is Peter-Weyl theorem easy to prove?
20:06
is there a reason the first and third terms in the numerator are the same?
yes it is easy to prove
@Semiclassical It's just a matter of arranging the integrand.
OK, if I have enough time, I'll try it.
How much functional analysis is needed?
20:08
If you assume every unitary representation of compact group is finite dimensional every thing else will be easy
It uses spectral theorem for compact operators
Sorry it contains a finite dimensional subrepresentation
So every irreducible unitary representation is finite dimensional
@I'manartist I'm actually a bit confused by how Ei is being used here. Typically, one defines it on a cut plane (along the negative real axis) which makes the values for $x<0$ ambiguous in terms of their imaginary part
and if one ignores that imaginary part, then one has $-Ei(-x)=Ei(x)$. so i'm perplexed as to the purpose of those minus signs
20:25
In mathematics, the exponential integral Ei is a special function on the complex plane. It is defined as one particular definite integral of the ratio between an exponential function and its argument. == DefinitionsEdit == For real non zero values of x, the exponential integral Ei(x) is defined as The Risch algorithm shows that Ei is not an elementary function. The definition above can be used for positive values of x, but the integral has to be understood in terms of the Cauchy principal value due to the singularity of the integrand at zero. For complex values of the argument, the definition...
@Semiclassical See convergent series
the $x\neq 0$ one?
@Semiclassical Yeap
@Mambo But the multiplicities of irreducible representations are determined in the Peter-Weyl theorem
20:50
The OP managed to figure out how to fix my argument here. Conclusion: No matter how terrible a surface in $\Bbb R^3$ is, there's still a way to go from one side to the other while only crossing the surface once.
A modified version of this should apply to any embedded, connected polyhedron.
21:07
@Danu: I don't know if this will ping you.
Guess not.
21:20
@FrankScience Basically I want to investigate why not more than the multiplicity
21:57
what does it mean to "express" something?
it just looks like the 1 was swapped for a 2
wolframalpha steps are hard to read
user174558
22:10
@Vader It means write both sides in base 2.
oh i see
ofc
user174558
Are you a native English speaker?
user174558
Hey @I'manartist.
user174558
Surprisingly few books prove that the elementary functions are transcendental.
22:35
@Jasper JASPER!!!
hi @BalarkaSen
thank you for your answer
I understand now many things
@Jasper JASPER!!! How are you doing?
I have computed the homology of Torus,Project plane, Klein bottle but there is some technicalities I don't completely understand
so today I am just gonna cover chapter 0 neatly then go back to chapter 2 re read simplicial homology again and if I have any questions I will ask you or ask on forums.
I want to go over singular homology this week or next but I don't want to do everything fast in order to have a good grasp of what is going on
I will be back in few hours when I have some questions
again thanks again @BalarkaSen
btw simplicial homology made the computations of $S^1$ sooo easy
There are some issues with the internet connection again.
23:26
I clap hands looking at these answers by Cleo
17
A: Two integral involving logarithm and polylogarithm function

Cleo$$\begin{align*}{\large\int}_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)\,\operatorname{Li}_3\left(\frac{1+x}2\right)}xdx&=\frac{29\,\zeta(5)}{16}-\frac{19\pi^2}{96}\zeta(3)+\frac{5\,\zeta(3)}{16}\ln^22+\frac{\ln^52}{40}\\&-\frac{5\pi^2}{72}\ln^32+\frac{11\pi^4}{1440}\ln2-3\operatorname{Li}_5\left(\tfrac12\right).\\ \\ {\...

Don't understand me wrongly, the good work must be appreciated, but I would like people realize that this stuff can be done by many with enough training.
What is hard in my understanding is far away from these integrals. The more we learn the more the meaning of difficulty changes.
How a good start would look like in my view? Beat Ramanujan! Or try to do that.
Let me be clearer, maybe my English is not good enough: both problems above are easy (say, at most of average difficulty, in the worst scenario - I'm done with both).
23:49
@BalarkaSen ping me when you come back.

« first day (2005 days earlier)      last day (3313 days later) »