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07:01
@gxyd (mn)a is the sum of mn copies of a, while ma*na is the sum of mn copies of a^2 -- well, it doesn't seem to really undermine your proof, just a gap imo
You are right. I have updated it.
now, the problem appears to be that you do not actually derive (ma=0 for all a) or (na=0 for all a)
I think i myself have found a flaw in my proof that is: If ma = 0, na \neq 0 for some of the elements and at the same same time may be na = 0, ma \neq 0 that does not imply that .
instead you have (ma=0 or na=0) for all a
Yes, indeed that's wrong what i did.
07:09
@gxyd Also, as Sameer makes clear in their answer, you cannot conclude that P is prime; it is merely a power of a prime.
@KarlKronenfeld In Sameer's answer after the line
> But then mxy=nxy=0mxy=nxy=0, contradiction

Can not i conclude it just here that P must be a prime. Since i reached a contradiction.
It was hypothesized that There Exist m,n such that 1. P=mn, 2.gcd(m,n)=1 and 3. m>1 and n>1.
The negation of that is For All m,n either 1. P=/=mn, or 2. gcd(m,n)=/=1, or 3. m<=1 or n<=1.
user174558
@anon What is a good book on algebraic number theory?
The OR connective can be expressed as an implication:
For All m,n If 1. P=mn and 3. m>1 and n>1, Then 2. gcd(m,n)=/=1.
That is all you can say. @gxyd
user174558
The nonlatex hurts my eyes.
07:25
Ah, it looks so natural to me, since I do not use the chatjax thingy
user174558
Hey Karl, long time no see.
user174558
The first time someone said that, I thought he wanted supper.
Yeah, my hunger distracted me too much to finish typing that word.
user174558
@KarlKronenfeld What's a good book on algebraic number theory?
07:27
I am not an expert on this matter, so I will refrain from answering.
user174558
One obvious choice is Lang.
Very clever @skill
user174558
@KarlKronenfeld What is your favourite algebra book?
I don't play favorites, unfortunately.
user174558
07:30
I don't play computer games.
Ah, so you think I'm playing games here?
This is all a serious matter to me
user174558
Computer games are boring.
true dat^
You haven't found the right ones, I guess.
user174558
Play too much and you become stupid.
07:31
Once was a computer game addict
@Jasper I don't know what level you want it to be at.
@Jasper Not really offended
user174558
@anon Just name a bunch for me to look.
anyway you can go shopping by looking through ToCs (or even pirated copies) quite easily
07:32
@anon Thought that was a computer game reference
Just the print media game
yeah, because of that one computer game with the levels...
with the levels
user174558
A new edition of More Math Into LaTeX is coming out this year.
07:33
anywho, I don't know books on AlgNT by heart or anything
user174558
I think I will get it to master LaTeX.
user174558
I am now running Linux Mint Debian Edition.
user174558
Using the Cinnamon desktop.
Why master $\LaTeX$?
user174558
Why not?
user174558
07:36
I love typography.
Ah, so it is just a step along the way toward higher goals in this typography hierarchy?
user147690
@Jasper What about topography?
user174558
@AlexClark Nope.
user174558
@KarlKronenfeld Yes. Also, I hope to be a mathematician eventually, so I will need it.
You could pick up whatever latex you need along the way if you decided to focus on mathematics.
3
Damn, it was starred fixes grammar
user174558
07:41
I also need a latex pillow.
user174558
I am very particular about the pillow I put my head on, because my head is too heavy.
@KarlKronenfeld Do you find any problem with Joy Gardenia's answer here math.stackexchange.com/a/732053/197214
?
For the same question.
@gxyd Yeah, a great answer.
As in super-clever
user174558
Finally, I got over 100 rep. Time to retire.
user147690
@Jasper Nah you have to do it fairly by unofficially deducting the upvotes Twink gave you
user174558
07:46
@AlexClark I see you have been spying on everyone.
user147690
Wut, no he said it while I was here
@Jasper I was only criticizing that particular rationale, not your choice. In fact, my opinion is that having a broader knowledge (fluffier pillows, if you like) can only help you as you strive toward whatever particular long-term goals you have.
user174558
Yes.
user174558
I noticed that Springer sells paperback and hardback at same prices on their website.
That's interesting.
user174558
07:49
Well, production costs are not that different.
user174558
But some silly publishers jack up prices to ridiculously high.
user174558
Springer books are reasonably priced.
08:02
Thanks @KarlKronenfeld for your help.
@gxyd You're welcome. I probably would have lingered in chat doing nothing otherwise. :D
Not to mention lingering around the sites :-)
08:25
hello, please why if $\phi(t)t$ is increasing in $(0,+\infty)$ then we have that $\phi(|x|)x-\phi(|y|))(x-y)>0, \forall x,y\in\mathbb{R}^N,x\neq y $
please
@skillpatrol are you there ?
@Vrouvrou I am, but I don't know sorry.
Try the main site :-)
08:45
ok thank you
maybe @robjohn knows
09:09
hi... math.stackexchange.com/questions/1517103/… Can anyone who knows about linear algebra tell me why my question is getting no love?
@MartinSleziak hi... comment added
@skillpatrol (y)
thanks pal :-)
@felipa Thanks for that. I think this is always good to do this if you are .
It would be better if I were able to give you also some advice related to the actual content of your post. Let's hope you will have more luck with some other user, who knows about the area you are asking about.
09:38
@MartinSleziak thanks.. I am surprised by the lack of upvotes/comments etc.
as it doesn't seem such a strange question
09:58
Can anyone give a hint on approching this problem? I don't have any idea.
 
1 hour later…
11:25
@Paradox101 Hint: Riemann integrable functions are bounded.
@AntonioVargas yes but how do I use this?
I mean if this is bounded then f< M
In fact $|f| < M$
Now try bounding your integral.
Let me know if you get stuck @Paradox
@AntonioVargas so then we can say that the integral of f from 0 to 1 is bounded and is less than the integral of M from 0 to 1?
@Paradox101 are you familiar with the triangle inequality?
@AntonioVargas yes
11:35
That's all you need, and if $f \leq g$ then $\int f \leq \int g$ follows from the definition of the Riemann integral
@AntonioVargas but isn't the triangle inequality this : $|x+y| \leq |x|+|y| $?
@Paradox101 I meant the one for integrals: math.stackexchange.com/q/447460/5531
11:55
@AntonioVargas is this correct? : if $|f| \leq M$ then $\int |f| \leq \int M$ and then from triangle inequality: $|\int f| \leq \int M$ then $\int |x^n f| \leq \int M x^n$ and as $n$ approaches infinity : $\int |x^nf| \leq M$ for the integral between $0$ and $1$. Since the integral is bounded as $n$ approaches infinity, it is equal to $0$.
@Paradox101 No, it seems to be a bit convoluted and I don't agree with the logic in the conclusion.
Here's how I would write it:
Since $f$ is Riemann integrable we know that $|f| \leq M$ for some $M \in \mathbb R$. Then $$\begin{align}\left| \int_0^1 x^n f(x)\,dx \right| &\leq \int_0^1 |x^n f(x)|\,dx \\&= \int_0^1 x^n |f(x)|\,dx \\&\leq \int_0^1 x^n M\,dx \\&= M \int_0^1 x^n\,dx \\&= \frac{M}{n+1} \\&\to 0\end{align}$$ as $n \to \infty$.
where in the third line we used that fact that $\int p \leq \int q$ if $p \leq q$.
here $p = x^n |f(x)|$ and $q = x^n M$.
and in the second line we used the fact that $x \geq 0$ to conclude that $|x^n| = x^n$.
Ohhh ok. I get it now. Mine was fairly wrong and I failed to integrate it properly. Thanks a lot :)
Sure thing, glad to help :)
12:31
How do I find the least $N$ that satisfies $(3+4i)\frac{n}{n+3}\le\frac{1}{1000}$? I have problems isolating $n$ because of the fraction \frac{n}{n+3}
@jukka.aalto Is $i$ the complex number?
@AntonioVargas Yes
@jukka.aalto Then the inequality doesn't make sense. The complex numbers aren't ordered, you can't make one less than another.
what if the complex number is replaced with the variable $a$?
Try multiplying both sides by $n+3$ then isolating $n$
 
1 hour later…
13:36
@Chris'ssistheartist Here is an integral for you I have been trying :
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln(x)}{x^2+2x+2}$$
Why does the signs change in fleablood's answer here? : math.stackexchange.com/questions/1513651/…
@AntonioVargas, if you have the time :) ^
I meant equality sign instead of sign!
I've got to go, but feel free to help out in the question :)
13:54
@jukka.aalto Do you mean this part :
$|\frac {n-7}{n+7} - 1| = 1 - \frac {n-7}{n+7}$
If you mean this then see that $\frac {n-7}{n+7} - 1$ is always negative. So by definition of modulus $|\frac{n-7}{n+7}-1|=-(\frac{n-7}{n+7}-1)=1-\frac{n-7}{n+7}$
Can anyone explain how to prove a sequence of functions uniformly converges to $f$?
14:17
@Rememberme What kind of proof do you want me to show you? A simple (usual) one or a mind-blowing one?
anything is fine until I understand it :)
@anon Right before the referenced post, he said that his username "user" got banned for 12 hours. He said this less than 12 hours after that happened. Is evading a ban by switching accounts allowed?
@Rememberme Now, I tell you what to do and then you write it down. Note that $x^2+2x+2=(x+1)^2+1$. Let the variable change $x+1=y$. What you get?
okay
$y^2+1$
Guys, in the definition of a T3 topological space, why is it defined (in most books) that it is regular and T1 ? It seems like regular and T0 would be enough.
14:20
@Rememberme Write the new integral.
Do this. Tell me the proof I will read it and then tell if I have any doubts
@Rememberme $$\int_1^{\infty } \frac{\log (y-1)}{y^2+1} \, dy$$
Right?
Now we let $y=1/z$ and then we get $$\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-z)-\log(z)}{z^2+1} \ dz$$
Right?
Shouldn't we be having a $z^2$ in the numerator ?@Chris'ssistheartist
14:25
@Rememberme you have $y dy = -1/z^2 dz$, abd then that $z^2$ from numerator cancels.
oh okay. Yes . Sorry my bad
Now, the brilliant step comes in place, and we write all as follows
I can feel the excitement :P
$$\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-z)-\log(1+z)+\log(1+z)-\log(z)}{z^2+1} \ dz$$
fine...
14:28
that is $$\int_0^1 \frac{\log((1-z)/(1+z))}{z^2+1} \ dz -\int_0^1 \frac{\log(z)}{z^2+1}\ dz+\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+z)}{z^2+1} \ dz$$
@Rememberme note the first and the second integrals cancel out. To see that, let the variable change $(1-z)/(1+z)=w$
All reduces to the famous well-known integral $$\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+z)}{z^2+1} \ dz$$
For this one, you have below some proofs
Q.E.D.
Cool! @Chris'ssistheartist You should write an answer then. There is this question on MSE
@Rememberme :D
Less time for writing answers. if you want you can write it and get some points. ;)
user174558
@Chris'ssistheartist Points are useless. I cannot impress Laura with them.
14:33
I have just one more doubt@Chris'ssistheartist
@Rememberme Which one?
@Jasper who dat
Since I am doing the variable change shouldn't the last integral also be effected@Chris'ssistheartist
user174558
@0celo7 Just a joke. I like the actress Laura Ramsey.
@Rememberme you have these ones, right? $$\int_0^1 \frac{\log((1-z)/(1+z))}{z^2+1} \ dz -\int_0^1 \frac{\log(z)}{z^2+1}\ dz+\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1+z)}{z^2+1} \ dz$$
14:36
@Jasper yes, she is quite attractive
@Rememberme you do that variable change for the first integral only ((1-z)/(1+z)=w). Let the other 2 untouched.
why are people doing horrible integrals
user174558
@0celo7 Twink got you suspended by flagging your harmless message.
@Jasper Nice!
Thanks for that news :)
For how long? I don't think he's suspended right now.
Oh you can do that? I thought if we do a variable change it implies to all other integrals which have that variable
14:38
@Rememberme No, they're independent!
user174558
@0celo7 I mean you were suspended, not him.
@Jasper Oh
I'm bad at reading.
@Rememberme No. You are specific and apply the variable change to only one integral (in that case).
Well I knew that, obviously :P
14:38
@Chris'ssistheartist Yes I get it . Thanks a bunch!!
user174558
@0celo7 That was very bad of him, so I will ignore him again, I think.
@Chris'ssistheartist can I ask you a question concerning convergence of sequence of functions?
I will also be bringing a few multiple integrals to you. I have been doing them since last week@Chris'ssistheartist
14:40
@Jasper ok.
I just watched The Sixth Sense. Brilliant.
Back to my work for my first book.
Sixth sense ? @Balarka
user174558
14:57
Why is Dummit so popular?
I have it myself @Jasper I guess it is because of the amount of questions
They have some good questions
user174558
I don't like rings to be defined without 1, lol.
Huy
Huy
@BalarkaSen: You're young for that movie.
@Huy That's BS.
user174558
@BalarkaSen You are BS.
15:00
:|
Huy
Huy
*too
pretty sure it requires you to be 16
I'm 16 years - 2 month, dude.
Huy
Huy
?????????????????????????????
I thought you were like 14
user174558
@huy My first book to study will be O'Leary: Mathematical Logic and Set Theory.
@Huy He is, and always will be.
A rather unfortunate scenario.
15:03
morning @MikeMiller.
@AGoogler You can see my and Chris sis discussion on your integral
@Rememberme Yep , I am reading that.
@MikeMiller If $f : S^n \to S^n$ is a homeomorphism, can we always extend it to a homeomorphism $\tilde{f} : D^{n+1} \to D^{n+1}$? I think not. What if there is a crazy self-homeomorphism of the Alexander horned sphere?
Hmm. Can't we just take cone over $f$?
Right. I was being silly.
15:14
Can you prove the inverse function theorem yet?
No, but I'll let you know when I do. Sorry for being slow though :(
I'm onto chapter 6 (where the pf of IVT is), but I need to review a few exercises from 5 first and ask Ted for an exam.
Hello!! Could someone of you take a look at my question:
0
Q: Normal unit vector

Mary StarI am looking at the following exercise: I have done the following about the second part, about the signed curvature of $\iota$ : The signed curvature of $\gamma$ is different from the signed curvature of $\iota$, right? So, let $\kappa_s$ be the signed curvature of $\gamma$ and $\kappa_...

What book are you studying?
@MaryStar I was asking balarka sen.
15:17
@AGoogler Multivariable Mathematics, Theodore Shifrin.
thanks
@BalarkaSen: OK. Persuant to your previous question, can you do this for PL automorphisms? Diffeomorphisms?
24
Q: What is the purpose of this site?

Martin Sleziak What is (and what should be) the purpose of math.SE? As far as I can say, various users have different views on this question. Some users view it as a repository of knowledge. Some users approach it as teaching opportunity. Similar to previous, but slightly different: It could be understoo...

@MikeMiller Hmm. For the smooth category, taking cone would not help.
15:41
@AGoogler have you already posted ur yersterday problem
@Agawa001 yep
@AGoogler too good, 4 answers, too bad my answer in similar to one of them
user174558
@BalarkaSen Where did you get it?
16:00
i think my about-to-be-posted answer looks same like rememberme's
@Jasper I guess amazon
It is costly there
16:15
Could you take a look at my question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1513665/normal-unit-vector ? Do you have an idea? @robjohn @Huy
user174558
@MaryStar You are a star.
:D @Jasper
@0celo7 no
@anon math.stackexchange.com/questions/1520926/… Can we do this by using the universal property of quotient spaces?
@anon Ok, well you can read for yourself what he said. I'm just letting you know.
user174558
16:34
By the way, is Serge Lang gay?
Why would you think that?
I have no clue either way.
TIL he was a socialist.
user174558
On some days, I think all his books are good. On others, I think they are all bad.
Are you familiar with differential geometry? @anon
not very
user174558
Differential geometry can mean too many things.
16:43
Is the unit vector $n$ of a curve $\gamma$ the same as the unit vector $\tilde{n}$ of a reparametrization $\tilde{\gamma}$ of $\gamma$ ?
I assume by n you mean unit normal vector, in the 90 degree counterclockwise sense in the plane. yes, you can define this unit normal purely in terms of the set of points the curve inhabits, independent of its parametrization.
16:59
We have the curve $\gamma(t)$ and we define $\gamma_a (t)=a\gamma (t)$, where $a$ is a non-zero constant. Let $n$ be the unit normal vector of $\gamma$ and $n_a$ the unit normal vector of $\gamma_a$. We have that $n_a(t)=sgn(a) n(t)$, right?

Then we get the arc length reparametrization of both curves, $\tilde{\gamma}(s), \tilde{\gamma}_a(s_a)$, where $s$ is the arc length of $\gamma$ and $s_a$ the arc length of $\gamma_a$.

Which is the relation of $n(t)$ and the unit normal vector of $\tilde{\gamma}(s)$ (where now the variable is $s$ and not $t$ ) ?
Can anyone please explain how to go about this?
Huy
Huy
he just told you before @MaryStar
But now we have an other variable... So is it $\tilde{n}(s)=n(t)$ ? @Huy
You mean $\gamma(at)$ presumably. Yes $n_a(t)={\rm sgn}(a)n(t)$ (didn't think about changing the direction of the curve). There are only two unit normal vectors to a curve at any given point, so there are only two possible unit normal vector functions. This should be geometrically obvious.
@Paradox101 well, f(x) looks like it's discontinuous, so maybe consider nbhds of a point of discontinuity
namely +/-1
But when we reparametrize the curve as for the arc length we have $\tilde{\gamma}(s)=\gamma(t(s))$, so now the variable is $s$. So is it $\tilde{n}(s)=n(t)$ ? @anon I got stuck right now...
17:05
@anon but we've already defined the function on a set that doesn't contain +/-1
you can still consider nbhds of +/-1
@MaryStar Do you think so? If you do, then prove it. Compute both and find that they're equal?
@Paradox101 First calculate $f$. Then if $U$ is a closed subset of $S$ then there is a $\delta > 0$ such that $|x-1| > \delta$ and $|x+1| > \delta$ for all $x \in U$ (prove this if you need to). Use this to get a bound for $|f_n - f|$ on $U$ that is independent of $x$.
I don't get it. I mean for uniform convergence of sequence of functions we have to find an epsilon right? So then this function is pointwise convergent as $f(x)$ becomes zero as $n$ approaches infinity. But then how do I choose epsilon for the actual uniform convergence? @anon
Hint 2: $f$ is not $0$ everywhere.
I was talking about showing f(x) is not uniformly convergent on all of S.
If you want to show f(x) is uniformly convergent on closed subsets of S, it suffices to show it is so on closed subsets of (-\inf,-1), (-1,1) and (1,inf) individually. (because sets on which functions are uniformly convergent are closed under finite unions I think.)
Huy
Huy
17:15
@anon: I might have asked you this before, but do you know about the fundamental domain of $SL_2(Z) \backslash SL_2(R) / SO_2(R)$?
We have that
$$\tilde{n}(s) \bot \tilde{\gamma}(s) \Rightarrow \tilde{n}(s) \bot \gamma (t(s)) $$
and
$$n(t) \bot \gamma (t)$$

Do we conclude then that $\tilde{n}(s)=\pm n(t)$ ? @anon
@Rememberme ok, thanks. But why does he write "less than 1/1000" instead of "less or equal to 1/1000"?
@Huy {z:|z|>=1 and |Re(z)|<=1/2} is one
should be able to find them googling
@AntonioVargas $f$ will be zero as $n$ approaches infinity? Can you explain your second point again as I didn't get it? The part that states: Then if $U$ is a closed subset of $S$ then there is a $\delta > 0$ such that $|x-1| > \delta$ and $|x+1| > \delta$ for all $x \in U$ (prove this if you need to).
@Paradox101 "$f$ will be zero as $n$ approaches infinity?" No. Re the second point: perhaps you should take a while to try to understand it.
17:23
@AntonioVargas what will the value of $f$ be? Isn't $f$ equal to the limit of $f_n(x)$ as n approaches infinity?
have you graphed f_n(x) for a few n?
do so
once you figure out what's going on, you should have no trouble reasoning why it does so
@Paradox101 I am more than confident you can find this for yourself :)
@anon the peak of the graph becomes flatter with increasing $n$ and the graph becomes flatter
@AntonioVargas thanks for showing more faith in my capabilities than I have myself :)
I've studied the theorems but I have no idea how to actually apply them
@anon as n approaches infinity, the graph will be zero between the intervals -infinity to -1 and 1 to infinity. But between -1 and 1 the graph always approaches 1
right
how one could get this without graphing: consider lim (x^2n) depending on if |x|<1 or |x|>1
17:38
@anon so does that mean that if we look at it overall it doesnt converge uniformly but if we take separate closed intervals for instance between -1 and 1 or -infinity to -1 or 1 to infinity it will be uniformly convergent on those subsets alone?
yes
Ohh ok. I get it visually. Now I just have to deal with the harder part
@anon if |x|<1 then the lim (x^2n) is 0 and if |x|>1 then it's infinity?
yes
ofcourse :///
so then overall the limit for |x|<1 will be 1 and for |x|>1 it will be 0? @anon
17:44
yes
While proving this is it necessary to utilize the actual definition for uniform convergence of sequences including choosing an epsilon? Or is it sufficient to simple consider the different cases for values of x? @anon
Damn, not a yes/no question :)
(:
tbh analysis bookkeeping is something I avoid thinking about 99% of the time
the worst part is checking that what you've constructed after 20 minutes of work is actually a homeomorphism and not just an isomorphism
Huy
Huy
wtf
nub?
17:55
you mean homomorphism, not homeomorphim
@anon: but it's so fun
@0celo7 do you mean homeomorphism and not just a continuous bijection?
the typo with the e in homeomorphism is much more likely.
only if there's also a typo in order of words

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