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17:06
hey @BalarkaSen
17:21
hi @Alizter. I'm sick :(
:(
Here is a problem for you then
Should be simple
so, what's up?
ok. "simple" depends on what the problem is.
Let P be an integral polynomial, prove that there exists an integral polynomial Q such that $P\circ Q$ is reducible for all P.
very badly stated.
How should I state it?
17:23
prove that there is a polynomial Q with integral coefficients such that P \circ Q is reducible for all polynomial P with integral coefficients.
not the kind of problem i care about. if i ponder and don't find something immediately, i am going to stop thinking about it.
sounds like an olympiad problem to me.
I think it is from an algebra book
doesn't sound very algebra problem to me.
I have a proof
1 sec.
meh, dunno. don't care. tell me your proof.
Say that $P\circ Q$ was irreducible, then by Eisensteins criterion, there exists no prime $p$ such that $p$ divides the leading coefficient of $P\circ Q$. Let $\deg P = n$ and the leading coefficients of $P$ and $Q$ be $a_P$ and $a_Q$ respectively. Then the leading coefficient of $P\circ Q$ must be $a_Pa_Q^n$ which means $a_P=a_Q=1$ if it is divided by no prime $p$, which is not true as all $P$ where considered and therefore we have a contradiction.
17:29
i doubt your proof is correct. you have to prove that there exists such a Q, right?
where have you proved that?
By showing that if such a Q exists then it has to be reducible
hmm no proof of Q existing thouhg you are right
told ya.
How do I find the fraction field of $\Bbb Z[i]$?
so no proof.
@GaloisintheField $\Bbb Q(i)$
@GaloisintheField How did you find the fraction field of $Z$?
17:30
Yes, but how do I find that?
just consider fractions of Gaussian integers
then do algebra
i'm having dinner now, bubye
@Alizter I formed equivalence classes $\Bbb Z\times \Bbb Z/ -\{0\}$
Where $(a,b)\sim (c,d) \iff ad-bc =0$
$(a,b)=a/b$
@GaloisintheField you can derive an explicit isom here too
Explicit injective homomorphism?
just try it out
17:33
$\psi(a)=(a,1)$
i mean isomorphism.
Between what?
nono, i mean isom between frac Z[i] and Q(i)
Oh ok
I can't immediately see why
Oh ok
Yep
You got it now
17:39
@Alizter Have you figured my problem out?
Yeah $\psi:\Bbb Z[i]\times \Bbb Z[i] \to \Bbb Q[i]$ is surjective since $\frac ab + \frac cd i=\psi((a,b)+(ci,d)=(ad+bci,bd))$ hence the identity map is an isomorphism
Oh I did something illegal, but oh well, I'll move on
@GaloisintheField That map is not a ring homomorphism.
Yeah I screwed up something chronically
I'll do it tomorrow when I'm not tired
It's 5am in NSW australia
Get some rest.
Good luck pals
18:00
Morning @MikeMiller. I was too sleepy yesterday : I agree that I should have been careful with my statements especially since a topologist had been saying I was wrong. Thanks, I will be more careful from now on.
@BalarkaSen i agree, especially with the term (eliminating variables)
I have not been able to do much math, but I have thought a little bit about the duality between transversal intesection of submanifolds and cup product. I don't think I have a proof, but just an intuitive idea. Do you think you would like to listen, @MikeMiller?
Probably not, sorry. Good luck with it.
Ah, no problem.
I believe I "understand" why they should be Poincare dual.
18:08
Tell me another time when you think you've got it and when I have time.
Alright, thanks very much. I am trying to thrash out the details.
18:27
@Khallil Have you chosen a topic for your second year essay?
@BalarkaSen Which one?
index 2 subgrp normal
oh yes, I haven't had time to work on it
I shall work on it now
Sure :)
I will give you harder and more interesting problems afterwards.
Can anyone explain whether taking different tags changes riemann sums?
@Paradox101 What are tags?
18:36
@Alizter I'm talking about the tags which give rise to tagged partitions through which we define the riemann sum
PAM-PAM-PAM
Guess what?
@Agawa001
@Chris'ssistheartist another nice achievement !
@Paradox101 interesting question.
@Agawa001 I prepared the generalization for a magazine.
@robjohn see the deleted thing above. I prepared that generalization for a magazine.
cool, i ever wished to work for a magazine publishing
18:40
Actually, I have to finish another problem to that magazine too, that is because I want to related another very nice problem to one that I previously proposed.
@Agawa001 Maybe I set up my journal and I invite you to work there (sometime in the furture). :-)
@Alizter i know that taking different partitions doesn't change it but I don't know about tags. I still don't completely understand the concept of tags
The only bad, very bad thing is that few people think like me :-( (I don't mean the smartness, but the dedication to this stuff)
@Chris'ssistheartist wont be satisfied of any post apart ceo
@Paradox101 From what I quickly read, I understood tags to be an arbitaryly size interval partition
@Agawa001 OK OK, good to know that! :D
18:43
I guess as long as they all $\to 0$ it shouldn't change much about the riemann sum
But I wouldn't know how to prove that
@Alizter tags alone were any points on a particular sub-interval
I just finished watching The Unbreakable. Great movie.
whereas a tagged partition is an ordered pair of sub-intervals and their corresponding tags
@Chris'ssistheartist next month i ll pass thru a job contest for accountants
@Agawa001 Really?
18:47
@Chris'ssistheartist the problem is, i dont want to be accountant
@Agawa001 Well, then try something else
@Chris'ssistheartist i have no option
@BalarkaSen Which year is the movie from?
accountant seems to be a harsh way for gradual suicide
I don't know.
18:53
@Chris'ssistheartist i have 26 y o now, by the next year, job opportunities will reduce by more than half, i must take that risk, i ll no longer wait for the (golden suitable luxurious job)
hi @TedShifrin
hi @Balarka @Agawa
@Agawa001 I know your point.
heya mr eyeglasses
hi @TedShifrin
18:54
I don't blame you, @Agawa: I could not stand to be an accountant, either.
@TedShifrin what a tragic end. :'(
@TedShifrin I believe cantor function restricted to the cantor set is the desired surjective map.
Depends what you mean by that, @Balarka. But probably yes.
It's quite easy to be explicit.
Admittedly, I didn't find it all by myself. Probably wouldn't even have thought of it if Khallil had not mentioned it.
In fact, when you were trying to show off, you essentially were. ... Then do you finish with the space-filling curve?
Mr. 2-adic show-off? Ahem.
18:56
oh? what has the 2-adics got to do with it? ohh.
Yes, over with the space-filling curve.
rolls an extra half eye and all 8 this time
@TedShifrin You need to see a doctor.
Sprouting eyes after retirement is not good.
OK, then, back to Chapter 5 or diff geo.
ಠ_ಠ
mr eyeglasses lent me his glasses, so it's ok.
18:58
good evening @Ted
hi @Alessandro
@TedShifrin You need an extra-cool eyeglass to cover your 8 eyes all at once.
You worry about learning math, @Balarka, and I'll cope with my eyes.
Well, I'm sick!
But that's a permanent state with you.
19:00
Not really.
We should check the chat records.
The headache just came over today evening.
I'm trying to understand what the dual space of a vector space is @Ted but I find it very confusing (possibly because we haven't talked about linear functions yet...)
Can anyone explain the highlighted part of this answer?
But you know what linear functions are, @Alessandro. Have you learned dot/scalar products yet?
19:02
Ah @BalarkaSen I did it
What don't you understand, @Paradox?
well, I read what a linear function is, but we didn't talk about it in the course yet (dual spaces came up in a more advanced non-mandatory lecture)
@Alizter OK?
Let $H<G$ and $|G:H|=2$ then $g\in G$ we have $gH$ equal to either $Hg$ or $H$. As it is not equal to $H$ then it must be equal to $Hg$.
I though too long about it but I was trying to be careful
@Alessandro: A linear function $f\colon\Bbb R^n\to\Bbb R$ is of the form $f(x)=a\cdot x$ for some vector $a\in\Bbb R^n$.
19:04
Actually I think I understood the concept of a dual space and the construction of the dual basis, what I'm missing is its significance
@TedShifrin I don't understand why $M_1=1$. I know that $M_1=sup f$ but it's the sup over interval $1$ and if interval 1 is as mentioned in the answer then the value of $f$ there is 0 so $M_1$ ought to be zero
@Alessandro Row and coloumn vectors
@Paradox: You consider $f(x)$ for all $x$ in that interval. Since $f(0)=1$ and that's the maximum value, you get $M_1=1$.
@Alessandro: It turns out that studying the vector space of all linear functions on a vector space is a very interesting thing (especially in infinite dimensions). And multilinear functions (tensors, determinants, then differential forms) are super-important in math and physics.
My internet is horrific. Yes, @Alizter, that is correct.
What is really confusing to me is how the professor got a linear function "for free" (without having to talk about basis or anything) from $V$ to $V^{**}$
19:06
@TedShifrin Especially in physics, pretty much everything is a tensor in physics.
@BalarkaSen Another problem?
@Alizter How about - classify all groups of order $4$ upto isomorphism?
@TedShifrin ok I get that part, but why are we also including 0 in interval 1? I mean, it's a discontinuous function so shouldn't we take separate intervals for the two different parts of $f$?
@BalarkaSen Klein 4, and Cyclic 4
Proof?
Hello all! Why is it that a Poisson distribution requires p to be small to approximate a binomial distribution?
19:08
Hello @TedShifrin ! I have a question to you...
Well, but they needn't be the same, @Alessandro, but yes: There's a symmetry in whether a dual vector eats a vector or a vector eats the dual vector. See $f(x)=a\cdot x$. This is just as well a linear function of $a$.
Huy
Huy
@Alizter: I recently ran into someone who has graduated in physics who didn't understand what tensors were. I have no idea how that happened.
Riemann integrals are based on dividing the interval into closed subintervals, @Paradox.
The $i$th interval is $[x_{i-1},x_i]$, endpoints included.
Best thing to do is draw graphs, @Alias. If you have access to Mathematica, I have a notebook I wrote to show my students last fall when I taught probability.
@TedShifrin I am looking at the question: 1. Show that there is a sequence $T_1, T_2, T_3, \dots$ such that $T_1 > T_2 >
T_3 > \dots > 0$ and that $\gamma$ is $T_r$-periodic for all $r \geq 1$.

of this exercise: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1477087/how-to-show-that-such-a-sequence-exist

I have understood how we define the sequence. But could you explain how we show that $\gamma$ is $T_r$-periodic for all $r \geq 1$ ?
What, @user159870?
19:11
@TedShifrin I wrote it :))
Thanks @TedShifrin! Mathematically, though, I'm curious why the two distributions don't line up - the poisson is the limit of the binomial as time steps get indefinitely small, and I know there's the assumption that only one event can occur per timestep, but if the timesteps get indefinitely small, shouldn't that not matter? Couldn't p be anything?
Ohhh ok. If we have another question similar to this one in which for the first part $x$ is between 0 and 1 (both inclusive) and for the second $x$ is greater than 2, with 2 inclusive, should we then assume different intervals for them both? @TedShifrin
We already had a counterexample a week ago, @user159870, and André gave you the same one.
$V^{**}$ is the dual of the dual of $V$, so elements of $V^{**}$ are linear functions associating a linear function in $V^*$ to an element of the underlying field, right? @Ted
Sure, @Alias, if you make the steps smaller and smaller. There's a uniformity question going on here.
19:12
@TedShifrin I mean if we suppose that it is also continuous.
OK, @user159870, then it's true. You have lots of answers there. So what specifically do you not understand?
@TedShifrin - what's the uniformity question?
I don't understand, @Paradox.
I mean, @Alias, that step-size (if you like) and $p$ have to be correlated. You can't find a step-size that works for all $p$ unless they're all smaller than something.
Yes, @Alessandro. $V^{*} = (V^)^*$. Weird that this isn't showing up right.
Thank you - that makes sense. So why would you use a Poisson distribution over a Normal distribution for approximating many trials of a binomial distribution?
19:16
@Alizter Want a hint?
If it's something like this then should we assume two separate intervals for both the cases? @TedShifrin
@BalarkaSen no
Huy
Huy
and what if $x \in (1,2)$?
@Alizter OK. How're you approaching it?
Good question, @Alias. It's really a question of the interpretation of the random variable. Poisson shows up with certain sorts of applications. I'm sure you can find this in your text or on line.
19:16
Lagranges theorem
(my hint would have been another problem, actually).
@Alizter Good idea.
$x^4=1$ forall x in G
@Paradox: You need a function defined on the entire interval $[a,b]$. You can't have a gap.
@Alizter Not true.
@BalarkaSen Yes true
That is lagranges theorem no?
19:17
? It is not.
The klein 4 group have no order 4 elements.
Ah.
Yes, that is true :P
It is a direct Corollary of lagrange
Sure, sure. I misread $x^4 = 1$ above by "order of $x$ = $4$". Apologies.
okok
Then I am looking at possible presentations
I could list them all
Go on.
No, I don't want brute force.
@TedShifrin isn't this function similar to the original one? Both are discontinuous
19:19
If you do brute force, I'll ask you to classify groups of order $31^2$.
or better yet 24
24 is not square of anything.
But it has a lot of subgroups
I had to escape * with * too @Ted ok, so, we defined the function $h:V\to V^{**}$ that maps $v\in V$ to $g\in V^{**}$ where $g$ is the function that maps $f\in V^{*}$ to $f(v)\in\mathbb{K}$ and we want to show that this function is linear
@Alizter Yes, that is why you cannot classify it so easily. There are not many groups of order $31^2$. I'll tell you about it when you finish $4$.
19:21
@TedShifrin
For the first question.
We can show that there is such a sequence as follows:

If there is no such $T_0$ , by definition that means that for every $T_0>0$
there exists $0< T'<T_0$ such that $\gamma$ is $T'$-periodic.
We use this to define the sequence iteratively: to get $T_1$ , we take $T_0=1$
in the above, and we let $T_1$ be the corresponding $T'$ . Then, we "take $T_0 =T_1$ in the above, and we let $T_2$ be the new "corresponding T ′
. Etc.: given $T_n$ we define $T_{n+1}$ to be the T ′ corresponding to $T_0=T_n$.
Read what I said, @Paradox. You only talk about integrals on an interval $[a,b]$, so the function must be defined on all of $[a,b]$.
heya @AlexG
@AlexanderGruber!
Correct, @Alessandro, linear in $f$.
Whatcha upto?
19:23
@user159870: It's just too crazy in here now. I can't deal with things so complicated and long.
Miserably failing to C++ a thing
@TedShifrin oh ok I get it. thank you :)
@AlexanderGruber What is it
@Alizter some kind of pointer bug. I'm bad with C++.
Here's a question that's bothering me (should be very simple) : If $A,B$ are abelian groups, $f : A \to B$ a homomorphism, then if $f \otimes \text{id}_{\Bbb k} : A \otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb {k} \to B \otimes_{\Bbb Z} \Bbb k$ is an isomorphism for all fields $\Bbb k$, is it necessary that $f$ is an isomorphism?
19:27
@TedShifrin :(
trying to populate this binary tree and it says it's adding nodes and then when i go back to print them it says they're empty
I think it is.
@AlexanderGruber I though C++ was supposed to move away from pointers
@user159870: The point is that $\gamma$ is $T_r$ periodic for every $r$. So you get a sequence $T_r\to 0$ with $\gamma$ periodic for all of them. What's wrong with that?
@Alizter idk, i'm using them for speed
19:28
Ok, I think I understood that part @Ted. Now I have to understand how that came up in a combinatorics lecture...!
it's the fundamental structure for this thing i'm going to have to do bajillion sized samples of so i'm trying to make it as fast as possible
Ah, that I don't know, @Alessandro.
@AlexanderGruber Whose data structure is the binary tree
me neither! @Ted
Is it yours?
19:29
Yeah
Thats probably where the problem starts then
But I hope you read more of Babai's notes, @Alessandro. I think they're amazing.
undoubtedly
Have you tried testing it for small ones
yeah, that's where it's messing up.
19:29
@TedShifrin What's Babai's notes?
Going through the program by hand
I can't do much else if I don't see the code, but you don't have to post it it's up to you
oh, well, if you're interested sure
Linear Algebra applied to all sorts of fascinating combinatorics, @Balarka.
oh, nice. What sort of combinatorics?
@AlexanderGruber You may also want to consider using other peoples datastructures for trees
google and look
I am sure they are fast as well
@TedShifrin - I apologize for so many questions, but I wasn't able to find a justification of when to use a Poisson distribution over a Normal distribution for binomial distribution approximation. Would you mind pointing me in the right direction?
19:31
I think I'll read more of it next week @Ted I'm too busy preparing for my exams right now
@Alizter well, i'm also trying to actually learn what i'm doing. I shouldn't be this bad at C++
It seems weird that a binomial distribution can approach both a Poisson and a Normal distribution as n goes to infinity if p is small.
time for dinner! I'll be back later
@Alias: I'm not an expert in this stuff. But the text that I taught out of, Ross, certainly discusses it. Also, an excellent web-available reference, is a text by two MIT professors, Bertsekas and somebody.
Buon appetito, @Alessandro :0
@TedShifrin - thank you!
19:33
so see in the output, it says it adds the left and right nodes to (1,1), but then when I go back and try to print them it says they're both empty.
Oh, very cool, @TedShifrin.
I see that it does some chromatic combinatorics (Ramsey-type stuff) on 4.2.
Also settles the Borsuk conjecture (more geometry) ... totally cool.
Let me google Borsuk conjecture, never heard of it.
It's in the notes.
oh here is the code with syntax highlighting @Alizter
19:39
Wow, ok. That sounds very nontrivial.
Indeed. He has history in there.
heh
It is not about your happiness - I figured the answer, but as with my students - you show an effort first, then I help — Ghost 2 mins ago
@AlexanderGruber Could you try and even simpler tree maybe:
./\
/\
5 nodes
@TedShifrin Hmm, odd. I thought Erdos-Szekeres problem said that if I have some integer $n$, and there is a bunch of points in general position on the place with cardinality = $m$, then when is it true that there is a subset of $n$ points of that set which forms a convex polygon?
Maybe I am misremembering.
(By that, I mean, what is the bound $N$ on $m$ w.r.t $n$ such that it is true for all such $m > N$?)
I think Erdos and Szekeres proved that $N$ is finite.
Why my question was put on hold as too broad? math.stackexchange.com/q/1509214/275935 Could someone explain?
I want to put a bounty on it but now I can't
19:50
Because you're asking for someone to type you out an hour lecture. You can find this in books. @Tien
@TedShifrin Which book? I can't find the procedure in D&F.
It's certainly in D&F.
They refer to the chapter on modules, I believe.
D&F does this more generally on modules over PID's.
It's in there. Or look at Artin's Algebra. Or Jacobson's Algebra, volume I, I believe.
@Alizter if I comment out two of the nodes before adding them to the vector, there's still one missing node
when I print
Are you sure you are using the correct pointers when adding nodes or printing
19:52
Oh, turns out I was mixing up with the happy ending problem @TedShifrin.
Both are proved by Erdos and Szekeres, on the same paper :P
@Alizter I think so. The control flow is right, at least. I put the couts in there for that reason
I know none of this stuff, @Balarka.
I have D&F at hand now. Could someone tell me which page?
19:54
There are so many editions, @Tien. That won't help.
most recent edition is 3rd edition
You certainly know more than me - I have only heard about these from my algebraic number theory professor who's interested in doing chromatic combinatorics. He's trying to apply dynamics in his work, he said, iirc.
I only have the 2nd. Look in the chapter titled Modules over Principal Ideal Domains, @Tien.
"they are Ricci flat and carry non-trivial parallel spinors which, so I am told, makes them relevant to high energy physics."
@MikeMiller If that was directed towards me - I never said that makes it relevant to dynamics. It was a side-comment.
19:58
@AlexanderGruber Can you try using a different vector rather than (0,0)
what? lol
confused.
i quoted a section from a paper i'm reading because the "so I am told" is amusing
oh.
I thought you were being sarcastic. Nevermind.
@TedShifrin Well... Do the proofs of the Theorems in that chapter tell one how to compute?
19:59
@MikeMiller Heh, nice

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