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00:02
Oh I typed the original question wrong, my bad
Where I concluded that theta is arctan half, they concluded it's that or cot theta = 0 and they got two extra solutions from that (90 & -90)
@AshleyDavies I cannot follow your work at all
okay, following a bit
I probably overcomplicated it a bit; essentially all I did was substitute in the identify cosec^2 x = 1 + cot^2 x then multiply throughout by tan^2 x after cancelling the +1 on both sides
00:18
when you converted cos/sin to 1/tan (two times) you lost the possibility of cos=0
for instance, cos/sin=0 has 90 degrees as a solution, but 1/tan=0 has no solution
I think that makes sense - I thought the two were equal though?
(I'm not doubting you, just trying to get my head around it so I can catch similar mistakes in future)
do you think 0/1 equals 1/(1/0) ?
you can't divide the top and bottom of a fraction by 0
you can't divide by 0 period
so dividing the top and bottom of cos/sin by cos is only valid when cos is not 0
@anon You missed a comma there.
Ah, that makes sense, so my solution is only valid for theta =/= arccos 0 and that's why I'm missing them?
@AshleyDavies is only valid for cos(theta)=/=0
00:28
Awesome, I understand it now! Thanks! :) I've been struggling to get to terms with this all year, I was just thinking of cot as cos/sin rather than 1/(sin/cos)
Sorry to be a pest!
Joe
Joe
Hi. Why isn't taylor quadriture used very often (or at all, as far as I can tell)? I found a vague reference to it being unstable somewhere, but in my use case it works very well.
I am fortunate enough that higher-order derivatives of the function I'm integrating are very (very) simple algebraic equations of the lower-order ones. Which I'm thinking might explain why my case is numerically stable.
 
1 hour later…
01:38
@Chris'ssistheartist: following up on that bessel summation question, i found a question which addresses a generalization of the original one, and moreover with an answer that states a closed form in terms of complete elliptic integrals
4
Q: There is a closed form for $\sum _{n=1}^{\infty }{\frac {{{\it J}_{0}\left(\,\alpha\,n\right)} {{\it J}_{0}\left(\,\beta\,n\right)}}{{n}^{2}}}$?

Juan OspinaUsing the method showed here proposed by Olivier Oloa with simplifications proposed by Anastasiya-Romanova, it is possible to prove that $$\sum _{n=1}^{\infty }{\frac {{{\it J}_{0}\left(\,2\,n\right)} {{\it J}_{0}\left(\,n\right)}}{{n}^{2}}}={\frac {5}{8}}+{\frac {1}{6}}\,{\pi }^{2}-4\,{\frac { ...

01:51
taking the limit $\beta\to\alpha$ is a little tricky, though, since the complete elliptic integral of the first kind diverges at unit argument
i'm working right now to see if i can get mathematica to compute it
hi @bolbteppa
did you figure out k-theory? :)
If you think of a module as a vector space where the 'scalars' are functions instead of numbers from a field, what is the intuition for a projective module?
Hey @Semiclassical yeah I am happy with K theory now!
On a vague level
If you think of vector bundles as 'linear algebraic topology' then the theory of characteristic classes is the cohomology of vector bundles, i.e. a way to measure non-exactness, or twistiness... Then K theory is just talking about direct sums of vector bundles and analyzing the cohomology invariants associated to this structure,
Have you made any progress with classical integrability?
a bit, but i haven't been focusing on it lately
i did get a bit of a handle on some of the machinery, at least
Me neither, it's something I just periodically dip into
01:59
for example, i now recognize where Toeplitz determinants can crop up
I would now like to understand in quantum integrability how the whole trigonometric R matrix stuff in the Ising model is an example of representation theory of quantum groups
yeah, um, have fun with that :)
You too ;)
i'm happy enough looking to understand how classical integrability is useful for quantum mechanics
If you find easy dumbed down explanations of this stuff send them to me ;)
02:00
by which i mostly just mean schrodinger differential/ difference equations and reductions thereof
will do
right now i'm more trying to get some understanding of the Riemann-Hilbert problem
How do you define the direct product of modules using functions again instead of tuples?
which does show up in babelon's book, albeit not in a way that i can really get a lot out of
but i've got a few books from the library which should help
The set of all functions $\omega : I \to \cup_i M_i$ where $I$ is the index set over which the product is being taken. Or something...
02:08
Hello @robjohn !! Are you familiar with Cryptography and especially with the voting scheme?
@Semiclassical yeah I had the exact same problem, tried to find out what R-H actually said, found Babelon no help, still have no idea, but just now I think I found something good ams.org/notices/200311/fea-its.pdf
yeah, that's what i found too
and i've got a book on Painleve transcendents via RHP with him as an author, so that should be a strong source (readable or not)
i also grabbed percy deift's book on RHP applied to orthogonal polynomials and random matrix theory.
so hopefully between all of those i'll be able to triangulate something
"the presence of the spectral parameter in the Lax pair brings the tools of complex analysis into the problem, and this ultimately transforms the original problem of solving a system of differential equations into the question of reconstructing an analytic function from the known structure of its singularities.
In turn, this question (almost) always can be reformulated as a Riemann-Hilbert problem of finding an analytic function (generally matrix valued) from a prescribed jump condition across a curve."
So the spectral parameter is the time-independent eigenvalue
02:12
what confuses me a bit is that one gets into deformations which are iso monodromic rather that iso spectral
"In general, the Riemann-Hilbert formalism provides a representation in terms of the solutions of certain linear singular integral equations, which in turn can be related to the theory of infinite-dimensional Grassmannians and holomorphic vector bundles."
Amazing, grassmannians which we were talking about last time, and randomly vector bundles from the K theory I just mentioned :p
Well, monodromy is what happens to the solutions of, say a linear 2nd order ode, when you pass around a singularity of the ode
which doesn't actually shock me much, seeing as one of the main motivations of this from the physics side is to do work with some simple types of topological insulators/superconductors in 1D
aka the kind of thing which K-theory is used to classify :)
I had something on this before
02:14
yeah, i do grok monodromy
Yeah, you can see an insulator as like a base space plus something :p
I wish I knew this stuff better, it's cool stuff
yeah. my research partner has been familiarizing himself with the whole classification, though from the perspective of time-reversal / particle-hole / chiral symmetries rather than K-theory
Intuitively, my guess is that it's ultimately just like solving a non-linear PDE using an integral equation (the Gelfand-Marchenko-Levitan integral equation) which has singularities thus requiring an analysis of the monodromy of the solutions, thus solutions with similar monodromy are homotopic or something, and isospectrality is the condition for integrability
mmkay
the thing i'm going to try to use as a foothold on this is the orthogonal polynomials aspect
since i (mostly) understand how that shows up
plus it'll come in handy if i ever want to do random matrix theory
@EnjoysMath you can define it as the unique module $M$ (up to isomorphism) with the following property: if $\pi_i: M \to M_i$ is a surjective homomorphism for each $i$ then for any set of homomorphisms $f_i : N \to M_i$ there's a unique homomorphism $f: N \to M$ such that $f_i = f \circ \pi_i$ for all $i$.
02:21
Well, I do know the ultimate jist of this theory comes from looking at dL/dt = [B,L] where you assume L is assumed to have regular singularities, so from this you can rewrite it as a fuschian system as in the first equation here http://www.ucl.ac.uk/~ucahrha/LTCC/CA-LTCC-2012-5.pdf
so since this is a non-linear pde with a lax form it can be solved by the inverse scattering integral equation
Or something not too far from that anyway
yeah
i know they also describe it as a kind of complex WKB method, which is intriguing
especially since the first paper i was a co-author on was about semiclassical quantization of non-self-adjoint periodic potentials :)
aka the kind of thing which is properly derived from WKB
I can see orthogonal polynomials as somehow coming out of the solution to this setup, and the whole random matrix stuff as coming out of the path integral formulation of this set-up, which obviously links to orthogonal polynomials since both relate to the solution to this problem set up, all vague though
yeah. if we're flying right now, it's by the seat of our pants :P
That sounds cool, the wiki en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… seems to say you deform a problem so that you can only then apply stationary phase to it
yeah
i really dealt more with the output of WKB rather than the guts of it, though
namely taking classical action integrals, requiring them to be quantized, and checking that that gave the correct energy levels (within the approximation, of course)
Bohr-Sommerfeld quantization
02:27
Yeah
which did give some fun pictures
arxiv.org/abs/1303.6386 is the preprint
for example, figure 12 is kind've fun :P
@Semiclassical
hi
had you know 90 in mechanics exam I made algebra mistake would have gotten 100 otherwise :S
1 moment let me show you my exam
ah, algebra. i can usually forgive myself for algebra errors in a scenario like that, as long as i remember to check my result to make sure i didn't do something obviously wrong
(like wrong units, or results waaaay too big, etc.)
that's what you showed before, no?
glad i don't have to do those anymore. just too tedious for my taste
no not those
yeah
02:56
Looks like multivariable calc
Or physics?
bah, I am up way too early.
physics
mechanics 3rd level
@Clarinetist
I think I'll just stick to probability measures :P
03:13
@MikeMiller This guy says Munkres uses covering spaces to prove the lemma. I don't recall this at all. Can't we just construct the homotopy $H : S^1 \times I \to X$ by taking $H(\gamma, t)$ to be the $t$-th intermediate of the path-homotopy of $\gamma$ to the constant loop?
considering $f_*(\text{id}) = f$ it's a tautology that $f_*$ is the trivial homomorphism iff $f$ is null-homotopic
right
and what I say works, right?
can't really parse what you're saying
not sure what there is to say
I mean, any loop $\gamma : S^1 \to S^1$, when composed with $h : S^1 \to X$, can be path-homotoped to the zero loop. Let $\{f_t\}$ denote such a path homotopy, with $f_0 = h \circ \gamma, f_1 = e_0$
Set $H : S^1 \times I \to X$ to be $H(-, t) = f_t$
sigh. trying to track down an error in an answer based on numerical evidence alone is frustrating me
03:17
yes, I agree
math.stackexchange.com/a/940612/137524 doesn't appear to quite work numerically, but it's very close
ok, good. i'll post that as an answer, then.
so presumably there's some little typo. but finding it is ugh
seems to me Qiaochu's comment should suffi e
don't understand why it wasn't resolved then
Munkres doesn't use S^1 in the domain of the loops, I guess that's the origin of his problem.
03:19
then the comments after that should have resolved it :p
and Munkres mucks up all his proof using rigorous calculations, as always :(
but yes, i encourage posting a full answer with all this
I was thinking about how you usually go about showing something like $(\Bbb Z / 10\Bbb Z)\otimes_{\Bbb Z} (\Bbb Z / 12\Bbb Z) \cong (\Bbb Z / 2\Bbb Z)$. In particular, to show $1 \otimes 1 \neq 0$ you usually look at the bilinear map $f: (\Bbb Z / 10\Bbb Z) \times (\Bbb Z / 12\Bbb Z) \to (\Bbb Z / 2 \Bbb Z)$ given by $(a, b) \mapsto ab$, but is there a way to see that $1 \otimes 1 \neq 0$ without looking "outside of the tensor product"?
hrm. or maybe i'm being careless about the domain of the elliptic integrals. blah
yep, careless on my part
I guess more generally, what's the most trick-free possible approach to arguing that a particular tensor product of modules is nonzero?
I ask because the above question was given in a text I'm looking at right after the definition of the tensor product, and before any notion of bilinearity was mentioned
given what the text would expect, how can I do this? it seems harder than it should be for me
03:31
Done, @Mike.
Let's see if this resolves his confusions.
1
Q: Countering Gibb's phenomenon, and approximating jumps with jumps in Fourier Analysis : An attempt and a question in this regard

Rajesh DMain Question (this section is fully self contained and does not need anything that comes further, for answering the question). Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$, $f(t) = 0, t<0$. Let $f \in L^2(\mathbb{R})$ and is locally BV. Let its jump set be $\{x_i\},i=1,2,3,...,x_i>0$, and the corresponding...

which dwfinition of tensor product @SamuelYusim
the quotient of the free module by all the stuff
what's the stuff, can you remind me?
Hey everyone, anyone have any thoughts on how to get rid of the (t+1)! in this :math.stackexchange.com/questions/1323183/…
Also hey @MikeMiller
03:42
take the free $A$-module with generating set $M \times N$, then mod out by the submodule generated by the elements $(m_1,n) + (m_2,n) - (m_1 + m_2, n)$, $(m, n_1) + (m, n_2) - (m, n_1 + n_2)$, $a(m,n) - (am, n)$, and $a(m, n) - (m, an)$ for all $m, m_1, m_2 \in M$, $n, n_1, n_2 \in N$, and $a \in A$.
it's the bad-but-concrete definition
I guess you can probably calculate precisely what that ideal is but I just fiddled on paper and did not have a good time
submodule* is
04:32
lol
2
05:05
@ShinKim look at my question history, I asked about that once on main.
half of the project is over :)
 
1 hour later…
06:28
Hey@Balarka
How to ask dumb questions?? hahaha
there's nothing funny about that
the flow-chart's what's funny.
I do mean the answer
I was able to do questions of munkres without taking any help... Thanks to Simmons
@Balarka Can we take the product and quotient of two topological spaces
06:34
How I mean do I have to write ..
$\frac{X}{Y}$
there are well-defined notions of product and quotient of top. spaces out there. it's in Simmons, I think.
@Remember you have to define what quotients mean first before bothering about notations of quotient spaces :P
Definitions
Hey@Skill
morning @Mike
Hi pal @Rememberme
How are you?
07:03
@Balarka I had this question ...
let me define a set $B:\{[a,b) : a,b \in \Bbb{Q}\}$ . Does the topology generated by this set B different from the lower limit topology?
07:36
heh. chat is ded.
[sic]
yes, @Remember (why?)
hello @Soham
is Sayan doing Counterexamples or what?
what's up, B?
still sick?
nope, I'm alright now.
mmh, good.
trying to make up some notes of the Galois theory I know of to make sure I don't forget it.
07:40
cool.
finished with the darn project of yours?
tell me an interesting theorem (in the spirit of Borsuk-Ulam or Banach-Tarski) from Galois theory. other than the obvious quintics one.
no, still have ~15 pages to write.
and ~20 graphs.
i have 15 Uttarakhand tabs open and my cheap laptop doesn't like it. damn.
@SohamChowdhury not much low-brow applications I can think of out there.
of course, there are all kinds of impossibility results (trisecting angles/doubling cube/etc)
@Balarka I was just thinking of topologies generated by sets which seem to be quite the same
high-brow applications would be the Kummer theory, say, to solve FLT for regular primes.
07:46
Well I got to know of something very nice in topology.... seems very interesting and intuitive
Gluing....
everything in mathematics can be made intuitive, if you play with them a lot
Yup I also thought of something ....
How can you get a sphere from a disk
Start gluing the ends to a point
Define gluing.
Its defined using equivalence relations and quotient spaces
Well, write it down :P
07:49
Equivalence relation I know
I mean, write down the definition of quotient topology.
Quotient topology.. ahh dont seem so :p
And prove the quotient of a disk by it's boundary circle is a sphere.
Intuition is great, but it's not good to talk about intuitive things without knowing the right definitions.
Oh my god @Balarka You are shelling me with questions :p
Well but I can say this much (now) Gluing is pretty intuitive
No, I am trying to get you to understand that you'll attain mathematical maturity only when you both have the intuition and the correct translation of intuition to rigorous mathematics in mind.
@Rememberme Even topological quantum field theory is intuitive, but it's useless if you don't know the definition :P
07:51
Define intuition.
yes you are right @Balarka
lol@Skill
Intuition, a phenomenon of the mind, describes the ability to acquire knowledge without inference or the use of reason. The word "intuition" comes from Latin verb intueri translated as consider or from late middle English word intuit, "to contemplate". Intuition is often interpreted with varied meaning from intuition being glimpses of greater knowledge to only a function of mind; however, processes by which and why they happen typically remain mostly unknown to the thinker, as opposed to the view of rational thinking. Intuition has been subject of discussion from ancient philosophy to moder...
I think this will suffice you @skill
08:22
@Semiclassical Oooooooooooo, that is nice! I didn't think of such an amazing form.
Sunday here, a great day for hard work.
2
BBL
"A great day for hard work." That's a very nice way to put it. :)
3
08:43
whoa, what? homotopy equivalent aspherical manifold are homeomorphic?
Conjecturally.
(Add the word closed, but that was implied. There's a modified, stricter version that's true for compact manifolds with boundary in small dimensions; I'm not sure if it conjecturally extends to all dimensions.)
oh, I see.
pretty strong conjecture.
Known for dimensions at most 3. Known for manifolds with enough geometric structure to work with. Issue with higher dimensions, I think, is that there's just not enough relation between the topology and the geometry to get a handle on the problem.
Did they actually prove this for 3-manifolds, or did they just check through all the manifolds using the classification theorem (if that's even possible?)
The correct statement of the theorem is "A homotopy equivalence $M \to N$ of aspherical closed manifolds is homotopic to a homeomorphism". This involves checking on the level of maps, not manifolds, so even if you wanted to "check a list" (not exactly feasible in the world of 3-manifolds) it's not going to prove the full theorem.
There is not a classification theorem like there is for 2-manifolds.
08:57
ahh, the corrected statement makes sense.
I don't know anything about 3-manifolds, so I am going to believe you about the classification theorem bit.
All manifolds here are orientable. "Every 3-manifold has a unique prime decomposition. Every prime piece has a (unique minimal choice of, I think) decomposition along tori into pieces with a finite volume geometric structure. These geometric structures are fairly easily understood for 7 of the geometries, and the last piece is pretty rough."
@MikeMiller Decomposition in the sense of connected sums or what?
Anonymous
How would someone start with this problem?math.stackexchange.com/questions/1296342/…
And by geometric structure, you mean a geodesic metric space/Riemannian manifold structure?
Anonymous
I don't think it's always possible,as mentioned in the comments
Anonymous
09:10
@SohamChowdhury Someone,don't worry!
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen probably lives in a microscopic world,he seems to have an intuition for Quantum Mechanics.
09:29
@Ashwin it's a common misconception that anything with the word "quantum" in it means it's quantum mechanics.
While topological quantum field theory might originate from physics, it has little to do with it.
@Rememberme intuition has strong relation with sixth sens , i think intuition is the appearance of sixth sens in its modestest form
in the times of non-spoken communication means , intuition was in its highest use among people via telepathy , until the invention of "language"
i think there was a description for it , memetics (Mimesis) -actually memes- , it means the simulation and figuring human behavior 's evolution by time and ages
For example the "quantum BS" that pseudo-scientific cranks use to explain their BS, like water has memory @BalarkaSen
3
09:44
lol
Hello
I don't even know why I post questions this late, they are not going to get any answers...
@Paul How're you doing, btw?
Just thinking: Can we have a continuous function f defined on X =(0,1) such that f(X)= [1/2,1)??
i think noone could make a remarkable advancement in my question
09:47
I am doing okay, have been doing bits and pieces of a bunch of things (or as you would say learning nothing), how about yourself? @BalarkaSen
I was ill all the past week, but now I am back to doing multivariable calc.
@BalarkaSen Hey Balarka you hail from India??
i couldnt understand quite the formula of poisson , but I think it is just an approximation , I want the exact limit , do I ask for much ?
You can embed a set of tori. Now just consider the disjoint union of the closures of the connected components of the complement of this set of tori. Aka, cut along them.
That's what it means to "decompose"?
09:55
In the tori bit, yes. Unless you're asking about the prime decomposition, then it's a connect sum decomposition. (Which is essentially equivalent to this but with spheres.)
ah, makes sense.
@S.C. Think about a parabola
Well I am going to try to go to sleep now...
10:12
Hello @robjohn @ThomasAndrews !! Are you familiar with Cryptography and especially with the voting scheme?
Hey guys, what is this function supposed to do? $diag(A_1, A_2)$ thanks for the help! I thought the diag function would just return a matrix with $0$s everywhere except on the diagonal, but the comma is trying me on a loop
10:45
@Clash Hi!!! Do you mean in Matlab?
DIAG(V,K) when V is a vector with N components is a square matrix
of order N+ABS(K) with the elements of V on the K-th diagonal. K = 0
is the main diagonal, K > 0 is above the main diagonal and K < 0
is below the main diagonal.


DIAG(X,K) when X is a matrix is a column vector formed from
the elements of the K-th diagonal of X.
Is anyone familiar with differential equations? I have the following question:
1
Q: Why is the general solution of this form?

evindaI found the following in my lecture notes: $$u_t=u_{xx}, x \in \mathbb{R}, t>0 \\ u(x,0)=f(x)$$ $$u(x,t)=X(x)T(t)$$ $$\Rightarrow \frac{T'(t)}{T(t)}=\frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-\lambda \in \mathbb{R}$$ $$X''(x)+\lambda X(x)=0, x \in \mathbb{R}$$ $$X \text{ bounded }$$ The characteristic equation is...

Thanks @evinda, I just posted the question and realized it's a diagonal made out of blocks of matrices, so blkdiag did the trick on Matlab! Thanks!
@Clash You are welcome :)
@PaulPlummer as a grad student in condensed-matter physics, that kind of thing is teeth-gnashingly annouying
just because QM is strange and hard to understand doesn't mean it predicts telekinesis or telepathy
Hi @Semiclassical
What's up?
hi. up earlier than usual, and not really awake yet
10:57
@Semiclassical what time is it there?
coming up on 6am
@Semiclassical Aha... Do you have exams now?
nah. i'm past the course-taking stage of my PhD
@Semiclassical So are you in the research field now?
i'm doing research, yeah
11:01
@Semiclassical In physics?
@Semiclassical Nice.... :)
@Chris'ssistheartist i'm pretty tickled by it myself. though I wish he'd included the domain of applicability (i.e. what branch cuts have to be introduced)
that's absolutely crucial for not mis-understanding how the function behaves under analytic continuation
@Chris'ssistheartist,@robjohn, can you see detai prove : Q-function equal complementary error function?
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Got it,thanks!
11:09
kay, back to sleep i think
Anonymous
@SohamChowdhury I saw this question of yours:math.stackexchange.com/questions/392374/…
Someone please help with the integrals?
Anonymous
@SohamChowdhury Visual Group Theory by Nathan Carter fits the bill!
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{x^2}{(x^2+1)^2(x^2+2x+2)} dx$$
Someone else with the beautiful integrals
Anonymous
11:12
I don't think such integrals are beautiful LOL
You don't think that one is beautiful?
Anonymous
I vaguely understand them,maybe that's why.
Is anyone good with integrals here?
@Calculus,you can partial fraction expansion
I suppose it looks like $\frac{1}{x^4}$
11:14
Note $$\dfrac{x^2}{(x^2+1)^2(x^2+2x+2)}=\dfrac{2x-1}{5(x^2+1)^2}-\dfrac{2(3x+1)}{25(x‌​^2+1)}+\dfrac{2(3x+7)}{25(x^2+2x+2)}$$
How did you do that so quickly?
I use wolf computer
The 5, and 25 normally aren't on the denominator, they were introduced via calculating ax+b etc
@Semiclassical I see. I didn't study the details yet. The experience in the area of elliptic functions is low.
if you partial,then your integral is easy to find it
11:17
@math110 Can you recap me on the numerator of partial fractions?
so I will have denominators with (x^2+1), (x^2+1)^2 and (x^2+2x+2)
And numerators are A, Bx+C, D respectively?
Thank you
@robjohn are you aware of any function that has its first derivative as his function but rotated at 90-degrees? I was just asked that. Maybe I should think more of it. If it's easy, don't tell me the solution.
You are welcome.,@Calculus
11:19
@Chris'ssistheartist,hello, you see this proof with my integral
@math110 Which proof?
this reslut can find in wiki:[en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Error_function]
this indenity is very interesting,But I tried sometimes to prove,and at last,I Failed,and I google sometime,I only find this paper:[ W. Craig, A new, simple and exact result for calculating the probability of error for two-dimensional signal constellaions, Proc. 1991 IEEE ]
But I can't find proof on this paper
First,when I see this problem,It seem not easy,But when I try some Substitution( for example,\dfrac{z}{\sin{x}}=u),all can't solve it.
12:02
hi
can someone help me with showing $$\lim_{R\to\infty} \int_{C_R} \frac{z^2+8z+7}{(z^2+4)(z^2+2z+2)} dz =0$$
transversed positvely
@MaryStar you can help? I saw you doing integrals
center at 0
@Calculus Is $C_R$ a circle with center at 0 and radius R?
12:28
@MaryStar Yep
@SohamChowdhury Okay, i checked it. i perfectly agree with Siminore's opinion. it is a bad notation.
it will be much much better if authors change their habit to using the standard notations. otherwise it will be ambiguous and confusing.
12:55
I'm watching Interstellar, back later :-)
@Calculus We have a path integral over the circle with radius R. So, use $\int_{C_R} f(\xi) \mathrm{d} \xi| \leq L(C_R) \max_{ z \in R} |f(z)|$, where $L$ is the length of the circle.

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