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19:03
@DanielFischer You are blue, abedi abede.
a friend of mine sings "if I was green I would die" instead
@N3buchadnezzar What does "abedi abede" mean, and where does it come from?
> Unfortunately, this video is not available in your country because it could contain music, for which we could not agree on conditions of use with GEMA.
19:07
Ah, music is not allowed in Germany.
A very serious country indeed.
@MikeMiller They have march music and classical music.
@N3buchadnezzar Aha. Not my type of music, but I've heard worse.
@N3buchadnezzar And we have/had Modern Talking and Tokyo Hotel (or was it spelled Tokio?). We can do much much worse than Marschmusik.
@MikeMiller $$\sum _{k=1}^{\floor \left(x\right)}\frac{\phi \left(\frac{x}{k^2}\right)}{k^2}$$ ? That isn't close to a staircase function..
No, @Hippalectryon, I said define it piecewise.
Actually, I guess something like you're doing would work.
Actually... that looks like it works.
:P
O_o how ?
Even $$\sum _{k=1}^{\floor \left(x\right)}\frac{\phi \left(\frac{\floor \left(x\right)}{k^2}\right)}{k^2}$$ isn't monotone
19:13
how is that not monotone?
@BalarkaSen ok, balarka...just tell me why we cant contract the cone of hawaiian earring to the interesting point pls
That's not $\phi(x)$.
@MikeMiller Oh wait q_q I forgot it had to be $0$ outside. Wouldn't that make it $\phi(x)$ ?
this is key :)
Yes
Outside of $|x|<1$
19:17
How do I show that that sum is $C^1$ ?
In a neighborhood of any point it's a sum of finitely many $C^\infty$ things./
Well $\phi$ is $C^\infty$, but I don't see why $$\sum _{k=1}^{\floor \left(x\right)}\frac{\phi \left(\frac{\floor \left(x\right)}{k^2}\right)}{k^2}$$ would be $C^\infty$
@DanielFischer Uuuuugh
At any point $x$, there's a small neighborhood in which it's $$\sum _{k=1}^{m}\frac{\phi \left(\frac{\floor \left(x\right)}{k^2}\right)}{k^2}$$ for some $m$. Everything in the sum is $C^\infty$. Finite sums of smooth functions are smooth.
@N3buchadnezzar Don't complain, I did warn you.
19:24
@MikeMiller $\phi(x)$ is smooth, but $\phi(\lfloor x\rfloor)$ isn't
Wait
Where did that floor come from
Why is there a floor there
Idk just copy paste :c
I didn't turn my ChatJax on so I never noticed it
Get rid of the floor
19:25
Ok
Then you're smooth :)
@DanielFischer Fine. What are you up to these days?
@MikeMiller It's smooth, but the derivative seems awful.
$$-\sum _{k=1}^{m}\frac{\phi \left(\frac{\left(x\right)}{k^2}\right)}{k^2}\dfrac{2x}{(1-x^2)^2}$$
@N3buchadnezzar Trying to finish reading up on past events and general moderation strategies so that I'll have time to answer a question or two again in the foreseeable future.
Oh, we've done something wrong.
The thing you're describing won't ever be more than 1.\
We want $$\sum _{k=1}^{\lfloor x\rfloor}\frac{\Phi '(k^2(x-\lfloor x\rfloor)}{k^2}$$
19:31
@DanielFischer Be moderate and modest in the moderation. Also remember to use the official title: Mod in the hood, yo. When entering chatrooms =)
balls
that's what we want.
NO
DAMn
I didn't want the prime
well, you can figure out what it's supposed to say.
Ok ok
$$\sum _{k=1}^{\lfloor x\rfloor}\frac{\Phi (k^2(x-\lfloor x\rfloor))}{k^2}$$
Yes
now note that outside of a small region, each of those $\Phi$s is constant... hence has derivative zero.
19:34
But how do I get a derivative that I can use ? (to show it's $1$ somewhere on eveer interval of length ...)
so you only need to care about one $\Phi$ at a time
Yep
Ugh wait, why is that ?
$|k^2(x-\lfloor x\rfloor))|<1$ in the general case
hmm
ok let me fix
$$\sum _{k=1}^{\lfloor x\rfloor}\frac{\Phi (k^2(x-k))}{k^2}$$
finally this works
Hmm what about the derivatives this time ?
now the thing I said above applies
19:40
I don't see why we can only consider one function at a time. What if $x-k$ is small enough ?
Greetings
@Chris'ssis Hello !
@Hippalectryon Hello
@Hippalectryon If $|x-k| < 1/k^2$, is $|x-n| < 1/n^2$ for any other integer $n>1$?
19:43
right - triangle inequality. (I needed to demand $n,k>1$ because 1/1+1/4 > 1... so 1.8 works just fine as an x)
Hm ok so $f'(x)=\left(\frac{\Phi (k^2(x-k))}{k^2}\right)'$ for a given $k$ which depends on $x$.
Which is a rather ugly derivative
Chain rule says that's equal to $\Phi'(k^2(x-k))$...
Well it's equal to $-\dfrac{2x\phi(k^2(x-k))}{(1-x^2)^2}$
19:45
Working too hard
hi guys, can I ask one tiny permutation/combination question?
Is there a point $c$ such that $\Phi'(c) = 1$?
@Phonon Nope, it's forbidden :P
Go ahead lol
@MikeMiller I hope so q_q
Actually, not even that. There's some positive $a$ and some $c$ such that $\Phi'(c) = a$. That's automatic - $\Phi$ is monotonic nonconstant.
I have only two distinct elements, say 2 letters, i and j, in how many ways can I create distinct n element strings from such i and j, if I know that I have k times i occuring and n-k times j occuring?
19:47
@MikeMiller That wouldn't work. Take $f(x)=1-1/x$. It is monotonic onoconstant, but its derivative$\to0$
(without repetition)
@Hippalectryon Yes, that has nonzero derivative everywhere on its domain. I assume you want the domain to be positive reals.
No, I don't care that its derivative goes to zero. I care that it has nonzero derivative somewhere.
@MikeMiller I'm only looking at the limit in $+\infty$, so a positive domain is ok.
Because $\Phi'(c) = a$, automatically $f'(k+c/k^2) = a$.
19:49
@MikeMiller But we want a function with a derivative that does not go to $0$
That's a sequence of points that goes to infinity at which the derivative is a fixed positive number. So $f'$ does not have a limit as $x$ goes to $\infty$.
Uh why wouldn't that apply for $1-1/x$ then ?
Your $a$ depends of $x$
Or am I missing something ?
@MikeMiller You said "There's some positive a and some c such that Φ′(c)=a.", but that is true for any function which is inreasing somewhere
yes, that's correct.
19:55
So, how do we use that here ?
We want to show that there exists an $a>0$ such that for all x, there exists $x_0>x$ such that $f'(x_0)=a$
why is (a+b)^p <= 2^p(a^p+b^p) ?
@kave Convexity.
@PedroTamaroff can you explain further?
@kave Do you understand where I am getting at?
Do you know what "convexity" means?
yes but dunno which function you want to have convex
x^p would be convex
but the 2^p irretates me. btw p >= 1
19:58
@MikeMiller So, when did we show that ? Reading again what we said, i can't find it.
oh got it
@PedroTamaroff thanks
@kave No problem.
@Hippa You know what $f'$ is. You verify that $f'(k+c/k^2)=a$ for all positive integers $k>1$. You conclude.
What you call $c$ is what I called $x_0$, but where have we proved its existence ?
If we have its existence, then indeed we can conclude easily.
Hippa, $\Phi$ is a nonconstant monotonic function.
20:04
any other equal for this series? (except cosh(x)
(1+x^2+x^4+.... = (e^x+e^(-x))/2) )
I could drop the word monotonic and it wouldn't matter.
There is some point $c \in (-1,1)$ that has nonzero derivative.
:O I just got it. My mind was really confused :c
could you take a look at this?
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1045173/which-is-the-greatest-integer-value-of-a-for-which-a-is-asymptotically-fas
@MikeMiller Ugh sorry, but I still have a problem with that q_q
@MikeMiller Let's call $\phi_k=\frac{\Phi (k^2(x-k))}{k^2}$
@MikeMiller Suppose that $\sup\phi_k'(x)=a_k>0$
What happens if $a_k\to0$ ?
@Hippalectryon Hippa.
Stop.
Sit down in a table.
20:08
@PedroTamaroff ?
Think about the problem by yourself for a while.
@PedroTamaroff I'm on a desk
OK, no internet.
Try to answer the questions by yourself.
Else you're compulsively asking stuff that pops to mind without thinking about it.
Think about it.
@DanielFischer Could you maybe take a look at this? math.stackexchange.com/questions/1045173/…
@PedroTamaroff I've already thought about it. As i'm typing here, i'm also writing on paper. What I don't understand is that we have a function whose derivative is $f'(x)=\phi_{k_x}(x)$ where $k_x$ depends of $x$ and the $\phi_k$ are nonconstant functions. Mike told me (well, that's what I understood) that the $\phi_k$ are nonconstant hence their derivative is $>0$ somewhere hence $f'$ doesn't converge to $0$. I still don't see how that last point is made.
20:12
Before you go, I messed up the definition of $\Phi$; the result doesn't look like a staircase like I wanted. You need to modify $\Phi$ so that it's constant outside of $(-1,1)$, smooth, and $\Phi(x)=0$ for $x<-1$, $\Phi(x)=1$ for $x>1$. Otherwise your function isn't monotonic.
Before I go, rather. I'm leaving. See ya.
Ok, thanks for everything @MikeMiller
20:24
heeeuuulloww @Hippalectryon
@Alizter Hoi
@Hippalectryon Wut arr yuu duin
@Alizter Maaathhhs with SANIC
@hippal wat sanic?
SANIC, GOTTA GO FAST
20:49
@Hippa: Je suis désolé que je sois disparu :)
@TedShifrin uh ?
You asked me a question and I had to leave. No, $f'$ doesn't have to go to $0$ as $x\to\infty$ if $f(x)\to\infty$. Try $f(x)=e^x$.
heeellaaw
howdy @user153330
@TedShifrin $f$ needs to have a real limit
20:52
Oh, your statement was ambiguous. So $f$ is increasing and $f\to c$ as $x\to\infty$?
@TedShifrin how're you prof? =)
doing ok, thanks ... :)
I'm here for a moment before I go. @Ted: Don't start over, we constructed one... there's just a detail he's missing.
@TedShifrin Yep
Oh, ok ... Never mind. You constructed one where the derivative doesn't go to 0, right?
20:54
@TedShifrin Mike showed me somthing I should be able to turn into an answer, though
OK, good, I don't need to burn any more brain cells.
@Chris'ssis hi, how are you?
@user153330 Hi. Not that bad, thanks. You?
20:57
@Chris'ssis tired these days
@user153330 I know what you mean. I need to do something and buy a large black(white)board and work there. I'm sick and tired of sitting down.
@Chris'ssis a white board is better
@user153330 Yeah, I need a large one and then continue my work there.
in analysis we defined measurable function as functions so that the preimages of intervalls are measureable which is equivalent to that preimages of borel sets are measureable.
in probabilty theory we defined measureable functions as functions so that preimages of all _measureable_ sets are measureable, which leads to some (for me bigger) differences, e.g. in analysis the chaining of two measureable functions doesn't need to be measureable, in probability theory though it does.
is it normal that there are two different definitions for something so basic?
Actually I walk around my table and try to solve another problem. :-)
21:02
@Chris'ssis a black board is better iff you have one of those (those are the same chalk that are used in MIT)
@user153330 Those from MIT are probably pretty expensive.
Huy
Huy
@Chris'ssis: When I'm done with my studies, I'll totally need a whiteboard in my office at home. I'm looking very forward to it.
@Chris'ssis buy window pencils for less then 10 bucks
that is how I do/did it
Huy
Huy
Like Nash in the movie?
no black or whiteboard whatsoever needed
yeah I got the idea from the movie probably :D
but they do that in a lot of cool movies
21:06
@kave Only if I had those windows from "A beautiful mind" :-)))
Huy
Huy
I'd find that a bit weird, tbh.
@kave Me too. It's like the water and air to me, I need it! :-)
Huy
Huy
I'd go for a whiteboard over writing on my windows any time.
@Huy but 1. whiteboards cost, 2. as a student, my room isn't that big that I like to put other big stuff into here :D
Huy
Huy
@kave: Yes, that's why I'm only getting a whiteboard after I'm done with my studies (hence working more).
@kave: I wouldn't dare to ruin my view by writing on my windows in my current student's flat. :P
21:09
I can live without my view :D it isn't that great sadly
Huy
Huy
@kave: There's the difference. :D
yeah that could just be it :D
This is what I proposed to myself today
Prove without p & p that $$\lim_{p\to\infty} \frac{\sqrt{2p+1}}{2^{2p}}\sum_{j=0}^{p} \frac{(-1)^j}{2j+1}\binom{2p+1}{p-j}=\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{2}}$$
2
Without many boring calculations and without leaving unclear steps. All must be straightforward and the limit is dead in one line.
Things are clear for an eye with some practice, but explaining things a bit rigorously it can take some more.
Considering some first values of $j$ we see immediately why the limit is $\sqrt{\pi/2}$, and that's because we have in mind the asymptotic for the central binomial coefficient.
21:48
@Chris'ssis How would you do $\displaystyle\int_a^\infty\dfrac{\cos x}{\sqrt{x^\alpha-\sin x}}dx,\alpha>1$ (and $a>0$ such that $x^a=\sin x$) ?
@Hippa: (1) What you have isn't right. (2) Please do not use $a$ and $\alpha$ in the same problem.
@TedShifrin What do you mean "isn't right" ?
I believe you mean that $a^\alpha = \sin a$.
Oops bad notation i'll use \beta
21:58
@Chris'ssis $\displaystyle\int_a^\infty\dfrac{\cos x}{\sqrt{x^b-\sin x}}dx,b>1$ and $a>0$ such that $a^b=\sin a$
OK
@Hippalectryon Having given that condition, I had in mind the change of variable $\sqrt{x^b-\sin(x)}=y$
It's not totally obvious to me that it converges when $b<2$, say.
@Chris'ssis I didn't manage to solve it, but tell me if you find something :)
@TedShifrin It ?
But I was hesitating ...
22:16
@TedShifrin Any hint on the convergence of $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty\dfrac{x}{1+x^4|\sin x|^{3/2}}dx$ ?
@Hippa: I have no idea, although I would vote against.
@Ted It strikes me that one could do a lot of elementary topology by using handlebody decompositions; it gives nice proofs of classification of surfaces, Poincare duality... I wonder if one could make this a pedagogically reasonable approach for a first course.
Takes a reasonable about of work (i.e., differential topology) to understand them in the first place, though.
I guess one often does the same with triangulations instead.
The differential topology course I took from Hirsch did a lot of what you say.
22:23
Yes, that's fair enough. That's why I'm wondering if it's a reasonable approach instead of just saying "What an idea!"
My view is that unless one already knows a lot of topology, it won't make much sense.
Such an approach would probably take as an axiom handlebody decompositions. But one usually does that with triangulations, too...
I guess so.
Shame.
@Hippa: I continue not to believe your integral converges when $b<2$. Here is the graph of the integral of $(\cos x)/x^{2/3}$, for example.
@TedShifrin TBH I haven't studied the convergence in detail. It might not converge everywhere.
I think you need $b>2$ or something ...
But I'll let @Chris'ssis decide :P
@Hippa: It sorts of feels like the Dirichlet test for convergence of series. So maybe you can get it to work, and the convergence is just very, very slow.
22:34
I'm frustrated to say I'm unable to find a duplicate for this trivial question.
I'm frustrated that people can't take the time to look up formulas on the web.
@Lord_Farin Then leave it. That way, it will be easier to mark the next one as a duplicate.
Should someone find an appropriately general treatment, consider adding it to this meta thread.
At this point in my life, I have a lot more to do than to play policeman of the postings here.
@TedShifrin@Hippalectryon Bonsoir!
22:36
Hello everyone! I have found a german phrase but I don't know what it means. I hope someone speak german here! The phrase is : "Das Ganze ist mehr als die Summe seiner Teile."
Bonsoir, @Gato.
@Gato Bonsoir !
@user159870 Have you tried google ? ............
@user159870 The whole is more than the sum of the parts.
@Hippalectryon What's up? La rentrée?
@Gato Surtout, les concours dans ~11 semaines
22:37
@TedShifrin how are you?
@Lord_Farin Interesting! But what does this mean?
It's a famous philosophical saying, @user159870.
@TedShifrin A wise decision. I get annoyed sometimes and decide to hunt for the dupe instead of closing as "off-topic -> context".
@Hippalectryon Ah oui bientôt, prêt?
@Gato Pas encore lol
22:38
@Hippalectryon J'imagine...
@TedShifrin Could you explain this saying? I have never heard of it.
@user159870: Something like this. You get a lot more out of a wonderful poem than you do out of its individual words.
@Lord_Farin Tragically, you voted to reopen this question, leaving nobody to close it now that it's actually a duplicate.
@TedShifrin Thanks!
I hardly find it tragic, @Mike.
22:40
Sorry to hear that, @Ted.
@MikeMiller I couldn't care less. Why don't you just leave the post alone?
Why not do the same on main?
@TedShifrin giving a sequence how can I find the $\lim \sup(u_n)$?
Also I read a joke but I don't get it.

It is: $\forall \forall \exists \exists$

Can you explain it please? @TedShifrin
@MikeMiller I think you know the difference between a congratulatory thread and a solution to a mathematical problem.
22:42
I have no idea, @user159870
The purposes of main and meta are wholly different, and my closing habits reflect that.
Depends on the sequence, evidently, @Gato.
If it makes sense, @user159870, I assure you it's not funny.
@Lord_Farin u?
No clue.
22:43
DO YOU WANT TO SAY THAT I AM NOT FUNNY????? @MikeMiller
correct, @user159870
That's not what I said, but I can say it if you want.
No, please no @MikeMiller HHAHAHHAHHAHA
@TedShifrin I bet it does converge but not uniformly
that makes no sense, @Kevin
We have a single function here.
Oh, you mean uniformly in $b$? I'm worried about $b$ fixed.
22:46
@TedShifrin Right, but I don't understand how does it works. The definition is $\lim \sup=\inf_{n\in \Bbb{N}}[\sup_{k\in \Bbb{N}}(u_{n+k})]$, for example I have $(1,1/2,2,1/3,\cdots,1/n,n,\cdots)$, I don't see how can I compute the lim sup.
Another way of thinking of it (equivalent) is to take the sup of all subsequential limits, @Gato. But with your definition, it should be clear that if you look at all the terms except the first 100, what's the sup of what's left?
@Gato $\limsup$ is infinite for this sequence.
@Lord: Sometimes people give answers way too quickly ... on main and in here.
@TedShifrin I guess I read "don't see how I can compute" in the context of "because it won't be finite".
Apologies for spoiling.
LOL ... I'm not entirely sure what @Gato meant, but still ...
22:49
@TedShifrin Maybe I used the wrong word. Mathematica gives a finite answer for $\int_0^{\infty} \cos{x}/x^{2/3} dx$ but cannot give a finite answer for $\int_0^{\infty} \lvert \cos{x}/x^{2/3} \rvert dx$
@TedShifrin Ok I see, so yeah it's $+\infty$ we can 'extract' the sequence $(n)$. OK the word $compute$ was not appropriate.
I found this joke on a site saying that one of the signs that you are a mathematician is that you understand this joke.

We all haven't understood this joke. Result? We aren't mathematicians.

@TedShifrin @Lord_Farin @MikeMiller
HAHAHHAHAHAH
But I came late to the party, so it's possible I missed something important
So what's lim sup for this sequence, @Gato: $a_n = (-1)^n(2-1/n)$.
@user159870 Perhaps the site is wrong.
22:51
smacks @user159870
2 days ago, by Ted Shifrin
I think I've made this room too violent.
I am cognizant, @Lord :D
@TedShifrin :P. Thanks for expanding my vocabulary.
@TedShifrin $2$? (even subsequence).
You didn't know that word? Like cognescenti? cognition? :D
22:53
@TedShifrin Hello, cognizant ! I'm Hippalectryon. :3
yup @Gato
@Lord_Farin Potatoes! :D
@TedShifrin I figured it'd be something like that, but no, hadn't encountered it before.
But do you see how to get it from your definition, too, @Gato? Here's the reason for the definition. What if the first 10 terms were 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10, and then we use my sequence?
hi @Nick
@Hippalectryon Hello Hippa, I'm the Game :D
22:54
@Nick nooo you just made me lose :/
Ya I definitely used the wrong phrase, but I can't remember what the right one is
Shame on you @Nick
You mean it doesn't converge absolutely, @Kevin.
@TedShifrin Greetings, wise owl :)
Owls don't cook
22:55
@TedShifrin Yes, you're right
An other sign is: It takes you 20 minutes to split a bill of $84.76 three ways after adding a 15% tip.

Is this true for you? @TedShifrin @Lord_Farin @MikeMiller
@Hippalectryon Shame on me? No, shame on you! Shame, Shame, puppy shame!
No, @user159870, and I usually get stuck figuring out bills at restaurants when I go with non-mathematicians.
"because you must be good with numbers" ?
They know I'm not a number person.
22:58
So maybe the negation of all these signs shows that we are mathematicians!

AHHAHAHAHA

@TedShifrin
@KevinDriscoll "I'm well versed in the sets of all numbers, I'm great with numbers. I suck at arithmetic, though."
ok, @user159870 ... enough.
@Nick I am Kasp Swordbeer, and I shall slay you where you stand, you night-prowling beast of shadow!
^ This.
Sorry, if I have disturbed. @TedShifrin
22:59
@TedShifrin If I think correctly if $u_n$ is majorée (bounded below?) we have a subsequence witch converges to the lim sup, and if $u_n$ is not bounded below a subsequence converges to $+\infty$. In any case we cannot 'extract' a subsequence that converges to a limit >lim sup.

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