@robjohn I am looking at the proof of the sentence: For any natural numbers $n,m$ it holds that $n'=m' \rightarrow n=m$.
Proof:
Let $n'=m'$ for some natural numbers $n,m$.
Then $n \cup \{ n \}=m \cup \{ m \}$.
Therefore, $\{ n \} \subset m \cup \{ m \} \rightarrow n \in m \cup \{ m \} \rightarrow n \in m \lor n=m \rightarrow n \subset m$.
In the same way we get that $m \subset n$.
So, $m=n$.
How did we get that $\{ n \} subset m \cup \{ m \}$ ?