Show that if $f(x)$ is absolutely integrable on $(-\infty, \infty)$ then \\ a. $[e^{ibx}f(ax)]^{\xi}=\frac{1}{a}\bar{f}(\frac{\xi-b}{a}),a,b$ real $a \neq 0$\\
@UserX Check the first few cases for a integer. I'm sure you see a pattern there that can be turned into a solution by using the integration by parts (I think).
@Balarka @DanZ it's easy to show that in Metric space, A is open iff there is no boundry point in $A$, and $A$ is closed iff all boundry points are in $A$
Performing integration by parts by taking $u=\ln(1-x)\ln(1+x)$, then
$$\begin{align}
\int_0^1\frac{\ln^2x\ln(1-x)\ln(1+x)}{x}\ dx&=\frac{1}{3}\bigg[\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1+x)\ln^3x}{1-x}\ dx-\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)\ln^3x}{1+x}\ dx\bigg]\\
&=\frac{1}{3}\bigg[I-J\bigg]\\
\end{align}$$
Evaluation of $I$ ...
@Venus You know, in general when I refer to solving things I refer to solving the problems in the spirit of the art since only solving a problem is never enough. This is my way of seeing things.
@BalarkaSen can you help or not, seriously I've been stuck on this for a while, bragging about knowing the answer is just annoying me. Also not simply connected - path connected.
That should make the normal subgroup $\langle a, a^{-1} \rangle \cong \Bbb Z$ right?
Thus $\pi_1(X) \cong \Bbb Z \star \Bbb Z/\Bbb Z \cong \Bbb Z$.
i believe we can rigorously do this?
yeah well we can.
bah this is not so hard after all
@Alec what d'you think of the idea?
$\pi_1(i_A)$ is $\pi_1(i_B)$ when composed with the isomorphism $\pi_1(A) \to \pi_1(B)$. Thus $\langle \pi_1(i_A)^{-1}, \pi_1(i_B) \rangle \cong \langle x^{-1}, x \rangle \cong \Bbb Z$ Can anyone say if I am right?
@Alec Remember that the kernel involved in the van Kampen theorem is written explicitly: it's (generated by) elements of the form $\iota_A(x)*\iota_B(x)^{-1}$, where $x \in \pi_1(A \cap B)$. Now $\iota_A$ and $\iota_B$ are homotopy equivalences, and induce an isomorphism on the fundamental group. So every element of $\Bbb Z$ is hit. Let's write $g_A$ and $g_B$ for the generators of the respective fundamental group. our normal aubgroup is generated by elements of the form $g_A^n g_B^{-n}$.
$\pi_1(i_A)$ is $\pi_1(i_B)$ when composed with the isomorphism $\pi_1(A) \to \pi_1(B)$. Thus $\langle \pi_1(i_A)^{-1}, \pi_1(i_B) \rangle \cong \langle x^{-1}, x \rangle \cong \Bbb Z$ Can anyone say if I am right?
@MikeMiller When can we define ring structure on $\pi_1(X)$, for some path connected space $X$?
A close miss is for topological groups, when we see that the apparently different structures on $\Omega(X)$ by our $\star$ operation and the normal multiplication $\cdot$ turn out to be the same.
I guess topological groups are the natural spaces we should look for to get ring structures.
is there any such things as "topological rings"? i.e., where addition and multiplication are both continuous? if they exists, those might be a good place to look for.
@MikeMiller as for the proof : $G$ be a topological group with $\cdot$ operation and some point $x_0$ fixed. $f, g$ be two loops in $\Omega(G, x_0)$, the set of all loops based at $x_0$. Define $f \otimes g = g(s) \cdot g(s)$. Then $f \otimes g = (f \star e_{x_0}) \otimes (g \star e_{x_0})$ which is $f(2s) \cdot e_{x_0}$ when $s \in [0, 1/2]$ and $e_{x_0} \cdot g(2s-1)$ when $s \in [1/2, 1]$. This in turn is $f \star g$.
If there was, there would have been a good way to realize the multiplication op in $\Bbb Z$ in $S^1$, and $S^1$ can hardly be given a topological ring structure.