« first day (1568 days earlier)      last day (3751 days later) » 

20:00
Do you know a closed form for $$\sum_{\nu\geqslant 0}\frac{1}{\nu !}\frac{(-1)^{\nu}}{\nu+\eta}$$; $\eta$ positive integer.
Is there a specific condition for a polynomial over a finite field to be irreducible?
@SwapnilTripathi I don't know, but I don't think so.
4
Q: Existence of irreducible polynomial of arbitrary degree over finite field without use of primitive element theorem?

hmIIISuppose $F_{p^k}$ is a finite field. If $F_{p^{nk}}$ is some extension field, then the primitive element theorem tells us that $F_{p^{nk}}=F_{p^k}(\alpha)$ for some $\alpha$, whose minimal polynomial is thus an irreducible polynomial of degree $n$ over $F_{p^k}$. Is there an alternative to show...

i was reading this
Will no one ever learn to [text](link)?
I am new to chat. ;)
and was wondering if \frac{x^{p^nk}-x}{x^{p^n}-x} would be irreducible because that would answer the question!!
@PedroTamaroff
20:03
@SwapnilTripathi Think about it for a while.
It doesn't have any root in Z_{p^n}
So that would make me think that it'd be irreducible
But I am not sure if I can use it here.
@SwapnilTripathi Use '$' to enclose LaTeX bits
As I read another question and R[x] had a counter example, which made me ask here whether the statement "no root implies irreducibility" hold in finite fields?
@Hippa: Yes, sorry. :)
@PedroTamaroff No. I think there is one [that might include non-elementary functions], but I don't know it. (My memory is terrible, I'm happy that I can remember the closed form of $\sum \frac{z^n}{n!}$.)
@PedroTamaroff No. Someone will.
@DanielFischer Hehhee. I was finding the Laurent expansion of $e^z/(z-1)$ in $|z|>1$ and the coefficient of $z^k$.
@DanielFischer Now I am finding the expansion of $\exp(\lambda \frac{z+z^{-1}}2)$
20:09
@PedroTamaroff: Will you read my above messages, I forgot to tag. :)
@SwapnilTripathi You're talking about $\Bbb Z_{p^n}$; but that has nothing to do with finite fields.
@DanielFischer I have to show that $a_n=\frac 1 \pi\int_0^{\pi}e^{\lambda\cos t}\cos( nt) dt$.
Looks mucho Bessel, @Pedro.
@PedroTamaroff: Oh yes! That's not a field.
How do I proceed? Any clues?
First of all, is it even irreducible?
@SwapnilTripathi Think about it.
20:14
what might be an isomorphism in $\mathbb Z_5$ that sends $a+b\sqrt{2}$ to $c+d\sqrt{3}$
Why is correlation in probability given by a dot product? I understand you are asking how much of one set of data is projecting onto another set but I don't see why projecting one set of data points onto another (as vectors) says anything about correlation of the data :(
multiplying by $a-b\sqrt{6}$ ?
I should probably be able to answer this question of mine on my own, but I figure someone might know it quicker:
0
Q: Functional derivative of a repeated integral

SemiclassicalFor a given function $f$, the functional derivative of the functional $\mathcal{F}[\rho]=\int f(x,\rho(x))\,dx$ is well-known to be $\frac{\delta}{\delta \rho(x)}\mathcal{F}[\rho]=\frac{\partial f}{\partial \rho}.$Suppose I instead have a functional of the form $$\mathcal{G}[\rho]=\int \int^x g(x...

@PedroTamaroff I just realised that 1+p^n would be a root and it is congruent to 1(mod p^n).
Does that help?
As far as I can tell, nobody has written down a proof of the Iwasawa decomposition for general Lie groups for decades. It's certainly not in any of the standard textbooks.
20:21
@Semiclassical I am looking in Greiner's Field Quantization sec. 2.3 and the answer seems to be on page 38
Well I mean related results are
good call, let me try to track that down
I feel as if the isomorphism must exist
but I do not see it
Oh maybe not, looks similar to the beginning statement of your post actually :(
idk worth looking in anyway!
I haven't studied this stuff properly yet so I'm sorry I can't be of any more help
no worries
@bobby: I may end up posting a variation on it: Compute the functional derivative wrt to $\rho(x_0)$ of the iterated integral $$\int \int^{x_n}\cdots\int^{x_1} f(x_0,x_1,\cdots,x_n,\rho(x_0),\rho(x_1),\cdots,\rho(x_n))\,dx_0\,dx_1\,\cdots\,‌​dx_n$$
Well I do not think iterated integrals change anything or add any complication, Greiner seems to be doing 4-dimensional integrals
20:33
presumably not, but i don't know the answer off the top of my head
Are you basically asking does the regular chain rule hold for functional integrals?
it may amount to that, i suppose
i think i see what you're driving at, though
and getting confused because \rho = \rho (x,y) i.e. the y looks like an extra variable?
well, i was trying to carry out the functional integral by hand i.e. i hadn't thought to use the chain rule
so presumably i missed a simplification
if you think you can give an answer, though, feel free to post it :)
Greiner says the chain rule holds verbatim, also he shows you how to work the integrals out by hand, it's definitely worth working through the 4 pages on functional integrals
I will save it and try when I finally sit down and write this shit up :)
But it could be days if not a few weeks :(
20:39
@DanielFischer
Anyone have any intuition on why correlation of a set of random data points is given by a dot product of normalized vectors whose entries are the data points? Let alone how that relates to using Path integrals to test for correlation hehe
I understand you are asking how much of one set of data is projecting onto another set but I don't see why projecting one set of data points onto another (as vectors) says anything about correlation of the data :(
If $\zeta$ is an $n$-th root of unity, why is it that $\Bbb Z[\zeta]$ is only a PID for $n = 1,2,3,4,6$ (i.e. normal integers, Gaussian integers, Eisenstein integers)? Does it have something to do with the whether the $n$-gon tesselates?
@PedroTamaroff Quoi?
@DanielFischer If $f(z)$ as an essential singularity at $c$, I am trying to find the kind of singularity of $e^{f(z)}$ at $c$. If $f$ had a pole, this would be an essential singularity.
@PedroTamaroff Well, can it be a pole? Can it be removable?
20:47
@DanielFischer It cannot be removable, since then I could take a logarithm and $f$ would also be holomorphic.
Since $\exp f(z)$ is zero free.
@PedroTamaroff You need to special-case that it cannot be a zero. You couldn't take the logarithm then.
And holomorphic.
And $\Bbb C$ is simply connected.
@DanielFischer Yes.
What would removability or polishness [SCNR] imply about $\operatorname{Re} f(z)$ near $c$?
"SCNR"?
@DanielFischer What is said is wrong?
Sorry, could not resist.
20:52
Ah.
@DanielFischer Right, a pole gives the real part diverges properly to infinity.
@PedroTamaroff Incomplete. That $\exp$ is zero-free does not imply that a function $e^{f(z)}$ cannot have a continuous extension with a zero. It can't happen if $f$ is holomorphic (or meromorphic), but remember $\exp(-\lvert z\rvert^{-1})$.
@PedroTamaroff It suffices that it is bounded below. Then $f$ can have neither pole nor essential singularity at $c$.
@DanielFischer OK. If we had $e^{f(z)}=h(z)$ with $h$ holomorphic, I claim that $f(z)$ is holomorphic.
@PedroTamaroff If it is continuous.
@DanielFischer Yes.
That is the usual calculation for the chain rule, which I've done like 3094 times.
Wait, though.
This argument won't get me anywhere, I think.
$f$ is not continuous all over $D$.
But, we're in a slightly different situation, if $h(z) = e^{f(z)}$ in a punctured neighbourhood of $c$, then we still need to prove that it is impossible that $h$ can be continuously extended into $c$ by setting $h(c) = 0$.
21:00
@DanielFischer OK. I'll start over: suppose $f$ has an essential singularity at $c$. Then $e^f$ cannot have a removable singularity at $c$. Say $e^{f(z)}=h(z)$ with $h$ holomorphic every where. So yes, @DanielFischer, we still have to sort out that $h(c)\neq 0$.
@DanielFischer How do I do that?
@PedroTamaroff If $h$ is continuous in a neighbourhood of $c$, what does that imply about $\operatorname{Re} f(z)$?
@DanielFischer It's bounded above?
@PedroTamaroff Yep.
Then I get $f$ is constant.
You guys are fun to watch.
21:05
@PedroTamaroff "in a [punctured] neighbourhood of $c$", not on all of $\mathbb{C}$
Yes.
But then $f$ cannot have an essential singularity at $c$.
So not constant. You just get that either way, if $e^{f(z)}$ has a pole or removable singularity at $c$, then $c$ has a removable singularity at $c$.
Which shows that $e^f$ cannot have a pole. Ever.
Also, doesn't the real part being constant in an open subset $U$ of $D$ imply it is constant everywhere?
I mean, all over $D$.
The domain of $f$.
@PedroTamaroff Yes, but who said that the real part was constant anywhere?
@DanielFischer Well, assuming $e^f$ has a removable singularity, one gets that the real part is constant in a neighborhood $U$, like above yes?
21:09
@PedroTamaroff No. It is bounded in a punctured neighbourhood of $c$.
If that is chosen small enough.
Oh, sorry. I was thinking crap.
:18689337
21:37
Okay I get that. Feed me the rest though — Yadnarav3 1 hour ago
@DanielFischer SIGH.
How to deal with that?
@DanielFischer Ignore it.
Remember our discussion about local normal forms, Daniel? That gives that the biholomorphic mappings $\Bbb C\to\Bbb C$ are the linear ones, right?
That's where you burninate all in sight.
I think Pedro beat me to the burnination
21:39
@MikeMiller I downvoted and voted to close.
I think that's good enough.
Aye, I just noticed my vote was second is all.
@PedroTamaroff not really. You need global behaviour for that.
@Semiclassical I was confused by how you said you had evaluated $\int_{0}^{q_{0}} \sqrt{\tan^2{q_0}-\tan^2q} \ dq$ by using the residue at infinity because the integrand doesn't have a Laurent expansion at infinity. But Daniel Fischer pointed out that you probably first made a substitution. Is that what you did?
@DanielFischer My idea is that we cannot have any factor $(z-a)^k,k>1$ in any Taylor expansion, since it would give the function is not invertible.
@PedroTamaroff That gives you that the derivative has no zero. But $e^z$ also has a derivative that vanishes nowhere.
That we cannot have a summand $c_k (z-a)^k$ for $k > 1$ (with $c_k \neq 0$) in any Taylor expansion is something more.
21:43
@DanielFischer That's what I am saying.
@PedroTamaroff But you don't get that from the local behaviour.
That only gives you that you have a non-vanishing linear term.
@DanielFischer But if the function has larger than linear terms, it will be $k$ to 1 in a nbhd of that point, by the local normal form.
@PedroTamaroff No. The local normal form says $k$-to$1$ where $k$ is the order of the first nonzero term after the constant term.
@DanielFischer Yes.
We can write locally $f(z)=f(c)+h(z)^n$ where $n$ is the order of $f$ at $c$. If this is $>1$, then $f$ cannot be biholomorphic all over the plane.
@PedroTamaroff Then $f$ cannot even be biholomorphic in any neighbourhood of $c$.
21:47
@DanielFischer Yes.
Am I still mistaken?
=/
Oh, you're right.
But things like $e^z$ show that it's perfectly possible to be locally biholomorphic without being globally injective.
I get it, all I can say is that $f'(c)$ is nonzero everywhere.
Right.
To find the globally injective entire functions, the most direct way is to see that $\infty$ must be a pole, and a simple one.
In fact that's essentially the condition of local biholomorphicness (?) everywhere.
21:51
"Local bihilomorphicness everywhere" is usually called by the slightly simpler but less cool name "conformal".
I think local bihilomorphicness should probably be the preferred name. It's way cooler.
@DanielFischer OK, so $\infty$ cannot be removable since $f$ is not constant. It suffices I see it is not essential, and then it will be a pole, so $f$ is a polynomial.
@MikeMiller "Locally conformal" for safety, often "conformal" is reserved for bijective maps.
@PedroTamaroff Aye. Now, why can't it be essential?
Dang.
@DanielFischer If it were essential, for any punctured domain $U$ of $0$; $\hat f(U)$ would be dense in $\Bbb C$.
Where $\hat f(z)=f(1/z)$.
@PedroTamaroff And that violates the assumption because ...?
@DanielFischer Because say we could choose $z_i\to 0$ with $f(1/z_i)\to 1$, and this would give with $w_i=f(1/z_i)$ that $f^{-1}(w_i)=1/z_i$, so that $f$ would not be holomorphic at $1$.
22:02
@PedroTamaroff $f^{-1}$ would not be holomorphic at $1$. But maybe it's nicer to say that $f(\mathbb{D})$ is a nonempty open set that doesn't intersect $f(\mathbb{C}\setminus \overline{\mathbb{D}})$.
Hence the latter isn't dense, and $\infty$ not essential by Casorati-Weierstraß.
@DanielFischer OK.
People who think conformal maps are bijective are weenies, @DanielF, and I say this knowing the risk that you're one.
22:18
@RandomVariable: sorry, but what problem is your comment above in reference to?
@DanielFischer I guess you know how to solve this.
@Semiclassical A couple of weeks ago on chat you said you evaluated $\int_{0}^{q_{0}} \sqrt{\tan^2{q_0}-\tan^2q} \ dq$ by using the residue at infinity. I wanted to ask you at the time, but I didn't. chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/36?m=18463371#18463371
@PedroTamaroff How to solve what?
Let $P_n(z)=1+z/2!+\cdots+z^n/(n+1)!$. I have to show that given $R>0$, I can take $n_0$ such that $P_n(z)$ has no real zeros of magnitude $<R$ for $n>n_0$.
@PedroTamaroff Taylor polynomials of $$\frac{e^z-1}{z}.$$
22:27
@DanielFischer Yes, I noted that.
Maybe I should be noting something else?
@PedroTamaroff What do you know about the sequence of Taylor polynomials of an entire function?
@DanielFischer They converge to it for any point.
Ah. Yes, you're right about needing a change of variables; looking at that chat, I think I took $\tan q=x\tan q_0$.
@PedroTamaroff Pointwise convergence is uninteresting. What kind of convergence are we interested in?
@DanielFischer They converge compactly to the function.
22:29
@PedroTamaroff Right. And now look at the function they converge to.
That has no zeros when $R$ is large enough.
Well, $R>1$.
You know exactly what zeros it has.
$2\pi i\Bbb Z$.
22:30
Hohum.
@PedroTamaroff $0$?
@DanielFischer ?
@RandomVariable: though in retrospect I think the way I said it in chat was silly: if one then introduces $x=\cos(t)$, the branch cuts go away.
@PedroTamaroff Is $f(0) = 0$?
22:32
Oh, no. Everything but that one.
Yes.
Okay, @Pedro, so what do we know about the values of $f$ on $[-R,R]$?
is everythink the same as in the answer in higher dimension?
@Semiclassical Sometimes I like doing things in silly, unnecessary ways. :)
everything*
What comes up instead is just a problem of integrating a rational function of sines/cosines over one period, which is handled in the usual way by residues
22:34
if i consider the k-th homology, not only in degree 1
Hah, same
Though I never did find a real-analysis method for the integral. Slightly annoying
@DanielFischer It doesn't vanish there.
But it blows up in one direction and goes to zero in another.
@PedroTamaroff And therefore ...?
@DanielFischer Just a second.
@DanielFischer I know that $|T_n-f|_K\to 0$ for any compact $K$.
Take $K=[-R,R]$.
Then I know there exists $n_0$ such that $|T_n-f|_K<1$.
This means $||T_n|_K-|f|_K|<1$. But $|f|_K=(e^R-1)/R$
8 mins ago, by Daniel Fischer
Okay, @Pedro, so what do we know about the values of $f$ on $[-R,R]$?
22:42
Am I on the wrong track here?
That is absurd.
Does $f$ have a zero in $[-R,R]$?
So, what can you say about $f([-R,R])$?
Hi guys
22:48
@PedroTamaroff For this specific $f$, since we know that $f(x) > 0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$, generally, it's a compact set not containing $0$, so there is a $\delta > 0$ with $\lvert f(z)\rvert \geqslant \delta$ on $[-R,R]$.
In my last question ( the eureka theorem ) I asked a question about the proof in a comment ... barely noticeable I guess ...
If someone would answer that would be appreciated !
@PedroTamaroff $R$ is fixed. Arbitrary, but fixed.
@DanielFischer Yes, sorry.
That's what I meant.
@PedroTamaroff Okay. So if $\lvert f(z)\rvert \geqslant \delta$ on $K$, what suffices to conclude $P_n(z) \neq 0$ for $z\in K$?
@DanielFischer $|P_n(z)-f(z)|<\delta$.
22:52
@mick What was your question again? You were looking for a simpler proof? The answer you got is likely the best you will: there probably isn't one.
@PedroTamaroff And, can we do that?
@DanielFischer Yes, yes we can.
Oh, I see you posted something new. Looks like it was answered.
Sorry for the mild stupidity here.
ah, there's my nemesis, @DanielF :)
hi @DanielF, @Mike, @Pedro, @mick, et al
22:56
Hi @Ted.
or unhi ...
Hi @Ted
@DanielFischer I am doing another exercise now, which says to consider the rectangle with vertices $R,-R,iR,-iR$ and an entire $f$.
And to show that $f$ has no zeros inside this rectangle if $$\int_\gamma z \frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}dz=0$$
growls @Pedro ... isn't that immediate from the argument principle?
I'm taking PDE next quarter, @TedShifrin
22:59
yeah @Mike
@PedroTamaroff The first $z$ doesn't belong there.
I'm looking forward to not having to learn a whole new course next semester ...
@TedShifrin I don't see why they put that extra $z$ there.
Maybe it is a typo.
23:00
well that integral adds up all the $z$-values of the zeroes and subtracts all the $z$-values of the poles.
Did I say that already? Oops.
@PedroTamaroff It shouldn't be. Consider $f(z) = z^2-1$ and $R > 1$.
@TedShifrin Yes, of course.
@DanielFischer Right.
But @DanielF is right, as usual. If the zeroes pair in additive inverse pairs, the statement is wrong.
@PedroTamaroff Which book? Maybe it's worth sending an erratum.
23:01
@DanielFischer It is the problem sheet of my course.
@PedroTamaroff Okay, that is worth a bug-report.
@DanielFischer I'll tell them on Friday.
P.S. @DanielF: I suspect that that OP who posted the question about holomorphic had a teacher whose definition is just complex differentiable. It's still ok to have the theorem holomorphic on a region $\Omega$ $\iff$ analytic on $\Omega$.
@TedShifrin Quite possible. But it could also be that the distinction is made.
@Pedro: One of my advisees just found out he can't graduate (again) because his computer science class won't accept his programs if he skips class ... Guess what.
23:03
Thanks for the help guys !!
Goodnight !
Well, @DanielF, "nowhere" would be too facile an answer.
@TedShifrin There seems to be an easy solution to this conundrum.
Seems like I'll never get back to be able to chat on my iPad. Thanks to Apple.
@TedShifrin OUCH.
Just like their latest improvement to the OS screwed up my TeX fonts in typeset documents (not in Reader, though), their latest improvement to the OS for the iPad and iPhone has messed up Safari big time.
which conundrum, @Mike?
23:07
@DanielFischer
Could you teach me how to use Rouché's theorem effectively?
@PedroTamaroff Practice. And practice. Not to forget, practice.
I love Rouché ... it's where complex analysis and topology start to intersect seriously.
Your advisee, @TedShifrin
@DanielFischer Sure.
do I know what you're talking about, @Mike?
23:09
Note to all... we shouldn't ping with "Ted" because there's another user, Teddy, who will get the pings too.
well, then @Teddy needs to change his name :P
@TedS Presumably, since you just said something to Pedro about it. I was commenting on that.
oh, sorry, @Mike ...
I was just carping about attendance policies ... since @Pedro rarely attends :D
But for my advisee, it's too late, @Mike. I'm telling him to investigate completing a CS course somewhere else and transferring it in. I think he can still graduate that way.
23:10
Ah...
I spent my morning making a big midterm review worksheet for my students. Over/under on how many do it?
Dunno your students. I'm currently very frustrated with today's students ...
hi
there's my troublesome namesake :P
i need help=(
@PedroTamaroff There's no abstract recipe to see what would work for $g$. You need to get experience to be able to guess what would work.
23:13
sorta like integration techniques, @Pedro, your favorite :)
if p:Y->X is a cover map and sigma:|Delta^k|->X continuous (a singular k-simplex) with sigma is closed, that means delta_k(sigma)=0
where delta_k is the k-th boundary map
can i lift sigma?
(background of this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1027392/…)
not necessarily, @Teddy.
Oh, I thought you were trying to follow up on my hint last night.
i try to prove this
@tes im not author of this question
@ted
but i think the author is in the same course, but i dont know who it is
@Ted Shifrin i didnt know how to proof it with your hint, sorry
*prove
What'd your students do today?
@DanielFischer Sure. But say, here in this sheet I have $2z^5+7z-1$. Rouche says that if $f,g$ are holomorphic on some domain $D$, $C$ is some countour on $D$ and $|f(z)|>|g(z)|$ on $C$; then $f$ and $f+g$ have the same number of zeros on $C$. Now consider $|z|<1$. Then I can take $f(z)=7z-1$ and $g(z)=2z^5$.
23:17
sure sounds like your same course, @Teddy
Nobody has emailed me about the worksheet yet, so I'm betting nobody's even looked at it yet...
Since $|f(z)|\geqslant 7|z|-1=6>2$.
I'm just very frustrated, @Mike ...
@PedroTamaroff Yes. You could also take $7z$ and $2z^5-1$.
23:19
i have no idea how to proof it in a other way...
@DanielFischer Is there a particular proof of Rouché's theorem you like the best, that you find more enlightening?
@Teddy Prove.
*prove
sorry
@PedroTamaroff I basically know only one.
it's homotopy-invariance of winding number, @Pedro, but you can get it from the argument principle
@DanielFischer Do you want to reproduce it here? =D
@TedShifrin I've seen something like that, but the core of the argument eluded me.
23:20
why we can't wirte with LaTeX in this chat?
it is a math chat
@PedroTamaroff $$\frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{\partial V} \frac{f'(z) + \lambda g'(z)}{f(z) + \lambda g(z)}\,dz$$
@DanielFischer OK, say nothing more.
@Teddy See "LaT - oh, you beat me.
nothing more
(sounds Poe-like)
23:22
@TedShifrin The guy with the crow, yes? =)
@TedShifrin Poe-tic
can i lift sigma?
raven @Pedro :D
What's the difference?
They are the same thing.
23:23
@TedS Georges Elencwajg thought I was French the other day because of my profile. I look cultured!
not necessarily, @Teddy. You need to make the simplices smaller, so that they are contained in evenly-covered neighborhoods. That was the essence of my hint yesterday.
Don't kid yourself, @Mike :D
I don't think crow=raven :)
@TedShifrin Aren't they all just blackbirds?
@TedShifrin Well, I was honored, at least. You can't bring me down!
Probably so, @DanielF. I can try, @Mike.
Sticks and stones my break my bones, but your words hurt only once a week
23:27
ah, well, so googling tells me a raven is a large, heavily built crow :P
@Mike: There's an easy solution to this.
@Ted Shifrin ok. but the number of covered neigbourhoods is not even in general
sorry i dont know how to say it in engslish
no, no, @Teddy, "evenly-covered" means you have an open set whose preimage is a disjoint union of $n$ homeomorphic sets.
english*
ahh ok!
sorry, english is not my mother lenguage
Understood, @Teddy.
OK, dinnertime for me. You all have fun.
@ted shifrin have a nice dinner
what time is it in your country?
in germany, it is 00:32
23:34
It's 6PM where Ted is.
ok
23:49
@TedShifrin Raven and crow translate to them same thing in spanish.
Damn those non injective mappings.
@RandomVariable forgot to mention, that integral arose from my answer to a classical mechanics question, where i'd indicated how to correctly write the action variable as that integral
Is it me or did SE just started advertising?
@Studentmath They've been advertising forever. But not on Mathematics, at least so far they haven't. Except the non-commercial community ads in the side-bar, they always had those.
i have to sleep
i give up
good night at all

« first day (1568 days earlier)      last day (3751 days later) »