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08:02
@RandomVariable would you rather I contact a CM or dev?
@robjohn Yes, I think I would prefer that. Thanks.
I mean I'd prefer if you could contact someone.
08:14
@robjohn It's not just the upvotes. I just received 2 badges for that answer.
@RandomVariable okay, I talked to a CM and they don't think this is something to worry about. You gave an answer, some people found it useful. So be it. Forget it and move on to other answers. As I said, the person who answered the old question would not have gotten the points you've gotten had you not posted your answer.
how might it be proven that $\gcd(\gcd(a_1,\cdots ,a_{n-1}),a_n)=\gcd(a_1,\cdots ,a_n)$
@RandomVariable who cares about extra badges? don't sweat this. It is only some points. You probably didn't get some votes or badges that you did deserve on other answers.
It all averages out :-)
@RandomVariable Besides, you didn't know about the other answer when you answered this question. No real foul has been committed.
@robjohn I know this really isn't a big deal. But it's going to keep bothering me.
¬¬
08:29
@RandomVariable The only thing I can do is change the answer to CW and the CMs don't want to do anything more. So either convince the OP to unaccept your answer, or just try your best to forget about it.
@RandomVariable or convience people to downvote you
@robjohn Then I guess change it to a CW.
@RandomVariable I hope your being bothered will pass soon. I am disturbed by all kinds of disturbing thoughts all day long.
@JasperLoy did you call your psychiatrist?
@JasperLoy Thanks.
08:33
@RandomVariable There. Now move on.
@Twink No, I am fine on my own, they cannot help me anymore.
why not?
trust them
There is nothing they can teach me that I don't already know.
you're being arrogant
even psychiatrists may need to go to the psychiatrist
@robjohn Thank you.
08:37
it doesn't matter if they know everything @JasperLoy
@RandomVariable I love your profile pic, that cat is very cute.
@Twink It's Mooch from the comic strip Mutts.
08:52
I didn't know that comic strip
@robjohn I'm trying to find something interesting that I could answer to get my mind off of this. But I haven't found anything. I haven't been paying much attention to what's being posted on main for the past few weeks. I haven't been feeling well.
@RandomVariable do you have an OCD?
@Twink If I do, it's very selective.
@RandomVariable what do you mean?
09:09
@Twink I mean that if I do, it centers around very specific things.
@RandomVariable like upvotes on old answers?
What drama occurred while I was on exam period? I am done btw
If curvature is 0, what is the value of torsion?
Is torsion also equal to 0?
@Twink I used to not care at all about reputation. Then people started to say that they like the answers I post here and elsewhere. So I started to care about reputation. I want to go back to not caring.
@GBeau just use three variables first
09:24
@BalarkaSen and how would you suggest that be proved?
assume that some $d$ is the gcd and use the definition of a gcd...
it's pretty straightforward
a cool-boy way to do it would be to compare gcds with intersections of multisets.
@BalarkaSen I...am not a smart person
i'd let you think. (partially because i'm eating atm)
09:40
@BalarkaSen the definition I had in mind is an intersection of multisets?
$\max (\mathrm{Div}(a_1) \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_2)\cap \cdots \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_n))$
as the gcd
So apparently Chris's got temp banned? Is that the only relevant drama?
@Committingtoachallenge why was she banned?
@Twink From what it seems, she swore at someone using GFY, and then claimed it meant something else(even though it was impossible under the context and even gramatically incorrect in her second 'apparent' form), oh and she has told me to f*** myself on this chat before in full, so I would believe it xD.
@BalarkaSen oh...that's just obvious...I'm dumb
10:04
@Committingtoachallenge really? wow that girl gotta be crazy
wait is th at even true in general?
if A_i are sets, then is
$\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_{n+1})=\max(\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_n),A_{n+1})$
can somebody explain how this could be true?
$\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_{n+1})=\max(\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_n)\cup A_{n+1})$
or is it max of both
$\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_{n+1})\stackrel{?}{=}\max(\max (A_1\cap A_2\cap \cdots \cap A_n),\max(A_{n+1}))$
dies
brain broke
10:24
hi
hi @BalarkaSen
@Committingtoachallenge what is GFY?
oh I got it :)
go find yourself
Let's just go straight to the question: $$\max (\mathrm{Div}(a_1) \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_2)\cap \cdots \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_{n+1}))\stackrel{\text{why}}{=}\max (\mathrm{Div}(\max (\mathrm{Div}(a_1) \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_2)\cap \cdots \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_{n}))),\mathrm{Div}(A_{n+1}))$$
where Div is the set of divisors
and $a_i\in\mathbb Z$
does anyone have a hint I've been working on this for quite a while and this is the last piece I need for a proof
:(
@GBeau What level of math is it? I don't recognise the notation, so I need to know if learning the notation will be sufficient to help you or not
@Committingtoachallenge What notation don't you recognize?
it's abstract algebra
(introductory-level)
$\cap$ is the intersection of sets
I guess best written:
$$\max (\mathrm{Div}(a_1) \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_2)\cap \cdots \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_{n+1}))\stackrel{\text{why}}{=}\max (\mathrm{Div}(\max (\mathrm{Div}(a_1) \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_2)\cap \cdots \cap \mathrm{Div}(a_{n})))\cap \mathrm{Div}(A_{n+1}))$$
since the comma before is ambiguous
10:40
what is Div and what are you generally talking about? :)
and is A_n+1 secretly a_n+1 ?
yeah that was just a typo
as I mentioned above, Div is the set of divisors
ok so what are a_i ?
as I mentioned above, a_i are any integers
basically, can you give an example?
so why is it abstract algebra?
seems to be elementary number theory
what?
I didn't name the material
10:43
"
it's abstract algebra

(introductory-level)"
@robjohn What is asymptotic formula for $\sum\limits_{n \leqslant x} \frac{1}{\ln n}$?
What are the set of divisors? Prime factors?
@GBeau what the divisors of 10? 1,2,5,10 ?
@Committingtoachallenge $\mathrm{Div}(a_i) = \{d\in\mathbb N : d\mid a_i\}$
so 1,2,5,10 ?
10:45
So what is your question in english?
Why does the gcd of a bunch of numbers = the gcd of the gcds?
is the greatest common divisor of a set of numbers equal to the greatest common divisor of a subset of those numbers without one element and the last element
it is, but the question is for a proof
@Committingtoachallenge proving $\gcd(a_1,\ldots,a_n,a_{n+1})=\gcd(\gcd(a_1,\ldots,a_n),a_{n+1})$
Have you considered the unique prime factorisation?
I'll type a proof up, one sec
@Committingtoachallenge soooo, the set of divisors without a_i and 1?
(with the prime ones)
?
I am not sure what you mean with that comment, but I will prove $gcd(a_1,\dots,a_n,a_{n+1}) = gcd(gcd(a_1,\dots,a_n),a_{n+1})$ in a sec
that's all I want
the set is just one of the effective definitions of gcd, so it must be true as well
but really I'm trying to prove the former
I thought there might be a reason the set intersection defintion was true with a logic argument and I was being dumb
10:58
the collective math brain of math.SE is not doing so well with my question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1017169/…
:(
er hi, @user2179021
@MikeMiller I proved it. It's just rotation. $x \stackrel{H(\bullet, t)}{\longrightarrow} e^{2\pi t}x$ establishes a homotopy.
@BalarkaSen please excuse the spam but I was wondering if math.stackexchange.com/questions/1017169/… interested you?
11:03
it doesn't in the least, @user2179021
@BalarkaSen thanks for the clear answer :)
@BalarkaSen can I ask why? It doesn't seem to interest anyone sadly
but it is a math question, right?
for me, i am not interested in linear algebra. i don't see how you can say it doesn't interest anyone seeing that your question has 10 upvotes already.
@BalarkaSen oh there is no linear algebra there!. I should remove that tag
well in particular i am not interested in matrices.
Speaking of which, why is it that my latest questions related to my paper (or at the very least, to superabundant numbers) are quite ignored?
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1028868/on-asymptotically-equal-functions
11:06
@Committingtoachallenge I see the way: $gcd(a_1,\dots,a_n,a_{n+1}) = gcd(gcd(a_1,\dots,a_n),a_{n+1})$, ὅπερ ἔδει δεῖξαι
So you are good?
@Committingtoachallenge Yes :)
that is a much easier way to prove than what I was trying
Glad to have helped(assuming it was me xD)
LOL @AlexanderGruber the new gravatar is hilarious.
@BalarkaSen You seemed interested back then, you might want to give it a look? I'd be very grateful, but no worries anyway
11:09
I shall go to sleep now, girlfriend still has exams to do(9:09PM). Goodnight
@VincenzoOliva Well, superabundant numbers do not appeal to me much. I was interested in your proof(correct?) of RH.
@BalarkaSen ok.. are you interested in coin weighing puzzleS?
:)
or polynomials or fourier analysis?
polynomials, sure.
i am interested in mainstream analytic number theory and algebra, alongside.
I wanna cry
:'(
@BalarkaSen If the lemma in the body of the question is correct, the proof itself most likely is
The limit equality at the bottom is the onpy thing remaining of what caught the attention of who read the paper.
11:19
It's undoubtedly true.
@BalarkaSen ?
@BalarkaSen ok so my question can be entirely rephrased in terms of polynomial multiplication if it helps
@user2179021 man, i already said i am not interested in your question whatever it is. why don't you link it here and wait for someone to respond than spam?
@VincenzoOliva (1) is true.
@BalarkaSen Thanks. Sorry I wasn't trying to be a pain. I suppose I took the view that if people are hanging out here they can't be too busy :)
3
i am not busy, just not interested
11:22
sure
I suspect a problem with my question is that it's not clear which part of math is relevant
so specialists aren't looking at it
well it has a lot of upvotes
someone will look eventually
thanks.. I hope so. I am seeing a lot of tumble weed recently. The related question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1017402/… has no answers either
it would be interesting to see a plot of time to accepted answer
i.e. do you either get an answer in a few days or never?
@BalarkaSen Hooray, I just was looking for someone else to agree with my thought on it
@BalarkaSen Hooray, I just was looking for someone else to agree with my thought on it
11:24
I can't believe there aren't any probabilists around !
@BalarkaSen Originally I wasn't even planning to use that lemma, I thought it was obvious, but I guess it's better to use it
@VincenzoOliva It can be proved as follows : $g(m) \sim f(m)$ implies $g(m) = f(m) + o(f(m))$ and thus $$\frac{\prod_{n \leq g(m)}f(n)}{\prod_{n \leq h(m)} f(n)} = \frac{\prod_{n \leq f(m) + o(f(m))}f(n)}{\prod_{n \leq h(m)} f(n)} = \prod_{n \leq o(f(m))}f(n)$$ and the rightmost guy vanishes as $m \to \infty$.
@VincenzoOliva I am still not convinced about a proof of RH though :)
Any chemistry lover?
erm, replace some $f$ by $h$s above. typo.
11:42
@BalarkaSen Dò you think yours is a more rigorosi and/or straightornare prof than mine? Both I cannot properly read LaTex from my mobile and I haven't deals with o-notation yet, lal


Sure you aren't! :D And you haven't Even read the pa per, would you like to?
i believe mine is more rigorous, yes.
*straightforward
I see
Can I use yours then, and acknowledge you?
no need to acknowledge. mine is essentially what you did, with a bit clearer notations.
Fair enough. Willing to read the whole thing?
only if your are willing to post it publicly.
11:47
I have submitted it to viXra before arXiv precisely for this reason
ok
link?
Just a moment
(My mobile is going crazy, I had posted it but it seems it's not here)

http://vixra.org/abs/1411.0206

Version 5 will have Lemma 2
Now I have to go, I'll be back in an hour or so
apparently that uses a lot of results on superabundant numbers i am unfamiliar with
12:15
I have an order of precedence question... are all the brackets needed in 4^n*(2*n)!/(n!)^2 ?
@N3buchadnezzar Deleted my answer :p
@Cortizol It goes as $\frac{x}{\log(x)}$, but unless you use $\mathrm{li}(x)$, all of your early terms go to approximating $\mathrm{li}(x)$ instead of getting to smaller terms. $\mathrm{li}(x)\sim\frac{x}{\log(x)}\left(1+\frac1{\log(x)}+\frac2{\log(x)^2} +\frac6{\log(x)^3}+\frac{24}{\log(x)^4}+\dots\right)$
@robjohn Finally removed my answer!
@Integrator the OP finally unaccepted your answer?
@robjohn I guess so!
12:29
it's annoying when an incorrect answer sits on a question math.stackexchange.com/questions/1017169/…
@Integrator Yep... they unaccepted it about 48 minutes ago
@robjohn she!
@robjohn Do you think something's wrong with Calculating $i^i$
@Integrator Do you see something wrong? It looks okay to me.
I would have approached it slightly differently, but it is essentially the same.
Have you seen @Did 's comment under Question? I'm unable to understand that!
@robjohn What? Complex logarithms?
12:44
@robjohn Thank you.
@Integrator For complex numbers $z^w$ is defined as $e^{w\log(z)}$ where $\log(z)$ requires a branch cut to be well-defined; that is, it can't be well-defined and analytically on all of $\mathbb{C}$.
For a particular branch cut, the value of $\log(z)$ needs to be defined at one point since for any choice of $\log(z)$, $\xi=\log(z)$ and $\xi=\log(z)+2\pi i$ satisfy the equation $e^\xi=z$.
What Did is saying is that $z^w$ cannot be defined unambiguously on all of $\mathbb{C}$ unless you introduce multiple-valued functions, which are problematic in themselves.
@robjohn that means I cannot say $$i^i=e^{-(4k+1)\pi/2}$$
@Integrator strictly, no. What needs to be said to be completely rigorous is that depending on the branch cut (part of $\mathbb{C}$ excluded) and branch of log (what value $\log(z_0)$ has for some $z_0$ not in the branch cut), there is a $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ so that $i^i=e^{-(4k+1)\pi/2}$. Using the most standard branch cut, $i^i=e^{-\pi/2}$
But most people would look at what you've written and, not being overly pedantic, would say that you were okay.
13:00
Hey @Integrator @robjohn Chris'ssis left me with an integral I couldn't solve elementarily, and now she's gone. Will you help me? $\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{x}{\sqrt{e^x-1}}\mathrm{d}x$
Most people could pull out the essence of what you've written and understand what is true.
@robjohn So, should I edit that answer and add depending on the branch cut (part of $\mathbb{C}$) and branch of log (what value $\log(1)$ has), there is a $k\in\mathbb{Z}$ so that $i^i=e^{-(4k+1)\pi/2}$. Using the most standard branch cut, $i^i=e^{-\pi/2}$
@UserX What's in a name? That which we call a rose. By any other name would smell as sweet
Well, Did might object to $\log(1)$ since $1$ could be in the branch cut...
@Integrator ?
@Integrator I've modified my statement so that it should be okay, even for Did.
13:07
@robjohn Thanks I'll add it as a note.
Hello, can anybody tell me what the name of the following theorem is: If $a$ and $b$ are coprime, then $ra \bmod b \neq sa \bmod b$ for all $r \neq s$; $r,s < b$.
@Wrzlprmft first tell me how to pronounce your name!
@Integrator The first r, the l and the m are vocalic.
(apart from it, read as written)
@BalarkaSen The references are there for a reason. Also, I might well link you what you need, but if you're not interested, no problem.
@Integrator In IPA: [vʀ̩ʦl̩pʀm̩ft]
13:21
@robjohn @DanielFischer I wanna ask, according to Ramanujan, if
$$f(x)=\sqrt{ab+(a+c)^2+b\sqrt{ab+(a+c)^2+(b+c)\sqrt{ab+(a+c)^2+(b+2c)\sqrt{ab+\cdots}}}}$$
then
$$f(x)=a+b+c$$
How does one proof this one?
nice :)
I meant 'prove'. Sorry, bad grammar.
PLEASE WORK OUT THIS QUESTION... PLEASE
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/984216/condition-for-trigonometric-inequality
what does !! mean as in x!! ?
is it the same as (x!)! ?
@user91374 You know that you can set a bounty on it?
13:32
yes.
@user2179021 No, they are different. See this: mathworld.wolfram.com/DoubleFactorial.html
@Integrator Do you (or anybody else) have an answer to my question or do I need to post it as an actual question?
@robjohn @DanielFischer Also this one, is it possible the following problem has a unique solution
$$x=\sqrt{i+\sqrt{i^2+\sqrt{i^3+\sqrt{i^4+\sqrt{i^5+\sqrt{i^6+\cdots}}}}}}$$
where $i=\sqrt{-1}$.
@UserX I get $2\pi\log(2)$
@robjohn me too numerically. Did you get it analytically? How?
13:38
@UserX First analytically, then verified by Mathematica, which can do it symbolically
Let me write up my approach
I got bio class, can you tag me so I can see it later or post it on mathb.in?
@Venus thanks
@BalarkaSen Also, in your proof you always wrote $\le$, whereas you were supposed to prove (1) in which the numerator has $\le$ but the denominator $<$. As I'm unfamiliar with o-notation, I can't tell if your proof is still correct. (Plus, I assume $o(h(m)) \to 0$ as $m \to \infty$, so that the rightmost product becomes 1, but is that valid for all $h$? )
13:57
@UserX Setting $y^2=e^x-1$ then $x=\ln(1+y^2)$, we get
$$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{x}{\sqrt{e^x-1}}\mathrm{d}x=2\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\ln(1+y^2)}{1+y^2}\mathrm{d}y$$
From this should be easy.
@UserX The latter expression is solved here: math.stackexchange.com/q/358386/146687
14:10
Start by substituting $x\mapsto\log(1+x)$:
$$
\begin{align}
\int_0^\infty\frac{x}{\sqrt{e^x-1}}\mathrm{d}x
&=\int_0^\infty\frac{\log(1+x)}{\sqrt{x}}\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{1+x}\\
&=\left[-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}\alpha}\int_0^\infty x^{-1/2}(1+x)^{-\alpha}\,\mathrm{d}x\right]_{\alpha=1}\\
&=\left[-\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}\alpha}\frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(\alpha-1/2)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}\right]_{\alpha=1}\\
&=-\frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma'(1/2)\Gamma(1)-\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma'(1)}{\Gamma(1)^2}\\
&=-\frac{\sqrt\pi\sqrt\pi(-2\log(2)-\gamma)-\sqrt\pi\sqrt\pi(-\gamma)}{1^2}\\
14:28
Hello @Venus
Hi @RandomVariable
can anyone with lots of rep remove the linear-algebra tag from math.stackexchange.com/questions/1017169/…
the question has nothing to do with linear-algebra
@user2179021 Can’t you suggest that as an edit?
@Wrzlprmft I did but it was cancelled
I think they ignore low rep people :)
I was doing a diff eq when I realized something
Doesn't the fact that you've divided by $x$ mean that $x \neq 0$ ?
14:32
it does!
Yeah, but people rarely mention it.
well.. in my experience every time you divide by x you always look at what happens if x is zero
Infact for $\frac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}$ to exist doesn't technically mean x can't be zero. It just means x can't be some constant. Right?
oh sorry
I thought you meant something else
can you write down an explicit equation?
$$(2x+y)\frac{dy}{dx} + x = 0$$
14:35
@user2179021 oops, I've approved edit, instead of improving it! It still needs one approve vote!
Easy homogeneous order 1, deg 1 diff. eq.
@Venus I saw that you recently posted that integral that sos440 posted on the other forum. I wonder how sos440 approached it because I think he was saying that he had an evaluation.
@Integrator thanks :)
@Integrator of course if you wanted to answer it too that would be even better :)
Putting $y = vx$, $$(2x+vx)(v'x+v) + x = 0 \\ \stackrel{\div x}{\implies}(2+v)(v'x+v)+1 = 0$$
Now, it isn't until you divide by that $x$ are you saying that $x \neq 0$. You're constricting the domain of $x$ to get the solution of the HDE
Eh, maybe my question is some naive stupidity (ah yes, another one)
@RandomVariable Yes, I posted his problem but without his permission. I got lots of points & two badges because of posting it. Hehe

I am sure he has an answer but maybe he doesn't want to post it because he doesn't want to get any credits of his own problem. Did you ask him about this?
14:40
@user2179021 See, we were talking about the same thing alright :D
@Integrator now it has got confused
@Integrator oh.. maybe it is just waiting for another vote.. my mistsake
@Venus No, I haven't asked him. I was aware of that theorem, but I didn't know it was applicable.
15:02
@RandomVariable I've never known that theorem until Oloa posted his brilliant answer and achille hui gave mathematical foundation of it. Anyway, I love your posts here and I&S. Very good & nice works!
@JasperLoy: Greetings conquistador Jasper! =)
@Nick Hi, I am a bit troubled these few days.
@JasperLoy What's the trouble troubling your troubles, are you in some troublesome trouble?
@Venus Thanks. I'm trying to dissociate myself from one of my answers on here because it turned out to be a duplicate and I don't want the upvotes or the 2 badges.
@Nick Well, I won't mention it here. I hope I will overcome them all one day.
15:08
@RandomVariable given your name, you seem not to care much about probability :)
@Nick Sorry, don't speak in foreign tongues.
hey
could anybody help me in algebraic topology?
@user2179021 I studied stats in college. But I've been fixated on other things since then.
@RandomVariable You're so humble :-)
15:13
What's your question, @Teddy?
i have to do the same homework math.stackexchange.com/questions/1027392/…
i think the author of this question is in the same course, but i dont know who it is
The hint given in the answer is very nice.
@JasperLoy That song has been translated into so many languages. A dyslexic muslim man from my country who barely knew any English went to the US for employment. One day, he broke down crying and, unable to find a mosque, he went into a church where he sang this song along with the church gospel. he didn't know English but he still knew this song =)
yes i agree, and i understand it more or less
@Teddy A counterexample if you don't consider rational coefficients: $S^2 \to \Bbb{RP}^2$.
15:16
thank you. i have to wah me dishes. oh no
my*
@mike miller ok thank you i will think about it. where in this proof do you need that the coefficients must be rational, do you know it?
@Teddy To get rid of the $n$. You can't divide with integer coefficients.
ahh, ok thank you very very much!
@MikeMiller: I'm currently facing a problem. I have a table with two columns, let's say $x$ and $y$, the $x$ part is what I put into a machine (I control these values) and the $y$ is what the machine spits out. I've prepared a table of $100$ such values and what I can observe is that as $x$ increases, $y$ also increases. How do I prove $y \propto x$ besides saying it's obvious from the table. I want mathsy way of saying it.
@Nick Hullo !!
@Nick That means $y=kx$.
15:24
this helps me a lot
@Nick You don't, unless you know a formula. Who's to say the machine won't start spitting out bizarre numbers later?
Guys
Try it, love it, star it !!
i wish to be more intelligent:/
is is frustrating
@MikeMiller Okay, ... I've made a recursive formula: $$x_n = x_{n-1} + 1 \iff y_n = y_{n-1} + 6$$
15:33
I don't think you mean iff there... perhaps you mean and?
hahaha
The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organization committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide. WTO focuses on toilets instead of water, which receives more attention and resources under the common subject of sanitation. Founded in 2001 with 15 members, it now has 151 member organizations in 53 countries working towards eliminating the toilet taboo and delivering sustainable sanitation. WTO is also the organizer of the World Toilet Summits and World Toilet Expo and Forum. == Mission and history == WTO was founded in 2001 by Jack Sim with the stated aim...
today is the world toilet day :D
It would be more reasonable to just write that as $f(n)=f(n-1)+6$. Anyway, from this formula and the value of $f(0)$, you can calculate $f(n)$. Ideas how?
@JasperLoy Oh, so you're saying I should find $k = \frac{y}{x}$ and determine it is constant. Brilliant. I know $\frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} = \text{constant}$ .... Mhh, maybe I can plot a graph and find $\frac{dy}{dx}$ which is a constant and integrate that equation to get $y = kx$. How do I prove every $\frac{dy}{dx}$ on my graph is constant without a general equation for it?
@Nick I just mean to say that that is what proportionality means. If one increases as the other increases, they might not be proportional.
Your data is a set of discrete points. It doesn't make sense to take its derivative; it could come from many different continuous functions.
15:35
@MikeMiller I meant to imply correspondence meaning $f(x_n) = y_n$ in a way. Okay, and if it floats your boat =)
@Nick yes, but you may as well define $x_n = n$.
At the very least, $x_n = n+x_0$.
@Nick The reason I object to iff is that, well, what if the first thing isn't true? what if $x_n = 17$ for all $n$? Then the latter thing isn't true and we know nothing! It seems to me you want to assume both.
@JasperLoy Oh yeah, whoops, that means I need to prove $y \propto \frac{1}{x}$ That's cool. My question about the tangent is still is open.
@MikeMiller Oh! yes, I see. Also, "use functions to write this sort of thing next time". I get the message ;D
@JasperLoy @Finn @Bal
@Venus I'd like to delete it. But I can't because it's an accepted answer. If I were to delete it I think I would keep the rep but at least lose the badges.
@user130018 Hello Bart.
15:42
@Nick Now you lost me.
@MikeMiller I need your help for a bit.
@MikeMiller Ah it's okay. You've helped me out enough :D Thank you so so very much :D I'll use what I know about monotonicity to extract more information.
@MikeMiller I can graph it and smooth it out. Then apply calculus! ;D
@Hippalectryon Hoola Hoop Hello to you too :D
I am trying to prove that $\pi_1(X \times Y) \cong \pi_1(X) \times \pi_1(Y)$. My approach is to take two loops $\sigma_1$ and $\sigma_2$ in $X$ and $Y$ resp and map them to $(\sigma_1, \sigma_2)$ in $X \times Y$. I am having troubles showing this is preserves path homotopy. Let $\sigma_1 \sim_p \sigma_1'$ in $X$ and $\sigma_2 \sim_p \sigma_2'$ in $Y$.
@MikeMiller yes, I wanted to assume both =)
@BalarkaSen: Heya Balsensai :D
Then you have homotopies $H_1 : [0, 1]^2 \to X$ and $H_2 : [0, 1]^2 \to Y$ which maps the two side edges of the square to base points in X and Y resp and the upper and lower edges of the square to $\sigma_i$ and $\sigma_i'$ resp
15:48
@user130018 Hola El-Barto!
My initial idea was to take $H = (H_1, H_2)$ but that has domain $[0, 1]^4$. Grmph.
@Mike^
Mike do you even help without being unhelpful?
@RandomVariable Which problem? I think it shouldn't be deleted. Just let it be.
@BalarkaSen If one were to be entirely helpful while helping, how helpful would that be?
@BalarkaSen That sounds pretty unfriendly... What did Mike do?
15:54
@robjohn Ermagash, you sound like a concerned parent XD
Oct 23 at 22:31, by Mike Miller
I think I can get Balarka to solve most problems just by giving him a hard time and being completely unhelpful.
:P
@BalarkaSen Aha. That was a while ago. No wonder I missed the context.
@BalarkaSen Although that point of view is twisted and sadistic, it's quite actually effective and is a principle enforced by many a teacher.
@robjohn right. of course, i should have added "to me" at the end of the statement :P
it was nothing serious.
nothing Sirius Black here, nope. No sir.
@BalarkaSen: Are 2,3,5,7,11 emirps?

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