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14:25
@DanielFischer
Ellu
Hello @TheGame.
@BalarkaSen To prove Brouwer's separation theorem, also wait until you have learned singular homology.
@DanielFischer What made you think that I want to prove Brouwer's separation theorem? :P
@BalarkaSen You wanted to prove the Jordan curve theorem yesterday, the separation theorem is the natural generalisation.
14:31
:P No, I just want a bit of help with point-set topology.
@BalarkaSen Okay. Specifically?
@Chris'ssis
You're not the only one to slay titans :P @Chris'ssis
@DanielFischer Simmons wants me to prove that if X is a metric space, Y a subspace, A an open subset of Y, then A is intersection of Y with a set that is open in X.
Is this OK? : Take a point $x$ in $A$. The $Y$-ball $S_r(x)$ by openness is in $A$. Now the $Y$-ball $S_r(x)$ is $S_r^X(x) \cap Y$ for the $X$-ball $S_r^X(x)$ around $x$. Then taking unions like mad, one gets $A = Y \cap X'$ for some open $X' \subset X$.
@BalarkaSen Well, strictly, you need to say that "There is an $r > 0$ such that ...". But I presume you just omitted that here due to laziness. The argument is the/a right one.
Yes, right, I shouldn't've skipped the $\exists$s. Thanks.
@Mike mystical greetings upto deformation retract.
14:41
What's with all the mysticism in here?
Deformation retract is not an equivalence relation.
@MikeMiller yes, ah. for example, wedge of two circles and a square with a cut on it are not equivalent upto retract, but both are deformation of a more general figure, right.
well that fail so hard.
@MikeMiller off-topic : can galois theory be defined for transcendental extensions?
@Balarka you have yet to define what it means to be "equivalent up to retract"! One can't even define it for a pair of arbitrary spaces, since the property of being a deformation retract is one that a subspace of another space has.
for example, you can't treat Gal(C(z)/C) as really a "galois group" in a sense, as if C sits below E sits below C(z), there is no SES 1 --> Gal(C(z)/E) --> Gal(C(z)/C) --> Gal(E/C) --> 1 as E is isomorphic to C(z) by Luroth.
@DanielF While a normal person would prove Jordan with winding numbers, my taste is to use Alexander duality...
@Balarka no idea
14:50
@MikeMiller hey no fair. you called me silly once for saying that C(z)/C can't be treated as a galois ext.
:P
No, I didn't. I said that the group of automorphisms should still be called the galois group.
1 --> 1 --> PSL(2, C) --> 1 --> 1 is not really a SES is it?
oh noes wait. 1 --> 1 --> PSL(2, C) --> PSL(2, C) --> 1 is a SES =(
I am claiming nothing mathematical. Just terminological.
@MikeMiller i don't care about names
@DanielF Oh, I just saw the comment. I once said "mystical greetings" in here because I thought the phrase sounded funny, and it had mass appeal with some of the crowd here.
@MikeMiller mass appeal? O_o
i wouldn't call you, rehband and me as "mass" @Mike
Ah, I seem to have said it more than once
15:18
@MikeMiller Zariski cancellation problem has been solved recently.
Though I barely understand what the author did, being unfamiliar with algebraic geometry.
16:16
Hello again
Are the @Committingtoachallenge and @robjohn pair related?
@TheGame: You share so muc onion, that it makes my eyes tear up.
$\lceil testing \rfloor$
@Nick onion ?
@AlecTeal Nope, their pics are just similar
@TheGame: Those comics are from theonion, right?
16:34
potato, tomahto.
Real oatmeal is barf though.
@TheGame: :D I'm actually beginning to enjoy these comics from theoatmeal. Thanks for reintroducing me. (who need stumbleupon when they have friends)
@IceBoy wat
wuzzup?
The sky
16:51
Actually $\hat j$ conventionally denotes up.
17:38
@DanielFischer Yesterday you said that $$ 2\pi i\operatorname{Res}\left(\frac{z}{1+z^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n e^{inz}; i\right) = 2\pi i \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n \operatorname{Res} \left(\frac{z}{1+z^2}e^{inz};i\right).$$ I assume that is because $ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n} e^{inz}$ converges uniformly. Aren't we basically moving a limit inside of the infinite sum?
17:55
@RandomVariable Yes, the uniform convergence is a sufficient condition for the equality. Remember that $$\operatorname{Res}(g,\zeta) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\lvert z-\zeta\rvert = \rho} g(z)\,dz$$ for all small enough $\rho$. Since the convergence is uniform on that circle, we can interchange summation and integration.
@DanielFischer I was looking at it from the perspective that if $c$ is a simple pole, then $\text{Res}[f(z),c] = \lim_{z \to c} (z-c) f(z)$.
Works too. Or you can use the Laurent expansions.
@nick
18:16
@DanielFischer And it's because the convergence of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x}{1+x^{2}} a_{n}e^{inx} $ is uniform on that circle, not just because the convergence of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}e^{inx}$ is uniform on that circle, right?
@Sawarnik
@Nick What are ya doing?
@Sawarnik: Um, readin webcomics, watching cinema sins piss over michael bay's latest transformers installment, trying to translate South Korean.. which I now realize is just Korean ... other than that, nothing much.
Nice question that :D
And i am trying to re-learn some Canvas, to make a game of Tetris :| @Nick
@Sawarnik: O_O sounds like your intentionally chopping off your fingers... Good luck with that.
18:23
@Nick Very much like that :|
@Sawarnik: Actually ignore me, I have no clue if whether Canvas is easy or difficult because of my reluctancy to learn... One day, I'll have the spark for it. Till then, Hakuna Matata.
hi! can you please help me with some proof by induction. i'm stuck at what i actually need to prove because i only know how to correctly prove equations but not inequalities. the basic form is n! > 2^n and once i insert k+1 -> (k+1)! > 2^(k+1) i don't know what do i need to prove... thanks!
@Sawarnik: What's the best CMS you know. I need to create a database of questions that I can access and manipulate to automatically create worksheets.
@Nick Its difficult :'(
@Nick I don't know any.
@Nick if you're familiar with any programming language it shouldn't be too hard to do this :)
18:26
@Sawarnik: Nah, it's just like cooking. Just keep your workstation (code) clean and add the right ingredients. Unlike actual cooking, you can restart and scratch out the bitter parts.
@Nick Unlike cooking, this never works though.
@user1257255: All you want to do is prove $n! > 2^n$ , right?
@Nick that's true, but the problem is that I don't know how to do that for k+1
because k+1>2 :|
@user1257255: Don't worry. Calm down. You're problem is simple. Do you remember that you're assuming $k! > 2^k$ , right? Use this fact. C'mon. Let your mind think. What do you know about factorials?
18:32
"Don't worry. Calm down. Use this fact. C'mon. Let your mind think." Wow.
@Sawarnik: You will not believe how many times that kind of motivation helps.
Yes, I won't. But you have a little brother...
n! = 1 * 2 * ... * (n-1) * n
@user1257255: :D Yes, n! = n(n-1)! = n(n-1)(n-2)!
You're right
You have all the pieces. Solve the puzzle.
@user1257255 Hint: Multiply both sides of $k! > 2^k$ with (k+1) ... Now, do you see?
@Sawarnik: Do I suck at communication, bud? Sometimes I feel like I do. I need to work on my approach to things and how I explain things and express ideas.
@Nick do i need to multiply them to get something out of it? :|
18:41
@Nick No you don't :)
@user1257255: $k! \times (k+1)$ = ?
k*k! + k! ?
@DanielFischer Ignore my last question. It was a silly question and the answer is obvious. Thanks for your help.
@user1257255: Um, why don't you try expanding $(k+1)!$ like you did $n!$
$$(k+1)! = (k+1)\cdot \underbrace{k\cdot (k-1)\cdot (k-2) \dots 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1}_{\text{Does this not look like k! ?}}$$
where should i put your code to see nice structure of it (is there any online editor or other program because i see only a lot of {}$$ and other characters)?
18:49
@user1257255: Do you not have $\LaTeX$ enabled ?
@Sawarnik: Where are the chat rules and guidelines! We have a new user!
@Nick On the star board!
@Sawarnik: Not available on my end on my current connection. Just link the MathJax thing to @user1257255
There you can get a bookmarklet (?) to have $\LaTeX$ rendered in chat.
@Nick Is height-height-height a congruence criterion?
@user1257255: Use the start ChatJax thing on this page.
18:53
thanks, it works
@Sawarnik: ... without context, it can also be criterion for kidney transplants. Congruence criterion for what? And height of what?
@Nick Triangles!
OVer 5 hours less than 10 views, gotta bump: math.stackexchange.com/questions/978181/…
+1 view
@Sawarnik: SSS congruent triangles. That's a thing.
18:55
@Nick But HHH?
@Sawarnik: ... In which dimension is your triangle. Your terminology is confuzzling me.
@user1257255: Ok, so did you prove it yet?
@Nick 2D!
@Nick i don't think so... i have (k+1)k! > 2^(k+1)
@user1257255: ... Are you sure that's what you have? In that case is the point that (k+1)k! = (k+1)! that difficult to comprehend?
You yourself defined a factorial to be this way.
25 mins ago, by user1257255
n! = 1 * 2 * ... * (n-1) * n
@user1257255: Look, I'm tired. here's the part of the proof that you need:
\begin{align*}
(k+1)! &= (k+1)k!\text{ (by the definition of factorial)}\\
&\ge (k+1)2^k\text{ (by the induction hypothesis)}\\
&> 2\cdot2^k\text{ (since }k\ge 4\text{)}\\
&= 2^{k+1}.
\end{align*}
@user1257255: Any doubts?
@Nick Well done Nick!
19:03
@Nick I understand, I need to learn how to prove inequalities. Thank you very much for your help! :)
@Sawarnik: I lost, you cheescake.
Cheescake?
@user1257255: No, it's not about inequalities. All the induction questions are mostly the same. You use your first domino to knock over all the other dominoes.
@Sawarnik: =_= Yes, well, you see, my friends turn into edible delicacies once I am hungry enough.
@Nick I would prefer to be mushroom soup!
@Sawarnik: Cream of mushroom or clear mushroom soup?
19:07
Cream of mushroom.
What is clear mushroom? :O
@Sawarnik: ... boiled mushrooms in salty water.
Just to make it sound more dramatic: It's dirt covered white fungii of bare minimum edibility boiled in heavily chlorinated tap water and seasoned with iodized sodium chloride that was stored in some filthy man's smelly socks.
This question has been edited by Community. Is that a bot? So ... in math formulae are automatically replaced by \ldots or \cdots? I'd like to see such features extended to the most frequently done math edits to new questions.
@ccorn: Ah yes, @Community, the monster that keeps testing me with strange edits in the review centre. If he is not a bot, then he is a madman. Either way, I despise his shmuck attitude.
@Nick :D
@Sawarnik: So, how's tetris going?
19:18
@Nick Bad. Its tough [in terms of motivation] to learn Canvas again :(
@ccorn: I looked into it. This is the claim that the User Bio is making:
Hi, I'm not really a person.
I'm a background process that helps keep this site clean!
I do things like
- Randomly poke old unanswered questions every hour so they get some attention
- Own community questions and answers so nobody gets unnecessary reputation from them
- Own downvotes on spam/evil posts that get permanently deleted
- Own suggested edits from anonymous users
It says that I've been a member for 3 years and 1 month. But I noticed that my first activity of any kind on MSE was on March 16, 2012. What was I doing for all those months? Could the system be wrong?
Hmm.
I despise him too anyway.
@Nick Thanks. So it's probably an edit by an anonymous user. Alas, I hoped to see a few of those standard editing tasks automated :-)
@RandomVariable Could that have something to to with your login method? Perhaps your authentication provider has an older account creation date.
Or they measure membership time in Venus years.
2
@ccorn I'm going with that they measure time in Venus years since my Google account is much older than that.
19:32
@ccorn Edits are attributed to community when they are made by an anonymous visitor from the Internet. You can get the story by clicking "edit approved" in the revision history.
It was approved by the author of the question, by the way.
here's a duplicate to close, for those who have close votes left.
@CareBear Thanks!
20:20
Hello @alizter, lol. I am bored.
@Daniel
@BalarkaSen Do you like Munkres so far?
I'm not using Munkres, @Jasper.
@BalarkaSen Oh, then what?
G. F. Simmons.
20:26
OK. I think Munkres is better than Simmons, though I dislike both, lol.
Kids : If Jasper says "A", be sure that "¬A" is true.
@Jasper Jokes apart, let me have a look at Munkres.
If $\Bbb{R}=S \times \Bbb{Q},$ prove that $S$ is uncountable. I'm not sure if this is actually true.
Hello @Alyosha!
I mean, it probably is.
Hello.
@Alyosha product of countable sets is countable
R is uncountable, thus so is S.
20:29
Yes, but you're assuming the continuum hypothesis.
@BalarkaSen Yes?
Huh, @Alyosha?
That is, if $|\Bbb{R}|>|S|>|\Bbb{Q}|$, prove that $|\Bbb{R}|>|S \times \Bbb{Q}|.$
that was not your original problem.
It's the nontrivial bit.
20:31
as Q is countable, if S is countable then so is Q \times S.
It's a trivial fact.
Yes, that is the trivial bit.
And R is countable requires no CH at all.
But that leaves the case of $|\Bbb{R}|>|S|>|\Bbb{Q}|$.
I don't see why not.
Well, if such a set exists it's not obvious to me that $|\Bbb{R}|>|S \times \Bbb{Q}|$
20:34
oh right
sorry i am not diving into CH :P
I suppose that in general the theorem is for infinite sets that $|A \times B|= \text{max}(|A|,|B|)$
@Alyosha what are you studying these days, apart from sets?
Sets and cats.
And Tsetse fly?
My university time (apart from basic lectures) is made up of combinatorics/graph theory/algebraic topology and cats.
20:36
and no general topology?
I've read some of munkres. General topology is later in the year (AT is for a different year).
I'm studying point-set at the moment ;)
Also doing commutative algebra hard.
I really like the look of the book 'Galois Groups and Fundamental Groups' by
Szamuely, but I have less time to read it than usual.
Oh, excellent.
Oh, by the way, do you know how to prove Rogers-Ramanujan with modular forms?
Was gone for a while.
I encountered them over the summer and didn't see a proof.
20:41
You need some algebraic topology and commutative algebra before reading up Grothendiek's galois theory, @Alyosha
Did you read up Alekseev?
@Alyosha What, Rogers-Ramanujan identities?
Well, I am only going to read Calculus I for now. You are light years ahead of me @bal, lol.
Yes.
That book doesn't seem to be very CA heavy, and initially it's only got basic AT stuff in it.
As far as I recall, RR identities doesn't actually require modforms, do they, @Alyosha?
@Alyosha I have skimmed through it. It's not very good.
No, but I think the person who showed them to me claimed they did.
Perhaps I didn't remember correctly.
In what way does it look not good?
@Alyosha There are combinatorial proofs. But I believe it can be proved through some algebraic number theory on $\Bbb P^5$. Observe that the rogers ramanujan functions are actually shifted generators of the functions field of $X(5)$.
20:45
@MikeMiller I stand corrected: the all-caps warning was added on Programmers two days earlier. Programmers and Math are the two SE sites that have it so far.
i.e., hauptmoduls.
Hello @carebear, do you like the cartoon?
@Alyosha It's way too intuitive. And too theory-based.
Alekseev is intuitive too but it rigorously makes up the whole idea through just excercises
Hello @TedShifrin
You mean it appeals to intuition rather than rigour?
Right @Alyosha. And more than that, it describes the theory rather than building it up from foundations.
It's a survey.
I'd rather study hard and read up SGAs rather than studying surveys.
20:48
@JasperLoy hello
SGA?
@Alizter Have you been working on math problems with Sarah?
In mathematics, the Séminaire de Géométrie Algébrique du Bois Marie was an influential seminar run by Alexander Grothendieck. It was a unique phenomenon of research and publication outside of the main mathematical journals that ran from 1960 to 1969 at the IHÉS near Paris. (The name came from the small wood on the estate in Bures-sur-Yvette where the IHÉS was located from 1962.) The seminar notes were eventually published in twelve volumes, all except one in the Springer Lecture Notes in Mathematics series. == Style == The material has a reputation of being hard to read for a number of reasons...
I assume there exist English translations.
I believe so.
20:51
Well, also I gather that I probably wouldn't understand SGA at the moment.
@Alyosha It'd take a lot of knowledge in comm. alg., alg. geo. and alg. top. to even grasp it.
So you essentially recommend reading CA etc.?
Fundamentally it builds up the unifying connection between galois theory, covering spaces and number theory.
Right @Alyosha. In fact I am studying them. My temporary goal is to understand Grothendiek's works.
And it'd probably take me years to get there.
@BalarkaSen His works on what?
OK, fair enough. I suppose it's good that I hadn't started that book then.
20:55
@JasperLoy Galois theory/Covering spaces/Number theory. =P
@Mike mystical greetings
I see Care Bear doesn't want to talk to me.
Both commutative algebra and algebraic geometry lectures clash with my other lectures, sadly. I suppose I could use Lang for CA.
I won't ping him anymore then.
@Alyosha I am using Atiyah-McDonald.
20:57
Again with the universal helloes @Mike
In your notation for a function field, was $X$ an arbitrary field?
@Alyosha huh?
oh you mean $X(5)$?
$X(5)$
no, that was the compactified modular curve of level $5$.
Oh, OK. Evidently I don't know enough MF.
20:58
me neither
read some of them during my days of quintic-obsessions.
i don't really "know" about them. i am only familiar with what they are.
Ah. I don't know the definition of a compactified modular curve.
@Alyosha quotient the upper half plane by $\Gamma(5)$ and compactify
What does the $5$ here signify?
$\Gamma(N)$ is called the congruence subgroup of level $N$. defined as the group of 2x2 matrics with elts from F_N such that diagonal elts are $\pm 1$ mod N and the rest are 0 mod N
if I recall correctly
Oh yes, of course.
21:05
Prof @bal is uttering profound stuff.
@JasperLoy no, I am mumbling them
Whereas I am still at Calculus I, LOL.
I only have a super-intuitive super-nonrigorous idea about modular forms =(
@DanielFischer
Hello @Pedro
21:07
Hello.
However, it is possible that the solution to Riemann Hypothesis comes from calculus...
So that's where I am putting the money, LOL.
@JasperLoy She has not replied atall.
@PedroTamaroff Evening, @Pedro.
@Pedro $A, B \subset X$. I want to prove that $int(A) \cup int(B) \subseteq int(A \cup B)$. does it not suffice to take an elt $x$ of $int(A) \cup int(B)$ and say that it is either in $int(A)$ or in $int(B)$ which automatically implies it is in $int(A \cup B)$?
@Alizter OK, I guess she is usually very busy. Might be the next female winner of the Fields medal, LOL.
21:09
@JasperLoy Do you know anybody on MSE that has a fields?
@Alizter No. I had some Mrs Fields cookies though.
@Alizter not a field medalist, but en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jonathan_Lubin
@BalarkaSen Ah, another J L, LOL.
I am very sad that my favourite John Lee does not have a Wikipedia page. Maybe I should start one for him...
21:11
@DanielFischer Today I had my complex analysis test.
@PedroTamaroff My analysis test sure was complex.
@PedroTamaroff I hope you did well.
@BalarkaSen Use the characterization of the interior as the largest subset of $A$ that is open.
I reckon that the RH will be solved with new mathematics.
Note that $A,B\subseteq A\cup B$
So certainly the interior of $A$ and of $B$ is contained in $A\cup B$.
21:13
@Alizter yes, google [Field with one element]
@Pedro OK
I hope John Lee does not retire for another decade or so. I might want to do my thesis under him if possible.
In particular, ${\rm int}\,A\cup{\rm int}\,B$ is an open subset of $A\cup B$.
@Alizter It might just involve calculus, you know, like what Chris's Sis does.
right, as union of open subsets is open
@DanielFischer I had to prove that if for $f$ entire ${\Im }f(z)>0$ for all $z$, $f$ is constant.
I used Liouville's theorem.
21:14
@JasperLoy It seems to deep of a result to just use calculus
I simply showed that an unbounded entire function has a zero, @DanielFischer
Picard, @Pedro
@BalarkaSen We can only use results proven in class, smartpants.
@PedroTamaroff Umm, $e^z$?
@BalarkaSen what is your favorite group?
21:15
@Alizter $\mathbf{Gal}(\overline{\Bbb Q}/\Bbb Q)$
@BalarkaSen what about finite group?
$A_5$.
@DanielFischer Sorry, I mean like polynomials.
Where $|f(z)|\to \infty$ as $|z|\to\infty$.
@PedroTamaroff Those are polynomials.
@Alizter did you google field with one element?
21:18
@BalarkaSen yes
did that blow your mind? did it? did it? did it?
@DanielFischer I might have screwed up then. I cannot remember what I wrote now. How would you prove it, Daniel?
@BalarkaSen Nothing can blow my mind because it is already blown.
I proved a result which said that if any disc is not in the range, then the entire function is constant.
@PedroTamaroff That an entire function with positive imaginary part is constant? Liouville $\frac{f(z)-i}{f(z)+i}$.
Or $\frac{1}{f(z)+i}$.
21:20
Very interesting that @dan puts his hand on his mouth and @jay puts his hand on his cheek. Where should I put mine?
@DanielFischer Why cannot I Liouville $1/f(z)$?
Oh, right.
It might get close to $0$.
@Alizter Is that a woof from your doggie?
Right, @Pedro. You don't know a priori that it doesn't.
@JasperLoy That interesting place?
21:22
@DanielFischer OK. Then I had to find all branches of the logarithm such that $$\int_{|z-i|=1/2}\frac{z^{4/3}}{(z^2+1)^2}dz=-\frac {\pi}6$$
@JayeshBadwaik Flag!
Another one was finding all entire functions for which $f(x+iy)=f(x)+if(y)$.
@PedroTamaroff Residue it?
@PedroTamaroff C-R equations?
@BalarkaSen You use Cauchy's formula. Then it boils down to finding the branches for which $i^{1/3}=-i$.
Bah I am just raving names.
zips lip
21:25
@DanielFischer How would you solve the second one?
@PedroTamaroff $f(0)= 0$, and $f((1+i)t) = (1+i)f(t)$ for all real $t$, hence for all complex $t$. Now look at the power series expansion to see that $f(z) = c\cdot z$.
@DanielFischer What if I showed that $f'(z)$ is constant?
@DanielFischer Yes, $f(z)=f'(0)z$.
I proved that.
I showed that $f'(z)$ is constant on $\Bbb R$.
@PedroTamaroff Yes, showing that the derivative is constant also works. You know that.
@DanielFischer I am missing one more problem.
Oh. It was some convergence stuff of series.
Not worth it.
Trivial?
21:33
It was $$\sum_{n\geqslant 0}\frac{w^n}n$$ with $w=i\frac{1-z}{1+z}$.
I showed the thing converged only for $w\in \bar B(0,1)-\{1\}$ using Dirichlet's criterion.
Then I pulled back with the Cayley map.
I got that $z$ must be in $\{\Re z\geqslant 0\}-\{i\}$.
Cayley map, @Pedro?
@DanielFischer What I did not do (there where five exercises) was finding some Möbius transformation that sent two points to two others and a line to a circle.
I'm a wuss like that.
@PedroTamaroff Cross ratio.
Yes, it is a biholomorphic mapping $\Bbb E\to \Bbb H$.
@PedroTamaroff $\mathbb{E}$? The standard is $\mathbb{D}$, for disk.
21:37
@DanielFischer You mean that $$\frac{z_3-z_4}{z_3-z_2}\frac{z-z_2}{z-z_4}$$ thingy?
I don't really know how to use it @DanielFischer
@DanielFischer Dunno, Remmert uses $\Bbb E$.
@PedroTamaroff I thought that was called Riemann mapping theorem? Or am I wrong?
@PedroTamaroff Ah, "Einheitskreis", German.
@BalarkaSen The Riemann mapping theorem says every simply connected domain of $\Bbb C$ is biholomorphic to $\Bbb E$.
@DanielFischer Cool beans =)
Ah ah.
@PedroTamaroff It maps $(z_2,z_3,z_4)\mapsto (0,1,\infty)$.
21:38
@Pedro Slightly incorrect. Be careful.
@DanielFischer What's the word breakdown there?
@DanielFischer Yes, I know.
@MikeMiller Damn it, Mike.
NONEMPTY.
There.
Happy?
Still wrong.
Proper, nonempty.
@PedroTamaroff Einheit: unit; Kreis: disk (but it can also mean circle, use Kreisscheibe or Kreislinie to avoid ambiguity)
21:39
Does Remmert require prerequisites on differential forms?
@BalarkaSen No.
The book starts with baby steps.
@DanielFischer So what to do with it, Daniel?
What's the general MO?
Not sure if I should cut off something from topology, commutative algebra and sieve theory to include complex analysis. =P
@PedroTamaroff Choose third points, and compose the cross ratio mapping the first three to $0,1,\infty$ with the inverse of the CR mapping the second three to $0,1,\infty$. Of course if you see something more direct, use that.
21:42
@DanielFischer Right, yes. But I have to map a line to a circle.
Apart from two points to two points.
For pairs of points in the plane, you can of course immediately write down an affine transformation.
Yes.
@DanielFischer So I guess I am passing this one, but I screwed up in the $\Im f(z)>0$ part.
I mean, I guess I got the jist of it, but I think my solution is incorrect.
@PedroTamaroff A line is a circle passing through $\infty$. So you can just map $z \mapsto \frac{1}{z}$, scale, and translate.
@Balarka If you are a normal human, you will not absorb things properly when trying to learn huge swaths of vastly different subjects all at once. Take your time.
@MikeMiller that was meant as a joke.
i am not really studying anything other than topology atm.
21:45
@DanielFischer Yes, so I started doing it and did use $z\to z^{-1}$, using that if I have a circle with center $w$ and radius $|w|$, it gets mapped to a line through $1/2w$ perpendicular to the segment from $0$ to $1/2w$. But then I was like "Nah, I'll get stuck."
So I just did four out of five.
@Pedro except you screwed up at the first, so that's 3 outta 5.
@BalarkaSen Yeah, it's still a pass though.
Getting tired of programming contests dumps. Where is this from? I suspect HackerRank. Both questions of this users are of this sort.
In any case, off-topic -- contest or not.
(And what's with contest organizers who don't display the problems publicly? They'll be posted around anyway.)

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