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00:00
I need a nice name for groups which are inverse limits of locally finite systems of finite groups in which each group is covered by at most countably many other groups.
LEL
What is a LFsystem? @blue
locally finite refers to the partial ordering
hmm, thinking "pointy" group might do
or maybe "sandy"
or "particulate"
Granulated?
@blue
I like particulate best
Well one always has "atomic".
Maybe that one is taken.
I think atomic sounds badass.
00:09
someone on freenode told me it's unsolved how many subfields $\overline{\Bbb Q}$ has
Cool.
Feel like solving it? =O
I have to go now.
00:37
For any prime $p$, we can extend $v_p$ on $\Bbb Q$ to $\overline{\Bbb Q}$. Do so for each prime, including $p=\infty$. Call a sequence $\theta_1,\theta_2,\cdots\in\overline{\Bbb Q}$ locally ultimate (at $p$) if $\max |\theta_i-\theta_i'|_p\to\infty$ and $\min_{\theta_i\ne\theta_i'}|\theta_i-\theta_i'|\to0$. Whether or not a sequence is a locally ultimate at $p$ is independent of how we extended $v_p$.
Call a sequence $\theta_1,\theta_2,\cdots$ globally ultimate if every $\alpha\in\overline{\Bbb Q}$ is in cofinitely many $\Bbb Q(\theta_i)$. It would be cool if there is a relationship between locally and globally ultimate sequences. It would be like a "Galois approximation" theorem, similar to approximation theorems for adeles, or else a manifestation of Local-Global philosophy.
hmm, Krasner's lemma is probably useful here
 
1 hour later…
01:49
actually we probably want some better notion of "asymptotically dense"
perhaps "a sequence $S_i$ of subsets of a metric space is asymptotically dense if every open set nontrivially intersects cofinitely many $S_i$" is too strong
Ben
Ben
02:36
can reflecting a graph about the x-axis or y-axis change the total number of x and y intercepts?
what do you think?
if you reflect an axis intercept across the other axis, does it still intercept the same axis?
02:51
@N3buchadnezzar That is just $$\left[\frac12\log(1+x)^2\right]_0^1=\frac12\log(2)^2$$
@Chris'ssis that should be workable by considering the terms where $k+n=m$... let me see.
@Chris'ssis if I am correct, that should be $$2\sum_{m=1}^\infty(-1)^m\frac{H_{m-1}}{m}=\log(2)^2$$
which I computed the other day.
03:12
These two being the same, I get the feeling this is not a coincidence...
morning
me recalls a similar result @Chris'ssis has proved earlier
 
5 hours later…
08:01
did a bit of math, forgot everything I was doing in the water temple
08:54
Greetings (gezzz, I was so tired yesterday)
Now it's much better. :-)
@robjohn hmmm, you mean that series is precisely $\log^2(2)$?
@N3buchadnezzar Numerically they don't match.
@Chris'ssis :p
@N3buchadnezzar How is it going there? :-)
Fine, traveling to a friend in half an hour or so
09:31
Series reversion on a power series through repeated convolution, is that known?
(*Mathematica:*)
(*program start*)
(*coefficients (coeff) in power series can be changed*)
coeff = {1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1};
nn = Length[coeff];
A1 = Table[Table[If[n >= k, 1, 0], {k, 1, nn}], {n, 1, nn}];
MatrixForm[A1];
(*Iteratively downshift the matrix A1 one step and apply power series \
with coefficients of choice (coeff)*)
Monitor[Do[A2 = A1[[1 ;; nn - 1]];
A2 = Prepend[A2, ConstantArray[0, nn]];
A1 = Total[
Table[Table[
Table[(coeff)[[m]]*MatrixPower[A2, m - 1][[n, k]], {k, 1,
This particular program gives the Catalan numbers. But it can also be used on the power series for the Riemann zeta function.
Since they are matrix powers of the power series coefficients, does it mean that the inverse function can be expressed in terms of the function to be inversed? Or am I only dreaming?
This builds upon the INVERT transform in the oeis, communicated to me via Gary W Adamson.
The program here is a generalization of the INVERT transform.
0
Q: Algorithm for reversion of power series?

Mats GranvikIs this an algorithm for power series reversion? As input I give the alternating reciprocals of the factorial numbers: {1/0!, -1/1!, 1/2!, -1/3!, 1/4!, -1/5!, 1/6!, -1/7!, 1/8!, -1/9!, 1/10!, -1/11!} Like this: (*Mathematica program start*) (*coefficients (coeff) in power series can be chan...

It is much easier to understand when you see the spreadsheet calculation of this.
Anyone?
There is no subtraction involved.
No alternating series. Only downshifting, multiplication, addition, and matrix multiplication.
10:13
@Chris'ssis Do you get something else? I also tried it in Mathematica and it agrees.
@robjohn you mean that $$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{k+n} \frac{\log(k+n)}{k n}=\log^2(2)$$?
@Chris'ssis yes. Do you get something else?
@robjohn NSum[(-1)^(k + n) Log[k + n]/ (k n), {k, 1, 10000}, {n, 1, 10000}] = 0.203667
NSum[(-1)^(k + n) Log[k + n]/ (k n), {k, 1, 10000}, {n, 1, 100000}] = 0.203947
NSum[(-1)^(k + n) Log[k + n]/ (k n), {k, 1, 1000000}, {n, 1, 1000000}] = 0.204296
NSum[(-1)^(k + n) Log[k + n]/ (k n), {k, 1, 10000000}, {n, 1,
10000000}] = 0.204305
@robjohn maybe my Mathematica version deceives me? What do you get for these values?
@Chris'ssis You know what... never mind. I left out the log :-(
@robjohn hehe :-)
10:21
This should be $$2\sum_{k=1}^\infty(-1)^m\frac{H_{m-1}\log(m)}{m}$$
which I did not yet compute :-)
@robjohn Yeap. :-)
Or did I? I need to look back at some things...
10:49
@robjohn did you?
11:03
@Chris'ssis I'm not sure...
11:17
That sum is $0.20430570664961148161$
11:33
@robjohn The inverse symbolic calculator says "Wow, really found nothing.".
What is the inverse symbolic calculator?
Also, good afternoon!
What's the use of that calculator?
I don't get it ...
@Shisui "A user will input a number and the Calculator will use an algorithm to search for and calculate closed-form expressions or suitable functions that have roots near this number."
@Chris'ssis That's actually pretty cool!
11:44
@Shisui Most of the time, it cannot help me (but this is not the case of the others).
c c
c c
12:08
how do you interpret the convention $0.\infty=0$?
@cc you don't, because it's not a convention and to the extent it's meaningful at all it's not true ($0\cdot\infty$ is an indeterminate form, not $=0$)
c c
c c
(this convention is used here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lebesgue_integration)
> The convention 0 × âˆž = 0 must be used
I think it's that the nullity of the scalar, is more important than the vector
that a user on wikipedia decided to set that interpretation to make an equality easier to present does not make it a "convention"; that word shouldn't be used like that
@cc it's because integrating 0 over a region of infinite measure is still 0
don't pretend like the stuff on the left-hand side doesn't mean anything; it's where the stuff on the right-hand side comes from in the first place, hence it serves as a guide for why we're interpreting $0\cdot\infty$ as $0$ on the right
c c
c c
@blue it's not just wikipedia, I was reading math.u-psud.fr/~jflegall/IPPA2.pdf actually
@blue ok
@cc Is it Spanish ?
12:22
@blue It is an established convention in the scope of integration. Outside that scope, it is different.
c c
c c
12:52
and can we form a non-null integral over a region of measure 0?
 
1 hour later…
14:17
@Chris'ssis Yes, I had checked that out. That doesn't mean much :-)
@robjohn The question is crazy difficult and crazy awesome at the same time. :-) (some research is needed there)
@Chris'ssis I am guessing that you don't have a closed form for this yet.
I think it doesn't have any closed form.
@Chris'ssis Why would I serially upvote your questions? =P
@BalarkaSen ;)
14:27
@Chris'ssis I might as well be wrong, so I am not betting on anything. My base of intuition is that $\zeta'(s)$ usually doesn't have closed forms algebraically dependent of $\zeta(s)$, for $s \in \Bbb Q$
And this
4 hours ago, by robjohn
This should be $$2\sum_{k=1}^\infty(-1)^m\frac{H_{m-1}\log(m)}{m}$$
Looks mighty like some derivative of twisted zeta
@Chris'ssis This sum is related to this question of yours, right?
@BalarkaSen Yeah.
@Chris'ssis ... I have seen some similar sums evaluated somewhere using Ramanujan's Master theorem.
I can't recall.
@BalarkaSen I didn't see Cleo giving the closed form ...
@Chris'ssis Hahaha
@BalarkaSen :-) Sometimes I fell myself as if I were a bit evil. :D
14:35
@Chris'ssis Evil? About what?
@BalarkaSen about asking these "scaring people" - questions. :-)
@Chris'ssis Well, those questions surely scare the hell out of me.
But I guess notion of beauty differs from person to person.
14:55
So does Math Stack Exchange use MathJax to render its TeX?
@robjohn Do you know of anything like "the longest answer in MSE"?
Just an arbitrary thought, as the shortest one is one with a 'W'.
$\Bbb S$?
ah.
This is a personal research topic.
@Chris'ssis I was talking about the notation.
You mean this?
@BalarkaSen Exactly!
ok. thanks.
Fun generalization. How does it arise?
Kölbig's paper doesn't seem to be available online. Oh well.
15:19
Kölbig's paper? There should be a link there on mathworld.
There is no link.
15:33
@BalarkaSen I have a script to find the longest answer of mine, perhaps I can modify it...
15:45
Hello gang!
@robjohn Really? That's cool!
16:35
@BalarkaSen this is the longest post on math.
3
Anyone has good idea on some seminar paper subject in graph theory?
@robjohn Heh. Starred.
17:06
Hello peeps
@PedroTamaroff hello
@PedroTamaroff Hey.
You got some fun group theory problem?
17:23
Anybody got any fun integrals to solve?
(Preferably ones you'd encounter at the beginning of an undergrad degree)
@Shisui $$\int \frac{dt}{t}$$
@BalarkaSen $$ \int \dfrac{\text{d}t}{t} = \log|t| + \mathcal{C} $$
@Shisui Prove it =P
@BalarkaSen Does the proof have anything to do with differential equations?
@Shisui The cleverest way to do it probably is to sub $t = \exp(x)$ in the integral.
Here's a 'cheaters' way to do it : think of $t$ as a function of two variables and look at how the differential behave : if $t = uv$ then $$\int \frac{dt}{t} = \int \frac{vdu + udv}{uv} = \int \frac{du}{u} + \int \frac{dv}{v}$$ So you can "think" of the resulting function $F$ (without the arbitrary constant) to be satisfying $F(uv) = F(u) + F(v)$. You can show with some difficulty that $F$ is indeed inverse of $\exp$. For example, use the limit definition of $e$ and show that $F(e) = 1$.
=P
17:33
@BalarkaSen How did you get the numerator?
@Shisui $d(uv) = udv + vdu$
@BalarkaSen =S
I have started a bounty, but unfortunately I am a poor man, so I can offer only 50 reps! I really need this answer, so if you'd like, take a look, and/or help drawing more attention to it (e.g. via upvoting, if you think it worths it)!
@Shisui You don't know how to prove that?
It's basic property of differentiation, we call it product rule.
@BalarkaSen Nope. What are you differentiating $t=uv$ with respect to?
17:35
@Shisui Not really differentiating. It's the "differential". The operator.
Suppose that $G$ is an extension of $H$ by $K$. If $H,K$ are solvable, so is $G$.
@BalarkaSen
@BalarkaSen That's not been explained to me before. Could you explain it to me?
@PedroTamaroff Noted.
@Shisui What to explain? The differential, or the product rule?
@BalarkaSen It might be worth noting that I have heard of the product rule before, but never in the context of differential operators.
@BalarkaSen The differential.
@Shisui Let $f(x)$ be some arbitrary function.
Consider the change $\Delta y = f(x + \Delta x) - f(x)$
And let $\Delta x \to 0$
17:41
@BalarkaSen Oops
@Shisui ?
@BalarkaSen My brain's not working today U_U
You realize that $\Delta y = f'(x) \Delta x + \epsilon$, right?
Nope
The epsilon looks foreign
I get the rest
$(x + \Delta x)^2 - x^2 = 2x \Delta x + (\Delta x)^2$.
$(\Delta x)^2$ is your epsilon here/
Note also that $\epsilon/\Delta x \to 0$
So they are of the same asymptotic order.
17:44
I don't understand how $\Delta y = f'(x) \Delta x + \epsilon$ links to $(x+\Delta x)^2 - x^2 = 2x\Delta x + (\Delta x)^2$
What's not to understand? Be precise.
Would it be possible for you to explain how you went from one to the next in words as opposed to solely mathematical notation?
I am not sure what you mean by that.
Heya @TedShifrin
I am teaching someone about the differential operator here.
Heya @Balarka
Okay, we started off with $\Delta y = f'(x) \Delta x + \epsilon$
17:48
90% of the people gets confuzzled by Lebesgue notation, @TedShifrin
I know that $ f'(x) $ is the derivative of the function (i.e. it's gradient)
I also know that $ \displaystyle \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} = f'(x) $
Where does the epsilon come into play?
What is Lebesgue notation?
@TedShifrin Treating $dy/dx$ as a fraction.
That's not Lebesgue. It's Leibniz.
Oh, right.
I forgot.
17:50
Uh huh.
I am not good with remembering names.
Wait 'til you're my age!
@Shisui Epsilon doesn't come to play till you look at $\Delta y$, boy.
Ok. $\Delta y$ is a change in $y$.
It can be approximated by $f'(x) \Delta x$
Funny hearing a boy call someone a boy ... :D
17:52
Look at $y = x^2$, @Shisui
@Shisui Exactly. Approximated, not equalized.
Alright! $y=x^2 \implies \Delta y \approx 2x \Delta x$
@Shisui $\Delta$?
Yes.
$\Delta y = 2x\Delta x + (\Delta x)^2$, to be precise.
Where does the $$\Delta x)^2$ come from?
Subtract $x^2$ from $(x + \Delta x)^2$, boy.
All the math you've known you've forgotten?
(nudge-nudge-wink-wink @TedShifrin)
$(x+\Delta x)^2 - x^2 = x^2 + 2x\Delta x + (\Delta x)^2 - x^2 = 2x \Delta x + (\Delta x)^2$
17:57
@Shisui So that's the $(\Delta x)^2$.
I'm not getting this at all.
Good grief, who stole my mind?
@Shisui tsk tsk
Can we start from the beginning again?
I'm slow on the uptake.
@Shisui I think I need break. You just go an pick up a book on modern treatment on calculus.
We have a function $y=x^2$. From this we can deduce that $\Delta y \approx f'(x) \Delta x \approx 2x \Delta x$.
17:59
What have you read so far?
@BalarkaSen Absolutely nothing
@Shisui I hate $\approx$. It doesn't tell us anything. $\sim$ is much better.
At least it tells something.
I'm just going on intuition here as I'm yet to start undergrad maths.
@Shisui Try with Courant if you want to do these stuffs.
I have heard a lot of praise about Spivak but never read it.
An awesome book is Piskunov.
Integration doesn't make sense unless you know about differentials.
Just knowing it's the opposite of $d/dx$ is not useful enough to do stuffs with it.
@BalarkaSen What?
@BalarkaSen What?
@BalarkaSen Me too :(
18:02
@Sawarnik Piskunov. Search it.
@Sawarnik Differentials.
@BalarkaSen I know, its not very great.
@Sawarnik It is great. Have you even tried to read it?
@BalarkaSen No, it makes sense without them.
@Sawarnik Superficially.
@BalarkaSen Ok.
18:03
Integrals are objects of differential equations.
@Sawarnik Stop arguing.
Anyone will agree with me.
Unless you get Leibneiz notation very well you can't possibly do integration.
$\text{d}(uv) = u\text{d}v + v\text{d}u$
Are $u$ and $v$ functions of another variable?
@BalarkaSen
@Shisui $u$ and $v$ are variables.
Well, independence doesn't matter.
@BalarkaSen Because its confusing at best.
@Sawarnik It's confusing, yes. But it's an essentially step towards modern analysis.
If you can't explain it simply, you don't understand it well enough.
What happened to using words to convey the meaning of and theory behind ideas.
-.-
18:10
@Shisui I can explain it simply, not my fault if you forgot how to compute $(a + b)^2$ =P
I didn't. I don't understand where you got $(x+\Delta x)^2 - x^2$ from.
The $\epsilon$ too.
$\Delta y = f(x + \Delta x) - f(x) = (x + \Delta x)^2 - x^2$
That's where you got it from.
Now I just feel plain silly.
Heh.
Sorry, but I think I have to go.
Read up Courant.
Bye.
Bye.
I should go too.
18:14
See ya.
I'm staying.
Lots of irritating things to cram my brain... :(
What do you mean?
Hey @cc
c c
c c
hey Shi
@cc Could you possibly explain why $\text{d}(uv) = u\text{d}v + v\text{d}u$ ?
I'm aware of the product rule of differentiation but I've only seen it in this form, where $u$ and $v$ are functions of $x$. $$ \dfrac{\text{d}}{\text{d}x} (uv) = u \dfrac{\text{d}v}{\text{d}x} + v \dfrac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}x} $$
Hey @r9m
Could you help me out?
c c
c c
18:46
In calculus, the product rule is a formula used to find the derivatives of products of two or more functions. It may be stated thus: :(f\cdot g)'=f'\cdot g+f\cdot g' \,\! . or in the Leibniz notation thus: :\dfrac{d}{dx}(u\cdot v)=u\cdot \dfrac{dv}{dx}+v\cdot \dfrac{du}{dx}. In the notation of differentials this can be written as follows: : d(uv)=u\,dv+v\,du. The derivative of the product of three functions is: :\dfrac{d}{dx}(u\cdot v \cdot w)=\dfrac{du}{dx} \cdot v \cdot w + u \cdot \dfrac{dv}{dx} \cdot w + u\cdot v\cdot \dfrac{dw}{dx}. Discovery Discovery of this rule is credi...
I think this is attributable to Leibniz
well $\text{d} f$ is the differential of $f$, $\dfrac{\text{d}f}{\text{d}x}$ is the derivative with variable x
@cc Ok. So here's my burning question for the day. What's the difference between a differential of a function and the derivative of said function with respect to a variable?
c c
c c
for simple functions of a real variable, $f'(a)$ is the derivate in a (a real value), $h \to f'(a).h$ is the differentiate function (a linear function)
for $\Bbb R^n$ the differentiate becomes $Df(a) : h \to grad f(a) .h$
@Shisui this proof of product rule using chain rule is fun: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Product_rule#Chain_rule
19:10
@cc Which one?
The direct consequence of the chain rule?
c c
c c
this one en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… is a typical physician proof
19:27
@MikeMiller
wat
oh well
@MikeMiller
Bob
Bob
@BalarkaSen what is the difference between small o and big o notation ??
If 1 --> N --> K is exact then 1 --> Aut_K(G) --> Aut_N(G) --> Aut_N(K) is exact
c c
c c
Is it possible to have a function almost everywhere null, but with an integral not null?
19:40
@Bob f(x) = o(g(x)) if f(x)/g(x) tends to 0
as x tends to infinity i mean.
and f(x) = O(g(x)) if the limit tends to 1
@Bob you got the right kind of question to ask me.
=D
Bob
Bob
ya .. and thanks @BalarkaSen
c c
c c
no, I think, f(x) = O(g(x)) is |f(x)/g(x)| <= M for x tends to infinity
@cc right. in general, i use ~ so there is mostly no difference for us number theorists.
Bob
Bob
i have a function with $O(1/n^2)$ what will be it $o()$
c c
c c
but they are different in analysis
19:43
@Bob i can say o(n) =P
as well as o(n^100).
c c
c c
sin(x)/x^2 is O(1/x^2) but not equivalent
@cc heh.
c c
c c
@BalarkaSen else could you explain me Galois theory in simple and short terms?
pretty much any thing is O and o anything if you can make it up.
c c
c c
:p, always been curious to learn it
19:46
@cc Depends if you are a geometer or an algebraist.
Either of them like different explanations.
c c
c c
maybe more geometer, but not good
@cc Very well then I guess I'll go for algebraic one.
You know about field extensions?
c c
c c
hmm no
ok.
take $\Bbb Q$
then take some equation $x^2 - 2 = 0$.
are the roots in $\Bbb Q$?
c c
c c
no
19:49
@cc so adjoin the root. (which we call it $\sqrt{2}$). like have another field $\{a + b\sqrt{2} : a, b \in \Bbb Q\}$
exercise : verify it's a field.
c c
c c
yes it is, multiplication, gives a $\sqrt{2}^2 = 2$
cool.
so that's what we call field extension.
having a field $\Bbb Q$ we get a bigger field $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2})$ by adjunction of an algebraic elt.
@cc You know how to compute automorphism groups of groups?
Bob
Bob
@BalarkaSen means you are adding a member with $sqrt{2}times another entry$
c c
c c
but this element must not be contained in the extended field?
@cc which element?
c c
c c
19:52
$\sqrt 2$, for example does $\Bbb Q (3/2) (= \Bbb Q) $ make a sense?
@cc $\Bbb Q(3/2) = \Bbb Q$
c c
c c
right
So I wouldn't call it a field extension/
c c
c c
@BalarkaSen No
@cc do you know what's a field automorphism?
google it.
Bob
Bob
19:55
@BalarkaSen algebraic elt means ???
c c
c c
A Morphism I remember it a little mathworld.wolfram.com/Morphism.html
@Bob something you get by finite composition of addition multiplication and inversion togather with taking roots.
in formal terms, an algebraic over $K$ is a root of a polynomial over $K[x]$.
c c
c c
Ok an automorphism is a bijective morphism with same fields/sets at each 'end'
@cc yes, and it preserves operation.
c c
c c
ok
19:59
f(a + b) = f(a) + f(b) and f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
c c
c c
it preserves equality and operations
right. so now look at the automorphisms of $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2})$ which fixes elements of $\Bbb Q$ pointwise.
can you identify them?
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