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16:00
@N3buchadnezzar One way is to split the integral at $x=1$.
@Chris'ssis That does not work
@BalarkaSen @N3buchadnezzar I got $O(1/\sqrt{n})$ with Bernouilli inequality, how do you refine it ?
$$
0 \leq
\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{(x^2+1)^n}
\leq \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{(1+0)^n} + \int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{(0+x^2)^n}
\leq 1 + \frac{1}{2n-1}
$$
:15603833 Please go ahead.
Kill yourself.
@Chris'ssis Boom headshot
16:02
@N3buchadnezzar Just do what I said!
OK, let me show you the way!
@N3buchadnezzar oh nice, thanks
@G.T.R Note this only show that $0 \leq I \leq 1$
It was just a quick stab at Chris,'sis :p
@G.T.R Not yet very nice.
@N3buchadnezzar It was pretty quick though.
@N3buchadnezzar that was sarcasm (@Chris'ssis)
@BalarkaSen Gotten pretty nifty with latex p
16:05
If it's anything, @N3buchadnezzar and I are better with hard analysis than @Chris'ssis. We are number theorists man!
You used latex a lot ?
@G.T.R You can interchange limit and integral due to the monotone convergence theorem.
@N3buchadnezzar Well, not much.
@N3buchadnezzar I still can't get that $O(1/n)$. But $O(1/\sqrt{n})$ is fine
@G.T.R Yeah. Any thing like $O(1/n^\epsilon)$
16:06
When I cite things in my papers you would often go See equation ("4") where 4 is a hyperlink. Now I was able to get "equation (4)" hyerlinked, but still only 4 colored.
@G.T.R Yeah, who cares about precise bounds anyway ;) Stab at Balarka!
@N3buchadnezzar Eh, never hyperlinked stuff.
@N3buchadnezzar stab stab stab
If it is only the number that is colored, and the color is dull. It just barely slides
@user63181 yes, you're right, thanks for the headsup
16:08
@N3buchadnezzar I never even used colors.
Text and Tex are sufficient.
I try to use two colors, blue and red and shades of gray
Does anyone know how to prove $\|\mathbb A\vec x\|=\| \mathbb A^H\vec x\|$?
if $\mathbb A$ is normal
@mirgee $\Bbb A$ is a normal subgroup of $H$ which acts over $\Bbb A$ by some topological thingy?
That means both are Lie groups?
thingy ma jiggy
$\langle Ax,Ax\rangle=\langle x,A^HAx\rangle=\langle x,AA^Hx\rangle=\langle A^Hx,A^Hx\rangle$ @mirgee
16:12
@N3buchadnezzar $$0\le\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx + \int_1^{\infty} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$
$$\le \int_0^{1} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx+\underbrace{\int_1^{\infty} \frac{x}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx}_{\displaystyle\frac{1}{ 2^n (n-1)}}$$
Take the limit and you're done.
@Chris'ssis Tremendous amount of work.
@BalarkaSen Gezzz, all that can be placed in a single line. :-)
@Chris'ssis Compute the integral on the left.
That goes beyond a single line.
@BalarkaSen No, that is elementary.
@Chris'ssis What about bounds on the integral from 0 to 1 ?
16:15
@Chris'ssis OK, show me how you compute it in a single line.
@N3buchadnezzar I took the limit under the integral sign.
@Chris'ssis Then why not do that from the start?
@N3buchadnezzar I still think of doing that integral elementarily.
@Chris'ssis No, he asks why not take the limit under the integral sign from the beginning.
@BalarkaSen Because I wanted to do all elementarily.
16:17
What's the need for all this works?
@Chris'ssis It's tremendously tedious that way.
@user63181 But how would you prove the first equality? My definition of $\mathbb A^H =\overline{ \mathbb A^T}$
@BalarkaSen show me your way. Is it shorter than Bernouilli ?
@G.T.R Take limit under integral sign.
16:19
@BalarkaSen I say it again: I wanted to do it elementarily (with high school knowledge only).
I'll do it that way.
@Chris'ssis Taking limit under integral sign is elementary and highschool.
I think.
@BalarkaSen Sorry? I didn't learn that in high school ...
Oof, another power cut.
Yes $A^H$ is the adjoint of $A$ in the hermitian space so we have the first equality.@mirgee
@Chris'ssis Right, that's true. Agreed.
I never took calculus on highschool.
I was forgetting that. =P
16:22
@user63181 How?
If f is a function such that f(sin(x)) is continuous, must f be continuous?
But Bernoulli is elementary, @Chris'ssis
That can be applied too.
@user63181 What you say works for linear operators. But $\mathbb A$ is simply a matrix
@user112495 if f(sin(x)) is continuous, so is f(sin(arcsin(x)))
@BalarkaSen Yeah, I know, but I think of something different now ...
16:24
@Chris'ssis Something tedious =D
@BalarkaSen :-))))
But, ok, I am interested in the computation of the integral there elementarily and non-tediously.
@G.T.R Oh yeah :p. Thanks!
If it works for linear operators as you said then it works also for a simple matrix @mirgee
@BalarkaSen @Chris'ssis the next step is to determine an asymptotic equivalent of this integral. Now it's getting tedious
16:26
@user63181 OK, so I have to make a map between operators and matrices, then prove it's bijective...?
@G.T.R Which integral?
@user63181 Isn't there another way?
@BalarkaSen $\int_0^{\infty } \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$
Ah, that one.
No there's a simple proof to it@mirgee
16:28
@user63181 Would you please show me?
@user63181 To be clear, I know definition of operator adjoint and proof of it's uniqueness using Riesz theorem
@user63181 No matrices there
Simply $\langle Ax,y\rangle=\overline{(Ax)}^Ty=\overline{x}^T\overline{A}^Ty=\langle x,\overline{A}^Ty\rangle$@mirgee
@user63181 And relationship between matrix of operator and its adjoint in ON basis
I never would've imagined probability requires such deep knowledge of calculus and set theory
@Studentmath I've recently found to my surprise that probability makes heavy use of calculus, but don't know about set theory...
@Studentmath Heard set theory is hard!
I actually have easier time with set theory, I don't really have the required knowledge in double integrals and so on in calculus... I have a habit of taking courses together with their required pre-courses..
16:35
@Studentmath Why? Are you that impatient to learn? :)
I am a bit short on time and want to cover as much knowledge as possible :P Plus in chemistry I managed to handle it easily, in math it's a bit harder
To find an elementary proof to $\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_0^1\frac{dx}{(x^2+1)^n}=0$ take $\epsilon>0$ and write $$\int_0^1=\int_0^\epsilon+\int_\epsilon^[email protected]
@G.T.R Can you tell me what's wrong with my reasoning here:

I have to decide whether sin(f(x)) being continuous implies f(x) is.

I considered f(x) = 0 for rational x and pi for irrational x. Then sin(f(x))=0 and so is continuous but f(x) isn't. But then couldn't you do arcsin(sin(f(x))) is continuous by composition of continuous functions which means f(x) is continuous?
sdf
sdf
is there a situation in which it is possible to deduce that a map is continuous because its kernel is open?
@user63181 But that's assuming we are in a euclidean or unitary space
@user63181 With usually defined inner product... Which I'm allowed to assume :D Thx
16:41
So you're allowed to assume! Fine;-)@mirgee
@user112495 arcsin(sin()) is a wild function
@user112495 sin(arcsin()) is the identity, no problem. arcsin(sin()) is some kind of piecewise function
@G.T.R I still don't get why sin(arcsin()) is that different to arcsin(sin())
@user63181 This is what I was preparing to type. It's the best way. @G.T.R @BalarkaSen
@G.T.R have you got an example where it doesn't work properly just so i can visualise it
@N3buchadnezzar Wasn't that computed either in chat or an answer recently?
16:43
@user112495 see here google.fr/… , and think for a moment
@G.T.R $$\int_0^{1} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx=\int_0^{\epsilon} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx +\int_{\epsilon}^1 \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$ This way is simply at the high school level.
@G.T.R Thanks!
The problem is that $\arcsin$ function is only defined on the interval $[-1,1]$ so $\arcsin(\sin x)\ne x$ for $x$ not being in this interval.@user112495
@G.T.R This reminds me of a very beautiful question from a high school contest!
@G.T.R It's this one $$\lim_{n\to \infty} n 2^n \int_1^n \frac{1}{(1+x^2)^n} \ dx$$
$$
\int_0^\infty\frac1{(1+x^2)^n}\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac12\int_0^\infty x^{-1/2}(1+x)^{-n}\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac12\mathrm{B}\left(\frac12,n-\frac12\right)=\frac{n\pi}{(2n-1)4^n}\binom{2n}{n}
$$
16:58
@robjohn Right, this can also be expressed in terms of beta function. I only wanted to use some elementary tools. Of course, it's nice to have many tools at hand. :-)
@robjohn $$
\int_0^\infty\frac1{(1+x^2)^n}\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac{\sqrt{\pi } \Gamma \left(n-\frac{1}{2}\right)}{2 \Gamma (n)}$$ ???
@robjohn How to determine the asymptotic growth of that one ?
Wow the last equality is super cool
@robjohn Also just the wallis integral, use $\tan y \mapsto x$ to see it =)
@N3buchadnezzar aymptotically, it is $\sqrt{\frac\pi{4n}}$
17:04
You mean 1 over as it tends to zero but ok.
@Chris'ssis what is that?
@robjohn let me check one more time ... (there was a small mistake)
@N3buchadnezzar yeah, I multiplied by $\sqrt{\pi n}$ instead of dividing by it
@N3buchadnezzar $\binom{2n}{n}\sim\frac{4^n}{\sqrt{\pi n}}$
@G.T.R by the way, don't miss my question ... it's very nice :-)
@robjohn From stirrling
17:10
@N3buchadnezzar yeah
Thats neat
@Chris'ssis I'm still thinking about that $\epsilon$ expression. How do you choose the $\epsilon$ ? I'm tempted to say it's related with continuity of the function at $0$
@G.T.R You choose $\epsilon$ very small (sorry for my non-mathematical language), $\epsilon>0$. The rest is a piece of cake.
@N3buchadnezzar I dropped a factor of 1/2 (now fixed)
@Chris'ssis how do you get a bound for this $$\int_0^{\epsilon} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$ ?
17:13
@robjohn From where?
17 mins ago, by robjohn
$$
\int_0^\infty\frac1{(1+x^2)^n}\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac12\int_0^\infty x^{-1/2}(1+x)^{-n}\,\mathrm{d}x=\frac12\mathrm{B}\left(\frac12,n-\frac12\right)=\frac{n\pi}{(2n-1)4^n}\binom{2n}{n}
$$
@robjohn Yeah I saw just now you fixed the integral
@G.T.R Isn't this $$0\le \int_0^{\epsilon} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx \le \epsilon \cdot M$$? Since $\epsilon$ is arbitarily small, you're done.
@N3buchadnezzar The integral was fine, I forgot the $\frac12$ in front of the Beta function
17:17
@Chris'ssis but then you get a problem taking also $\epsilon \to \infty$ in $$\int_{\epsilon}^1 \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$
@user63181 How should I choose $\epsilon$ in the expression you suggested ?
you forgot the dollar signs in front
@G.T.R I'm only referring to this integral $$\int_0^{1} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$. The other part from $1$ to $\infty$ is clear.
@robjohn This is a nice question btw
@Chris'ssis How is $\epsilon$ to $1$ bounded ?
Refreshing my memory here a bit and being completely unsure of myself: $\int e^{f(x)}dx=\frac{1}{f'(x)}*e^{f(x)}+C$ iff f'(x) isn't 0 for every x, and in case of definite integral for every x the definite integral is over, correct?
@Chris'ssis yes, I got that. But you can't just let $\epsilon \to 0$ in both $$\int_{\epsilon}^1 \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx$$ and $$0\le \int_0^{\epsilon} \frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^n} \, dx $$
17:20
You have not to choose $\epsilon$, it's arbitrary and you should find $N$ such that $\forall n\ge N$ the integral is less than $C\epsilon$ where $C$ is a [email protected]
@Studentmath Only if $f'(x)$ is constant.
say $e^{x^2+1}$
Heya @Studentmath, @N3, @robjohn
How do I go about it otherwise? Hey @Ted
17:22
You simply dont :p Except if you have some junk in front of the exponential, or have some very special limits.
Hello @TedShifrin
Not even for a definite integral? @N3buchadnezzar
$\int f'(x) e^{f(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x = e^{f(x)} + D$
17:23
Hello, @user63181: Do I know you?
Heya @Mike
@Studentmath Well you can compute an integral on the form e^f(x), but the rule above does not hold.
I'm Sami I changed my look;-)@TedShifrin
@N3buchadnezzar and the answer seems about the only closed form.
I was more interested in the proof using CA
@user63181 Well, the idea is that one can choose any $\epsilon$ arbitrarily small such that the integral is smaller than $\epsilon M$, $\epsilon>0$.
17:24
Hmm.. I am getting this from probability over normal distribution
I prefer real names :(
It's really interesting
@Ted Do you/does one think much about the "shape" of tensor bundles, in the sense that one does for the tangent bundle (I.e. parallelizability?)
@TedShifrin I prefer names living in $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$
slaps @N3
17:26
:p
@N3buchadnezzar How? Just think about it! It's easy! :-)
That would be some pretty complex names
@user63181 It's clear now, thanks
r9m
r9m
@Cortizol $\sum\limits_{cyc} \dfrac{a}{b+2c} = \sum\limits_{cyc} \dfrac{a^2}{ab+2ac}$, Using the Cauchy Schwarz Inequality, $(\sum\limits_{cyc} ab + 2ac)\left( \sum\limits_{cyc} \dfrac{a^2}{ab+2ac}\right) \ge (\sum\limits_{cyc} a)^2 \ge 3(ab+bc+ac)$, thus proving $\sum\limits_{cyc} \dfrac{a}{b+2c} \ge 1$ :)
@Chris'ssis Imagine
17:27
@TedShifrin Salut, c'est GabrielR
I've got no real geometric intuition for them and I don't know if that's -bad-
@G.T.R did you get my point?
r9m
r9m
@Chris'ssis did ya ping me ? (IDK .. but I can't find where)
I don't know that triviality of a bundle is "shape," @Mike, unless we're talking connections/curvature.
@r9m Yeah, I have a surprise to you. Are you ready?:-)
17:28
Salut @Gabriel: Pourquoi tout le monde se change de nom?
r9m
r9m
@Chris'ssis If you are gonna breathe dragon fire on me ... I am always ready :P :D
@Chris'ssis hmmm it was quite unclear. Underlining that $\epsilon$ is fixed, and that we're seeking some $N$ is good
@robjohn The proof might be done using the mean value theorem
@Ted I dunno, I'd say that's part of a bundle's geometry... a simple part, but still not an easy one
Chaque saison a son propre nom;-)@TedShifrin
17:29
$$
u(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} u( z_0 + r e^{i\theta} ) \,\mathrm{d}\theta
$$
@TedShifrin I wanted to roll it back to GabrielR, but I have to wait 30 days :(
r9m
r9m
@Chris'ssis WoW !!!! good morning :D
@G.T.R I said " for any $\epsilon$ arbitrarily small".
@r9m Yeah, indeed! I'm in love with it :-)
Particularly interesting in the holo category, @@Mike. A beautiful paper by Griffiths years ago on positivity of bundles. And alg geo is full of such issues (e.g., Kodaira vanishing thm).
Je ne me rappellerai jamais de vous tous ...
@Ted Oh, I'm fascinated by the complex/algebraic lives of these things. But I'm trying to grasp smooth, first.
@Ted Anyway, forms feel like cheating.
17:32
Cheating? Hell no. They rule.
:15605487 was there something wrong with that integral? (the one you just deleted)
It makes me uncomfortable that they trivialize $H^i=0$ for $i>n$, @Ted. We didn't have to work hard for that topologically but we had to work for it.
Hardly work to have a cell/simplicial complex of finite dim?
Hello world!
Hello Prof. @Ted
Salut @Sab
17:36
Je vois que le francais est devenu familier dans ce salon :D
I have managed to get to this expression:
$$\int_{279.792}^{320.208} e^{-\frac{(x-300)^2}{2\sigma ^2}}dx$$
Err that looks ugly.
Le français et l'espagnol, oui ...
Better.
Ugh @Studentmath
17:37
Je veut apprendre l'allemand
I know it's equal to 0.6! now I just need to find that sigma.. easy peasy.
@Ted Not every manifold is a simplicial complex... and the proof I know for manifolds is essentially inductive
@Sabಠ_ಠ Ye kaun sa language hai?
@Ted you are going to teach this soon.
Il y en a plusieurs entre nous qui parlent allemand, aussi ...
17:38
@Sawarnik urdu or hindi?
Prove for open subsets of $\Bbb R^n$, prove that if it's true for two sets and their intersection it's true for their union, patch all these things together.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Hindi of course. You didn't understood?
Someone told me the language used in bollywood movies is urdu :S
@Sabಠ_ಠ Not really.
"What language is this" I think
17:39
@Sabಠ_ಠ Right.
I learned the language from bollywood movies
Yes, I love Mayer-Vietoris for deRham, @Mike ... Totally direct from partitions of unity :)
Is it even solveable...
Exams start in 2 weeks :O:O
I need to plan my revision and ace this now :O
@Sabಠ_ಠ I meant in which language were you talking with Ted?
17:40
@Ted That's why it all feels like cheating! These topologically a bit difficult facts are now trivial.
@Studentmath No. But in terms of error function it may be put.
Oh @Sawarnik that was French.
@Ted What would be the best way to ace a math exam in 3 weeks? :3
Yeah. I dislike the error function.
@Sab Know the math
I need to know all the details inside out
17:41
Understand the material? @Sab
Thing is I'm quite bad with graphs
@Sabಠ_ಠ Cheating? On your own risk though.
@Ted Beat ya.
I had my final German exam today!
I guess I still have Sawarnik on ignore ...
17:42
@Sawarnik Cheating is not an option. Most people fail the course, so the chance of failing is higher when cheating. This is pretty ironic.
I'm super slow on iPad, @Mike
@Sabಠ_ಠ Haha, pick some better students.
@Sawarnik I can beat the best students if I put my mind to it.
@Ted I posted a question you might like.
@Sabಠ_ಠ That's a better approach.
17:43
@Mike: It's not by accident that my students learn forms in my multi course ... :D
I do pretty well learning in 1 day. Now 3 weeks will put me in a good position to get 90+
Although cheating was the only thing which let me pass the Sanskrit tests last year :D
However I need a good approach to grasping the material, thus my question to @Ted
What does your course cover, @Sab?
17:44
@Ted second
@Ted how do you define forms for them?
I thought it was always true @Mike.
Second what? @Sab
Can you turn $R[[X]]$ formal series over a Euclidean domain $R$ into a Euclidean domain?
I'll post the list of the content
@Sabಠ_ಠ Why? Isn't the book good enough? Plus you have this site to clear your doubts.
17:46
In terms of determinants, @Mike.
@Ted It should be, IMO, but I don't see a proof yet! There's an answer for smooth manifolds via Morsetheory.
@Sawarnik I think the book is not good enough in terms of questions. I want to do all type of questoins I can get my hands on to master the topic. I actually feel I bombed my physics class test today, because I didn't practice enough question.
I wonder if the answer is somewhere in Kirby-Siedelmann.
Look in Spanier @Mike.
@Ted Everything is done on open subsets of $\Bbb R^n$?
17:47
Siebenmann?
No, @Mike, submanifolds. Eventually ...
Thanks for correcting me, @Ted
@Ted here are the topics based on Stewart:
1. Functions and models
2. Limits and derivatives(tangent, limit laws, continuity, etc)
3. Differentiation rules
4. Application of differentiation rules (including lopital :( and optimizatoin :(:( , antiderivatives :'( )

5. Integration(evaluating integrals, fundamental theorem of calculus :O :O , sustitution, by parts, trig etc)

6. Proofs (induction and contradiction)
7. Several proofs in differntiation and I guess some in integration will pop up as well
I think it's more basic. Doesn't it follow from the Hopf trace lemma for any simplicial complex? @Mike
In Spanier should I be looking for a proof that all manifolds are homotopy equivalent to a finite CW-complex, or the Euler char itself?
i think it's just algebra. No topology.
17:53
@Ted Not all closed manifolds are simplicial complexes, though.
@Sabಠ_ಠ Want some questions?
@Sawarnik if you got some with their answers :) I would appreciate it
@Sab: If you email me, I can send you exams I've given in my Spivak course, if you want to choose some problems to practice.
But don't give the answers yet, I'll do the questions first.
I can email you @Ted :)
@Sabಠ_ಠ Ok. $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ be twice differentiable, non-decreasing functions. $f''(x) = g(x)$ and $g''(x) = f(x)$. $f(x) \cdot g(x)$ is a linear function.

Then show that $f(x) = g(x) = 0$.
17:55
@Ted what's your email?
rsee my profile, @Sab.
you need some finiteness condition, @Mike. Does the Hawaiian earring have $\chi$?
@Ted I'll send you and email to your uga address, that's the only one I found.
Right @Sab.
Sent @Ted :)
17:58
@Sabಠ_ಠ One more. Does there exist a continuously differentiable function $f: [1,5] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, such that $f(1) \lt 0, f(5) \gt 3$ and $f'(x) \leq e^{-f(x)}$?
@Ted The Hawaiian earring is not a manifold. I want to know if the statement is true for closed manifolds, and if not, somewhere it fails.
I seriously need to learn some LateX
user116900
In Soviet Russia, LaTeX learns you.
user116900
I am so lame.

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