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2:04 PM
Sigh. A simple question with a good answer. Why add basically the same answer a few hours later?
 
@DanielFischer Well, people have too little real work to do.
@DanielFischer Mind sharing what you do for a living?
 
2:37 PM
@JasperLoy IIRC computer stuff. =P
 
@PedroTamaroff Ah! If I could start all over, I might be an accountant. Makes more money!
 
@DanielFischer
or @anon maybe
 
@PedroTamaroff Que?
 
@DanielFischer Can one form $C_2\rtimes C_6$?
And get a group $G$ generated by two elements with $a^2=b^3=1$, $aba^{-1}=b^{-1}$?
Where $|b|=6$.
 
@PedroTamaroff You need a homomorphism $C_6\to \operatorname{Aut} C_2$, and the latter group is pretty boring.
 
2:47 PM
Heh, I just wanted to know how to write $G$ as a semidirect product, if it's possible.
I meant $a^2=b^3$.
 
@PedroTamaroff $b^3 = 1$ and $\lvert b\rvert = 6$ seem to contradict each other.
 
No $=1$ there.
Sorry.
 
@PedroTamaroff Since $a^2 = b^3$, the order of $a$ is $4$.
 
@DanielFischer But that has order $24$ doesn't it?
 
And $a^2 \neq b^3$, @Pedro.
 
2:53 PM
@DanielFischer Oh.
100% positive the group is $$\langle a,b\mid b^6=1,a^2=b^3,aba^{-1}=b^{-1}\rangle$$
 
I don't see how to write that as a semidirect product, @Pedro. What were the criteria for that to be possible?
 
So one can be direct, indirect or semidirect, lol.
 
Hello
 
I have become addicted to nuts.
 
@MatsGranvik I have two nuts.
 
3:03 PM
@JasperLoy What kind of nuts? Are they edible?
 
@MatsGranvik No, you have them too, lol.
 
I see.
 
@Nimza Hi cookie monster!
 
@JasperLoy Hi BlueSquare, are you ok?
 
@DanielFischer
Ah! It's $C_3\rtimes C_4$.
 
3:06 PM
@Nimza Well, I am still trying to get better from my OCD, as usual.
 
Oh!
Guys, is it always possible to rewrite a twisted Laplacian on a Riemann surface as a Laplace-Beltrami operator for some appropriate metric?
 
@PedroTamaroff I can see it's a quotient of $C_6\rtimes C_4$. How does one get $C_3\rtimes C_4$ specifically?
 
@anon I have no idea. I can be wrong.
But the only nonabelian groups of order $12$ are $D_{12}$; $A_4$ and that.
It was a guess by deletion. =)
 
@Nimza never heard of the twisted laplacian. what is it, morally speaking?
 
@anon well, it's an analog of Laplacian on manifolds with complex structure (e.g. on $\mathbb C$)
 
@anon btw, the definition is simple: $\Delta_\sigma u = d(\sigma d^c u)$, where $\sigma$ is a smooth function which "twists" Laplacian, $d = \partial + \bar \partial$, $d^c = -i (\partial - \bar \partial)$, and $\partial$, $\bar \partial$ are the standard Dolbeault operators.
 
4:03 PM
@anon I wonder why people star this when it is pinned already.
 
solidarity
 
@anon Hey.
 
Or stupidity? LOL.
@PedroTamaroff What is in your picture?
 
Pollock.
 
I drew mine myself: steelblue square.
 
4:06 PM
@anon I'm trying to show $x^q=1\mod p$ has exactly $q$ incogruent solutions when $q\mid p-1$.
 
Hi @Jasper
 
@Charlie I thought you were going to email me?
 
Soon soon
 
@anon I am suspecting once I find a solution, all other solutions are $x^k$, $k=1,\ldots,q$.
For example, take $q=5,p=11$.
Then $-2$ generates all $5$ solutions, $-2,4,-8,16,-32$ which are $9,4,3,5,1$.
The solution has to be nontrivial though.
Oh, DERP.
I think I got it.
Take $\langle x\rangle =\Bbb Z_p^{\times}$ a generator.
 
You mentioned the Rotman book, which one @pedro?
 
4:16 PM
Since $qk=p-1$. Take $x_k=x^{\frac{p-1}k}$.
Then $x_k^j,j=1,2,\ldots,q$ are all solutions.
@JasperLoy Introduction to the Theory of Groups.
 
@PedroTamaroff I see. He has a Advanced Modern Algebra as well.
 
@JasperLoy Ah. I already have some algebra books.
Lang, D&F and Hungerford.
 
And also Jacobson, lol.
 
Yeah, I'm not reading that one though.
 
@PedroTamaroff Why not? I am curious...
 
4:20 PM
@JasperLoy I've found better expositors, I guess. Though I still have to read a great deal of it. He has Galois Theory, Modules and some other very interesting stuff.
 
@PedroTamaroff what do you mean by $q$ incongruent ?
 
@Complexanalysis $q$ "many".
It all boils down to $\Bbb Z_p^\times$ being cyclic of order $p-1$.
Since $q\mid p-1$, it contains a unique cyclic group of order $q$.
Its elements are the $q$ solutions of that equation.
 
@PedroTamaroff How do you boil down to your first claim ? :=)
 
@Complexanalysis What confuses you?
If $C$ is cyclic of order $n$ and $d\mid n$, then $\{x:x^d=1\}$ is the cyclic subgroup of order $d$ in $C$.
 
@PedroTamaroff right .
 
4:29 PM
In my example above, $2$ is a primitive root modulo $11$, since $1,2,4,8,5,10,9,7,3,6$ are all the elements of $\Bbb Z_{11}^\times$.
 
@PedroTamaroff ya .
 
Then $5\mid 11-1=10$ by $2\times 5=10$.
 
Nevermind then. You got.
 
@PedroTamaroff ya , just wanted to have a conversation .
@PedroTamaroff what else are you doing ?
 
4:36 PM
@Complexanalysis I'm reading a bit about groups of order $pq$ currently.
And the "metacyclic" group $ C_p\rtimes C_q$ one can get when $q\mid p-1$.
 
@PedroTamaroff Have you learnt the wreath product?
 
@JasperLoy I vaguely remember what it is. Not really.
 
@PedroTamaroff When is a group of order $pq$ cyclic ?
 
I know it give big sized groups.
@Complexanalysis If $p=q$, it is not always cyclic, but is is always either $Z_p\times Z_p$ or $Z_{p^2}$. In particular always abelian.
If $q<p$ and $q\not\mid p-1$, it is cyclic.
 
Cool , any characterization when it is $Z_p \times Z_p$ or $Z_{p^2}$ ?
 
4:42 PM
Yes. If it has a unique element of order $p$, it is $Z_{p^2}$ =P
More generally (!) any abelian group $G$ that has a more than one element of order $p\mid |G|$ has a subgroup iso to $Z_p\times Z_p$.
 
What is your argument to prove the next claim ? Sylow $p-$ subgroup ? or without invoking sylow ? @PedroTamaroff
 
@Complexanalysis Which claim?
 
the cyclic nature of $pq$ order group with the condition . @PedroTamaroff
 
@Complexanalysis Oh, because the condition $q\nmid p-1$ forces the $q$-Sylow generated by an elt of order $q$ to be normal. The $p$-Sylow generated by an elt of order $p$ is already normal because it has index the minimum prime divisor of $G$.
By coprimality, $\langle a\rangle\cap\langle b\rangle =1$, so $G\simeq \langle a \rangle\times \langle b\rangle$.
One also shows $G=\langle a,b\rangle$ first, though.
So that $G=\langle a\rangle \langle b\rangle$.
 
@PedroTamaroff yup. what do you mean by elt ?
 
4:49 PM
@Complexanalysis Element.
 
ah you mean element ,
 
@PedroTamaroff so we have only one $p-, q-$ Sylow subgroup.
 
Aha.
Don't TeX the hyphen! =P
 
haha
looks irritating
 
4:54 PM
This chat looks very different when I reload the page and don't restart ChatJax
 
@robjohn Hi there , How are you ? in what way does it look different ?
@PedroTamaroff So you say that there is an element of order $p$ because the group is of order $pq$ ?
 
@Complexanalysis none of the LaTeX is rendered
 
Ok @robjohn
 
5:30 PM
Once again got stuck, if anyone could throw a look here math.stackexchange.com/questions/694212/…
Will appreciate it a lot :)
 
 
2 hours later…
7:15 PM
3
Q: Prove (using properties of definite integral)

Ylyk CoitusProve the following: $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \displaystyle \int_0 ^{2\pi} \frac{\sin nx}{x^2 + n^2} dx = 0$$ How would I prove this? I know you have to show your steps, but I'm literally stuck on the first one, so I can't.

Why not simply use the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma here?
 
@N3buchadnezzar Why not just note that the integrand is less than $\frac1{n^2}$?
 
@robjohn Is that enough? It is still oscillating
 
@N3buchadnezzar The absolute value of the integrand is less than $\frac1{n^2}$ on an interval of lenth $2\pi$
 
Ah right I forgot to look at the limits, silly me.
Well if it had been $$ \lim_{n \to \infty}\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin nx}{x^2 + 1}\,\mathrm{d}x $$ it would have been slightly more interesting.
 
@N3buchadnezzar If it were infinite, then how would you apply Riemann-Lebesgue? What $f$ are you using for $\hat{f}(n)$?
@N3buchadnezzar For that one, you could apply RL
@N3buchadnezzar That is what my answer to that question suggests :-)
 
7:21 PM
I was thinking that if $f$ is continous on $(a,b)$, and g has a period of $T$ then
$$
\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b f(x) g(nx)\,\mathrm{d}x
= \frac{1}{T} \int_0^T g(x)\,\mathrm{d}x \int_a^b f(x) \,\mathrm{d}x
$$
 
@N3buchadnezzar I just noticed the OP's name is "Ylyk Coitus"
 
Did not know this was strictly for finite regions? It should hold if $f$ and $g$ are smooth and bounded functions.
@robjohn Hah, latin. What does the first part mean ? I know the second..
 
@N3buchadnezzar I think they are intending "I like" with the beginning
 
Provocative against all the bishops and priests browsing mathematics exchange from The Vatican.
 
@N3buchadnezzar coitus is a Latin word, but I think it is in the English dictionary, too
 
7:26 PM
Interesting.
At least his name is not post mortem rectum coitus.
 
@N3buchadnezzar Let's not give any ideas out here...
 
Is "ylyk" supposed to mean "I like"?
 
7 mins ago, by robjohn
@N3buchadnezzar I think they are intending "I like" with the beginning
 
Duh. You already said it.
Yes just saw a millisecond before your message.
 
@robjohn What are your favourite theorem / theorems?
 
7:31 PM
@N3buchadnezzar There is a question about that somewhere.
 
I like the name "ylyk coitus" better than "bad at math".
 
@MattN. I am torn on that
 
: )
 
@robjohn There is a question about Robjon's favourite theorems, I would like to read that question ;)
 
@N3buchadnezzar I find Bezout's Identity, the Euler-Maclaurin Sum Formula, the Central Limit Theorem, Bernoulli's Inequality to be very useful. I don't know about favorites.
@N3buchadnezzar Did you see to what that comment referred?
 
7:34 PM
I really like the residue theorem, it combines greens and complex analysis in a very useful way
 
@N3buchadnezzar Ah, yes, that is very useful, too.
 
Heh. Bezout's identity was sold to me as "division algorithm".
 
In fact the list is long: the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, the AM-GM inequality, the dominated convergence theorem etc @robjohn
 
@SamiBenRomdhane AM-GM is essentially Bernoulli's Inequality (I used the latter to prove the former in a recent answer.)
@SamiBenRomdhane But more basic and behind the first two is Jensen's Inequality
@SamiBenRomdhane But I agree, there is a long list of very useful tools.
 
7:41 PM
Yeah if you look for the more basic is the definition of the convex function @robjohn
 
What is useful and what one personally preffers are two very different things
Euclids proof that there are infinite numbers of primes is a personal favourite amongst many, but it is not particularly useful,
 
@N3buchadnezzar Ah, favorite proofs... That is a different question
 
I feel like I've always had a favorite proof, that just changes as I learn mkre
 
8:20 PM
@mike
 
Capping with no acceptances; it feels like the answers were cheap.
 
What happened to the other room?
 
@PedroTamaroff what other room?
 
$$\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}d(k)d(n-k)\sim\frac{\sigma(n)\ln(n)^2}{2}?$$
 
8:51 PM
@Ethan Let $$f(x)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{x^k}{1-x^k}$$ what is $f(x)^2$?
 
the generating function for that last function I posted
lol
 
@Ethan amazing :-)
@Ethan cool. Next year?
 
yea but still waiting on letters, they're supposed to come mid march
 
Amr
Hello Everyone
I am currently studying algebraic topology from Greenberg\harper book
The homology section of the book
 
@Amr there are words after "studying", but they seem meaningless ;-)
 
Amr
8:58 PM
@robjohn I am currently self studying algebraic topology from greenberg's book
Still not clear
?
 
@Amr I am an analyst. It was a joke :-)
 
Amr
@robjohn OK :)
The homology section of the book uses affine spaces, but I feel that everything that was done so far could have been done using vector spaces. Since I am not used to affine spaces as I am used to vector spaces I prefer the vector space viewpoint
Would it be OK if whenever any definition that uses affine spaces I just replace the word with vector spaces
In other words: What is the advantage of using affine spaces instead of vector spaces
 
9:19 PM
I certainly can't say since I don't know the context, but affine spaces are more general
 
9:38 PM
Does anyone know SVD?
 
singular value decomposition
 
Yes seaturtles
Do you know @sea?
 
@Amr students of vector calculus often ask what's the difference between points and vectors (arrows). the idea is that the points just sit there, inert, while the vectors act on them by translation. geometrically, this is the "correct" way of thinking about things, as e.g. in the real world choices of origins for coordinate systems are artificial and to some extent arbitrary, as are the subspaces through the origin compared to affine subspaces. don't know about homology though.
@Charlie what about it?
 
Do you master it?
 
hmm, my rep is $10^3+13^2$
@Charlie not really. do you have a specific question about it?
 
9:47 PM
It's hard to say, because I understood nothing
 
@Charlie refreshing my memory with wikipedia, it seems to me the idea is that a linear map $\Bbb C^n\to\Bbb C^m$ is comprised of a rotation on the domain $\Bbb C^n$, followed by the projection $\Bbb C^n\to\Bbb C^m$, followed by scaling of the axes (the amount each axis is scaled by corresponds to an entry of the diagonal matrix in the SVD), followed by another rotation in $\Bbb C^m$.
 
10:03 PM
@PedroTamaroff pollock much?
 
Do you like it?
 
@PedroTamaroff I am working on writing a topology / functional analysis question. It's yucky, but it's ultimately for my algebraic and geometric curiosity.
 
@sea hmmmm
 
10:20 PM
@seaturtles Cool :)
 
10:36 PM
@seaturtles that beats the crap out of me
But isnt it sup ||Ax||/||x||?
 
mr @Pedro !
 
10:51 PM
@PedroTamaroff I did say functional analysis was not among my strong suits :)
 
@Charlie Do you understand unitary matrices?
 
hi @robjohn
 
@TedShifrin hey there
 
oh, mr @Pedro finally awoke
 
10:59 PM
Ill be home in a while
Now i have to drive
 
LOL, drive safely.
 
Yeah
I have to since.i didnt sleep well
@mike knows
 
Oh oh ... seriously, be safe.
Talk to you later.
 
Hey, @TedShifrin. Nice to see you again.
 
@TedShifrin ever taught using the Moore method?
 
11:09 PM
@PedroTamaroff It is raining hard here. I assume it is not the same there.
 
@robjohn if you have constructed an confidence interval, is there some easy way to find only the upper confidence level, or do u have to do all calculations again?
 
@Danny The upper confidence level for $95\%$ uses the same computation as the confidence level for $90\%$. For other confidence levels, you need to recompute.
 
11:46 PM
Hi @Daniel @Alex ... No, don't have the patience for Moore method, but I try for interactive classes .... Or at least I used to :)
 
@TedShifrin seems like a really neat idea, but difficult to actually do.
 
It's very slow and requires deeply engaged and dedicated students.
 
I had this prof in Cincinnati who did kind of a pseudo-Moore thing, where he had students take turns giving the lectures while he asked questions. But we still used a book and used it to prove the main results.
I'm not sure whether that style has a name or not.
 
Nah, just lazy prof :) it goes slowly, students learn well what they have to lecture on, and not the rest. Students rarely have the perspective to give insights a good prof can.
 
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