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00:07
Anyone here very comfortable with real analysis?
@Ryker What is it?
Consider the set of continuous functions on [0,1] and let P be the set of polynomials on [0,1]. Why is this set closed?
Is it because of the Stone-Weierstrass theorem?
The set of polynomials is not closed.
The set of continuous functions is closed under the uniform norm.
The set of polynomials is dense in $C[0,1]$ by Weiretrass' theorem.
In fact, $(C[0,1],\lVert \cdot \rVert_\infty)$ is a Banach space, you already might know that.
I might or might not :)
Undoubtedly now you do.
00:15
Why is it, however, that the set of all functions f in C[0,1] s.t. f(0) = f(1) = 0 is closed?
All you have to do is show that if $f_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions vanishing at endpoints, its limit (which you know is continuous) also vanishes at endpoints.
Can you do that?
Not sure...
But what does that give me?
What do you mean?
How do you prove a set $F$ in a metric space is closed? You (can) show any convergent sequence in $F$ has its limit in $F$.
Oh, I see, you use the definition of a closed set in terms of sequences, right?
@Ryker if you use the sup norm, the convergence is uniform.
00:20
Because there exists a maximum?
What are you talking about now?
I don't even know, ugh...
Think things through. Use the definitions.
Never mind, I guess it doesn't really matter.
I'll think about how I'd go about showing that, but thanks, I see why it's closed now.
Hi @Pedro
00:33
Suppers.
@Mike What's new?
Not much.
I might take "Finite Math" next quarter.
What's that?
Finitism? =O
Let me get you the course description
""Introduction to mathematics with applications to the social sciences. Sets, logic, combinatorial problems, probability, vectors, and matrices."
hey guys would anyone mind clarifying the proof ive written in this question. thanks.
0
Q: Proof of integrability theorem clarification

user60887 Theorem: Suppose that the function $f:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ is bounded. Then $f$ is integrable iff for each $\epsilon>0$ there exists a $\delta>0$ such that $U(f,P)-L(f,P)<\epsilon$ whenever $P$ is a partition of $[a,b]$ such that $||P||<\delta$. Proof: ($\rightarrow$). Let $\epsilon>0...

@Mike I see.
00:48
@PedroTamaroff I really want to challenge myself, you see...
(I need to take 12 units worth of classes to stay a full-time student, but it's possible they won't let me just take the one course I need to graduate, and then 8 units of independent studies. If not, I waste time with something like that.)
@Mike Cannot your take the course you want to if you have to qualifications?
@robjohn
This guy deleted the question as soon as I gave an answer.
Could you undelete and upvote/warn? =/
@PedroTamaroff If you take less than 12 units per quarter, you lose your financial aid.
And there are policies against taking more than 5 units of independent study per quarter.
@Mike Ah, OK.
I'm looking into loopholes, basically.
Hello guys
00:56
HAI
@PedroTamaroff There.
@robjohn Thanks.
Nicehint
01:26
@Mike I didn't like Hungerford's proof about fin gen abelian groups that much.
yo @Ted do you know of schemes?
or mike too
@PedroTamaroff It is so incredibly simple
Yo @anon ... Of schemes, yes. What are you scheming?
There exists an epimorphism. You know the subgroups of $\Bbb Z^n$. You're done.
@Mike Aren't most of them? Lang has a simple proof.
01:28
It's just the first isomorphism theorem and that's so cool.
@anon None of the hard stuff, but I know some
@TedShifrin Looks like I'm doing more alg topo next quarter
@Mike Which one are you talking about?
@PedroTamaroff Hungerford's
I'm saying theorem 2.6
That'd not bad @Mike
01:29
wikipedia says schemes are formed by gluing together parts of spectra. I know how the spectrum of a ring is endowed with a sheaf, but I want to know what this "gluing" is exactly. presumably the space associated to a scheme is a disjoint union of open sets from various spectra, but now we have to put the sheaves on these spaces together in some way. @mike @ted
@TedShifrin The course topics (or maybe course title) is "Cohomology and Hodge Theory"
I want to study pointed Hopf algebras!
Then you need to learn msnifolds and diff forms, @Mike
@anon a scheme's a locally ringed space such that at every point, there's a nbhd whose restricted sheaf is an affine scheme
01:32
@TedShifrin I know, that's the idea
First half of the course will be cohomology to allow me time to learn the diff geo.
And then the second half will be purely hodge theory
(I'm going to start my diff geo studying in a couple weeks)
Nice pun ...
Purely hodge theory?
Still, diff geo is a misnomer ...
Start my smooth manifold studying.
Yes, pure Hodge structure ... :)
01:35
@anon i prefer to think of schemes as locally affine instead of glued together affines, because of this
they're the same thing, but the former makes more sense to me
The gluing of schemes is basically like overlaps of charts on manifolds, @anon
ponders
And I like to think of those as locally euclidean/complex instead of glued together patches of euclidean space... :)
the same damn thing but one is more fruitful for me
the former, to me, makes me think "restriction"/going down to euclidean space, the latter makes me think "putting together"/going up
and I've usually found that the former is more helpful for my intuition
Damn it my pen is being a total bitch.
like father like son? >:D
01:42
Who needs pens?
raises hand
pencils suck
I still use my Parker fountain pen I bought in 1963 or so ...
usage: dry-erase markers > pens > mechanical pencils \approx chalk > pencils
clean-up: pencils = pens > chalk > dry-erase markers
pencils > pens
pencils don't stain my clothes
hates dry-erase markers ... HATES
01:45
or my arms, face, body
i like dry-erase WHEN THEY WORK
they get dry too soon
you ink yourself frequently? @Mike
@TedShifrin I'm sure that's an entendre, but unfortunately I'm not so careful with my writing utensil usage
No, I'll think more about underhanded connotations ...
It's not hard to put one in there.
...nor is it hard to misread my last sentence
@TedShifrin I might also take "Finite math" next quarter :D
Oh good grief ...
01:49
FUUUUUUUU
@PedroTamaroff You should see a doctor. It's not safe to have fire to your fingers so long.
@TedShifrin I need to stay above 12 units... and I'm not sure yet whether I can get away with doing that by having 8 independent study units. If I can't, I'm going to be wasting my time somehow.
So I might as well waste as little as possible.
My alternative is to sign up for a class for four weeks and drop it mid-quarter, after the aid has been disbursed
@PedroTamaroff You have linked that three times
Different songs, silly.
@Mike What did that say?
@PedroTamaroff It was inappropriate
Or rather, it didn't directly respond to the line above me. So it was not appropriate to what you had just said. It wasn't "inappropriate"
01:55
OK, say it again and delete.
why
lol
Because!
that's all it was
but I wanted to save it until you actually said something about laughing.
So, it has come to this.
That's correct.
01:59
Lang's proof is nicer.
Ah, that's wrong.
Wanna fight me about it?
DAFAQ
I was reading, you punk.
we chased ted off
this seems like the type of thing some people in here would like
$$\frac{\sin(nx)+\sin(mx)}{2\sin(\frac{m+n}2x)} = \cos\left(\frac{m-n}2x\right)$$
02:47
@Pedro: I commented on your answer to the no-longer deleted question. You have some lack of clarity, methinks.
03:09
If anybody here knows a lot about Functional Analysis, I've got a question that I just put up +50 bounty for: math.stackexchange.com/questions/671716/…
No, Ted 's still here
@DanielFischer might be able to help
Okay. He's not in here, but if you see him, send him my way.
that's why I pinged him :)
Ah! See, I'm just learning about this witchcraft you modern people call chat
Hi guys, i was wondering if anyone knows a bit of basic stats here: I am looking to get the PDF of the following RV: $$Y = \frac{1}{k} \sum_{i=1}^k X_i $$ where each $X_i$~ Exp($\lambda$)
I know, if it was just the sum, Y would have a PDF given by the k fold convolution of the exponential distribution
but how do I deal with the scaling factor $1/k$
03:22
@TedShifrin Hello.
03:40
@Mike I have changed back to steelblue, just for you.
:)
Rehello ... Howdy @Jessy and @Jasper.
@TedShifrin I changed my answer.
=P
@TedShifrin Hi, I was wondering who Jessy was at first.
I am
I'm both
03:43
You're both? @Mike
@Pedro: Spell Stokes correctly :) Also, please don't confound vector field $F$ and associated $1$-form. We can take d of the latter, not of the former. That's all. :D
@TedShifrin Yes, I took the d of the associated form, you know I know. ¬¬
But i've told you 99% vector calc students don't know forms. So what you're writing is doubly bad. It's sloppy (i.e., wrong) and they don't know what you're talking about.
04:01
@TedShifrin Why is it wrong?
@masfenix Use that P(1/k*Z<=t)=P(Z<=kt) where Z is the sum
04:11
In linear algebra, is the Range(A) = Row Space(A transpose)?
@SamB Yes.
Oh, no.
Nevermind.
Ok. Thanks
04:27
Is everything okay in here?
It looks good.
@robjohn Patrolling? =)
@PedroTamaroff some people were having lag in some chat rooms.
@anon I want to show an finite noncyclic abelian group contains a subgroup that is iso to Z_p x Z_p for some prime p. I have done the following: cyclic iff unique subgroup of order d for each d | |G|. Thus, for some d | |G| there are two subgroups of order d. I claim that for some prime factor of d, I can find two distinct elts of order p. Right or left?
@SamB The range is the space generated by the columns, which are the rows of the transpose, so yes
@anon I could also use the theorem of finitely generated abelian groups...
05:29
woo, loooon nam
@Mike WAT
I found an awesome proof of FTFGAG
It is very similar to what Lang does which is quite clean, but it gives something stronger so the proof is very abstract, one doesn't get hands dirty like Hungerford.
How does one get their hands dirty with Hungerford?!
Oh, noes. I forgot you liked H.
D&F H L our three holy Abstract Algebra ghosts.
I honestly do not get your objection to it. It's clean and simple.
I don't object to the other ones.
I do object to the way he proves the $m_1 | m_2 | ...$ part, tho
@Mike Right. Dunno. Lang doesn't dwell in all the details, he decomposes $A=\bigoplus A(p)$ and works for $p$ groups.
The notes are linked are quite nice.
@Mike Some luv?
05:41
You have 50,000 love already!
You're a funny person!
I don't see what was wrong with T.'s hint
The votes are meant to convey if the answer is useful, regardless of how much cheese the answerer has.
Sillygoose.
Also, brotip: don't watch three videos called "Gay Hotline Prankcalls" if you don't want YouTUBE to give you Gay Hotline ads.
Converse: If you want to get gay hotline ads...
06:02
Hello
Helloes.
@Mike Dude.
@Pedro Dude.
Suppose $G$ is finitely generated.
Abelian.
DUDES! I have a quick question, would this SE community be a good place to post a questino about statistics?
Guess so.
Let $x\in G$ be of maximal order. Then I know $G=\langle x\rangle oplus H$ for some $H$.
Let $\{x_2,\ldots,x_n\}$ be a minimal generating set for $H$. Then $\{x_1=x,\ldots,x_n\}$ is a minimal gen. set for $G$.
@Mike Yiss?
06:04
Are you trying to prove the structure theorem?
I am doing P.81 ex.2 of H.
And I want to induct on the amount of generators.
I was just making sure I wasn't just looking over another damned proof of the structure theorem. .-.
Oh shit that one
I had a good amount of trouble with that one.
LOL. It is another proof of Hungerford T.2.1.
Wait. How do you know the first line?
That's what you want to prove.
Nah, I mean I already did that.
I want to use it now.
06:06
Oh, bro, you're on the easy part.
You've got the right idea.
So I want to say $H$ is iso to a sum of cyclic groups, the finite order ones $m_1\mid m_2\mid\cdots \mid m_{t-1}$.
Yeah, you've got it. Induct.
I want to prove that if $m_t$ is the order of $x$, $m_{t-1}\mid m_t$.
That'd be it.
It's a slick proof.
Lang does something similar.
I think it's too much work.
Get prime factorization of the torsion part.
And then just line up your prime power factors.
Like H does at the end of the section.
Well, it is more abstract I guess?
It has certain appeal.
06:08
It is.
Part of the reason I like it the first way is I like appealing to CRT in the process
Because it makes this whole thing such a bing bang boom.
Exists an epimorphism. We know the kernels, so we get free abelian plus cyclic summands. Apply CRT.
Did you read Mariano's proof that S_{n-1} doesn't embed in A_n?
Yes, I don't really understand the mechanics. I'm keeping it in the back of my head for when I learn finite group rep'ns
@Mike Also, H's proof on the divisibility is cool. It has to do with the Smith form.
@Mike No, not that one.
I don't know what he's saying there honestly.
He changed it.
06:12
You'll know not long from now.
What's the new one?
If S_{n-1} embeds, consider the coset space A_n/S_{n-1} of size n/2. Then A_n acts on it by permutations and we can totally assume n>4, and since A_n is simple for n>4, we get an injection, so n!/2 $\geqslant $ (n/2)!, impossibru.
Oh that's sick.
Yeah. =D Freaking awesome.
I liked my counting argument but it was a pain to work the details.
(I did work them, btw, it sucked)
@Mike I'm not sure if I can prove $m_{t-1}\mid m_t$.
I'm not sure if it is true,
06:20
Yeah it is.
Oh WAIT.
STOOPID.
Hint: bezout's identity.
@Mike You mean show $(m_t,m_{t-1})=m_{t-1}$?
Right
I'm thinking contradiction on maximality here
Use that and then the definition of lcm.
Yeah, me too.
Ah! Jacobson. =)
06:26
Jacobson?
Yeah. $m_t=\exp G$.
"If $G$ is abelian and $x$ is an element of maximal order, $|x|=\exp G$".
Proof. Write $|x|=p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_s^{e_s}$, $|h|=p_1^{f_1}\cdots p_s^{f_s}$. If $h^{|x|}\neq 1$, some $f_i>e_i$, wlog $i=1$. Let $x'=x^{p_1^{e_1}}$ and $h'=h^{|h|/p_1^{f_1}}$ then $|x'h'|=|x'||h'|>|x|$ contra maximality of $x$.
(Note $(|x'|,|h'|)=1$)
@Mike In fact $G$ finite abelian is cyclic iff $\exp G=|G|$. This gives a slick proof that $F^\times$ is cyclic for a finite field.
Exp?
$e^G$?
The exponent of the group. The least $n$ for which $h^n=1$ for every $h\in G$.
OK. I didn't know that terminology.
Right, that's the proof I had in mind.
I know. =)
06:35
I actually didn't realize that this shows $F^\times$ is cyclic!
thanks for pointing that out
=D
It's a cool proof.
Is that the standard proof?
I'd completely forgotten the idea there.
Wait.
How do you know $\exp F^\times = |F^\times|$?
What's stopping, e.g., every element in $\Bbb F_9$ to have order dividing $4$?
@Mike Here I've found the classical proof-
One uses $x^{|F|-1}-1$ has exactly $|F|-1$ distinct roots.
Sure, but I don't see the argument immediate from that.
Oh.
For each $d\mid |F^\times|=|F|-1$ define $\{x:x^d=1\}$-
06:42
No, distinct does it.
Then this is a subgroup of order $d$.
If you let $\psi(d)$ be the number of elements of order $d$ in $F^\times$, $$\sum_{c\mid d}\psi(c)=d$$
This means $\psi(x)=\varphi(x)$, Euler's totient.
Then $\varphi(q-1)>1$ unless $q=2$.
That is the classical proof.
Yis.
I think Jacobson's proof is way slicker.
Ay!
Linear Algebra Question!
06:48
How do you show that for any v != 0 in a vector space, there exists a phi in the dual space such that phi(v) = 1?
Finite dimension, yes?
Coordinates.
Yeah finite.
Pick a basis containing $v$.
Take the dual of that.
Done. =)
I thought you could just define a map that sends v to 1 and all other vectors to 0...
Is that not linear?
@Anthony What do you mean by "all other vectors to 0"?
Does it send $2v$ to $0$?
Certainly not!
06:49
Yeah, that's hella nonlinear bro
Yeah.
What if you send all av to av
As I said, complete $v$ to a basis of $V$.
how is $av \in \Bbb R$?
Call this basis $B$.
Let $B^\ast$ be the dual basis of $B$.
Oh send av to a
06:50
Then $v^\ast(v)=1$.
@Anthony How do you canonically define $a$?
$a(1,0,0) = 2a(1/2,0,0)$
@Anthony
Define a linear functional as follows.
@PedroTamaroff No stop
Guide, don't tell :)
06:52
But it's not even homework :(
Let $B=\{v_1=v,v_2,\ldots,v_n\}$ be a basis. If $w=\alpha_1v_1+\cdots+\alpha_n v_n$, then $\varphi(w)=\alpha_1$.
Haha.
@PedroTamaroff.
I am gonna fuck you up
It's kinda what he thought, but you need to be careful.
That's what bases are for.
@Anthony Prove that map is well defined and that it is linear.
@Mike There, I gave him stuff to think about.
Happy?
You gave him too much! But I will survive.
06:53
Wait so can someone again tell me why what I said what wrong?
@Anthony You let $v$ be an arbitrary vector
So that $v \mapsto 1$
$2(\frac 12v) \mapsto 2$
$1=2$ QED
@Anthony Your map is not well defined.
I will bookmark
I'm showing there exists a phi for any v such that phi v = 1.
I said send a(v), where v is the vector under consideration, to a, all others to 0.
Why is this bad?
2*1/2*v = 1*v,
@Anthony You should define a linear map over a basis, dear!
"all other to 0" means for example $2v\to 0$.
Because $2v\neq v$.
So your map is not linear.
06:56
@PedroTamaroff He means send anything non a scalar multiple of $v$ to $0$.
@Anthony That is actually better.
I know they always say define it on a basis, but I mean, why is that necessary in this cas?
@Mike Just read the final proof!
One shows $\exp G\leqslant |G|$ trivially.
@Anthony Say $w = v+v'$, where $v'\not \in \text{Span}(v)$ Then $\phi(w) = 0$. $\phi(v')=0$, $\phi(v)=1$.
$1 = 0$. QED.
06:59
@PedroTamaroff Oh, that's what I was thinking back when you were doing the classic proof. 'swhy I said 'distinct roots does it'
De-bookmarked :D

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