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05:00
free abelian, yes
Right, the point is to prove torsion free fin gen abelian implies free
one can use induction on the number of generators needed
actually, hmm, let me review
gets out the green folder
what colour are your folder(s)?
all of them
all green?
05:02
no, all of the colors
that's cool. so rainbow like?
yeah
mine are black and blue
sounds depressing!
Old empty bed...springs hard as lead
Feel like ol’ Ned...wished I was dead
What did I do...to be so black and blue

Even the mouse...ran from my house
They laugh at you...and scorn you too
What did I do...to be so black and blue

I'm white...inside...but, that don't help my case
’cause I...can't hide...what is in my face
(jazzman sounds)

How would it end...ain't got a friend
My only sin...is in my skin
What did I do...to be so black and blue

(instrumental break)

How would it end...ain't got a friend
wonder if the plancheral measure on finite groups that aren't the symmetric groups have any interesting motivation or properties
plancherel
lulz
05:07
jeez
hehehehe
between our four tries, you had three
you have to say it out loud like a frenchman
and only plansshhherrrel sounds right.
if you're super drunk maybe
sober works too
certified
05:12
woah, more evidence of the duality between conj classes and irreps via random walks
head asplode
@anon you readin paperz?
browsin
05:32
@anon is it generally true that for any sbgrp B of A tor(A/tor(B)) $\simeq$ tor A / tor B?
yes: torsion elts of A/tor(B) are represented by torsion elts of A
(you could say it's an equality, really)
Yes, true.
I was playing it safe. =P
@anon wait, a+tor B is torsion iff a has finite index in B.
not if a is torsion
DERP
@anon Sorry for the stoopid.
finite index in tor B is good enough =)
05:48
(:
@anon Wonder if your reaction is the same: who cares? =P
actually my reaction was "trivial, next question" when I read the title on main
but indeed $1$ is an arbitrary argument and iterating trigonometric functions is rather unmotivated - the only reason these things crop up is because trig and functional composition are among the small set of tinker toys available to the littleuns (for example, one can "discover" them merely by playing on a scientific calculator)
@anon true dat
I have a real problem now.
Not sillyness.
I hopw.
Lang proves that if one has an epi $f:A\to A'$ with $A'$ free (not $A$!) then $A=\ker f\oplus C$ for $C$ a subgroup of $A$, with $C\simeq A'$.
Now, suppose $A$ is a finitely generated abelian group.
Say, on $n$ elements.
Then we have an epi $f:F\to A$ where $F=\Bbb Z^n$ free on $n$ elements.
haha, I just answered this like days ago
OK, let me think for a second..
I have an epi $A\to A/{\rm tor} A$
And $A/{\rm tor}A$ is free.
I suppose I did it for R-modules and not abelian groups, but same diff
Right?
So that's what he wants.
@anon Yeah, the proof is not crazy.
tor(A) might be smaller than ker(f)
But that was not my qustion.
06:00
ah
Yeah, no worries.
The point is I have to show there is a free subgroup of $B$ of $A$ such that $A=B\oplus{\rm tor}\; A$.
And by the above, take the epi $A\to A/{\rm tor}\; A$ projection-
Then $\ker =\rm tor$.
right
And by the lemma yadda yadda
I always wonder when seeing questions like that why people don't ask about iterating cosines
why the functions dampen out, what the limiting value os
seems like a natural question, not which is greater
@anon I don't know how far it spoils the answer, but I htink you could be a little more detailed.
06:04
?
oh, you mean in the linked answer
for example "Pick a basis $\{x_i'\}$ of $A'$, and pick $x_i$ such that $f(x_i)=x_i'$. Claim $\{x_i'\}$ is a basis for the submodule it generates.
yes, I start out at a calculated vagueness and increase detail as I observe the OP's progress. if the OP doesn't interact or engage at all then it stops there.
@anon ah, ok
@Mike the haar measure is the unique invariant measure (with blah blah technicalities). is the plancheral measure unique in a similarly natural way? the definition dim^2/|G| seems so artificial.
you've been away for a bit @Mariano
the only representation theory I know is how to count irreps of $S_n$. I am the wrong person to ask
06:09
@anon This is what I told you some days ago $$A\simeq {\rm tor}\;A\oplus\frac{A}{{\rm tor}\; A}$$
"Decompose $A$ into its torsion and nontorsion part."
But yeah nontorsion was a bad choice of words.
I guess.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez !!!
I was saying there is generally more than one torsionfree subgroup B of A such that A=tor(A)+B
so one cannot speak of "the" nontorsion part ("part" implying "subgroup")
speaking of blue and black...
@anon black and blue
06:12
POLL: «there are more than one factor» or «there is more than one factor»?
it has a nice ring
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez IS
there is
Definitely.
is
3-0
the crowd has spoken
06:13
quite unconvincing :-)
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Justification:
factor is singular, even though there's more
than one
"Existe mas de un factor"
"there is" acts on factor, not on groups, so to speak
you're acting on my nerves
06:17
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Do you know what the Grothendieck group of a monoid is?
Commutative monoid.
adjoin formal inverses
get a group
?????
profit
@PedroTamaroff sure
not convinced about that last step
@anon You take the monoid, make ${\bf Z}\langle M\rangle$, inkect $M$ into it, say $m\to \hat m$ and quotient by the group generated by $\widehat{x+y}-\hat x-\hat y$.
that is a different way of constructing it
both give the same thing
06:19
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez do you know why kids love cinnamon toast crunch
you can also do the same thing to go from semirings to rings
and many other types of objects
it's functorial and is categorically free or universal or somesuch
You can start from M, add a new set M' in bijection with M, and define on the free monoid generated by M\cup M' the least equivalence relation which maks the elements of M and of M' be inverse, and multiplication in M be that of M.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez so it's that? "enlarge" $M$ to a group and preserve $M$s structure inside by taking such a quotient?
You can't in general enlarge M to a group
for example, $\mathbb N_0\cup\{\infty\}$ with addition
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Ah.
06:22
any map from that to a group is constant
Aha.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I have a problem.
Proving $S_{n-1}$ doesn't embed in $A_{n}$.
If n is odd that's easy
yes
=)
so the problem is n=2m
1, 2, 3 4th person to note this :)
the copy would have index m+1 in A_n
dunno if tht helps
@anon its a good observation!
06:27
I was first!
first in the history of mankind
I have a TeX file in notepad. How to convert it to pdf?
apparently a book on quantum group theory has an index followed by a "$2$-index" :)
@Sush TeXMaker?
@anon hmm, don¿t get it
play on the idea of n-categories
so we have 1-things, 2-things, 3-things, etc.
06:42
if S_{n-1} is contained in A_n, then inducing the sign representation from S_{n-1} to A_n gives a representation of dimension n/2, which is non trivial. Now for n>7, the smallest dimension of an nontrivial irrep of A_n is n-1, so we must have n<=7.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez so one is left with A_2,A_4,A_6... and things are easy? =O I don't really know anything about representations though
actually A_6's minimal irrep has dimension 5, so we have 6 too :-) (there are two in this case, but that doees not break anything)
A simple case: if $p=n-1$ is prime. For then $S_{n-1}$ has elements of order $p$ and $A_n$ doesn't
@PedroTamaroff Hi
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez yes, I was told that by German, he was TA in analysis II
it's also a good observation
@Sawarnik Hello.
@PedroTamaroff Which is greater, sin(sin(sin(1))) or cos(cos(cos(1)))? [in radians]
06:57
cos cos cos
The sine goes to zero
If $S_{n-1}$ is contained in $A_n$, then $A_n$ acts on the set $A_n/S_{n-1}$ which has $n/2$ elements, so we have a morphism $A_n\to S_{n/2}$
has an attractive point
This has to be injective as soon as $n\geq5$
@Sawarnik sin sin sin is of order 10^{-6}, cos cos cos 1 is near 1!
so $(n/2)!\geq n!/2$
06:58
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Ah! That's very nice.
However $2m!<(2m)!$ for $m>2$
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I have to prove that, though.
I take it it involves that A_n is simple?
For $n\geqslant 5?$
you cannot do anything with A_n if you do not know that
Hehehe.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Something slightly tragicomic happened today.
My brother called me from Starbucks, woke me up. Said "You told me you wanted to buy coffee". I said "Yeah! Bring one." He brought me a cup of coffee. I mean coffee, brewed, from the store, not the grains. =P
07:05
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez How does one approach a problem like this? If $x,y$ are 3-cycles in $S_n$; $\langle x,y\rangle$ is iso to $Z_3,A_4,A_5$ or $Z_3\times Z_3$. I have some ideas. Say if they commute, it is iso to the last one, if they are the same 3 cycle, is to $Z_3$ so I can assume $x\neq y$ and $xy\neq yx$.
"three cycles" $\ne$ "$3$-cycles"
@anon I mean $3$-cycles.
the 1st case also happens if xy=1
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Right.
Ah. The previous exercises deal with 3-cycle with x\neq y^{-1}.
an element in the subgroup generated by x and y will move, at most, the elements which are in the union of the supports of x and y
if that union has 6 elements or three, we know what happens
07:08
right, so if they have something in common (don't commute) I am at most in S_5
if x=(abc) and y=(def) consider whether |{a,b,c}\cap{d,e,f}| has 0, 1, 2, or 3 elements
so we need only consider the cases where the union has 4 and 5 elements
And the previous exercises has that. =P if they "are" in S_4, <x,y> is A_4
I have to show that
it is enough the to describe the groups generated by (123) and (145), on one hand, and (123) and (124) on the other
assuming x =/= y^{-1}
I did the above by counting, @Mariano.
The case things are in S_5 is a little more complicated.
But S_4 is easy
07:13
@PedroTamaroff What do you mean by order of 10^-6
@Sawarnik order of magnitude 10^{-6}
@Sawarnik This
@PedroTamaroff So sin sin sin 1 is veery close to 0?
At the physical level, I guess it is.
@PedroTamaroff So close! 10 ^ - 6?
For S_4 you can check that all 3-cyclees are in the group generated
so the group is contained in A_4
and sincee it is generated by even perms, it is A_4
07:17
@PedroTamaroff I still did not get what you said completely
@Sawarnik What part?
Likewise, th one with support of order 5 is also contained in A_5 because it is generated by even permutations.
@PedroTamaroff The 10^6 [my minus key along with many others is not working, I get frustated copying it from Sticky Notes, so I might omit that in obvious situations]
sin sin sin 1 is 0.67?
@PedroTamaroff Is this answer correct for math.stackexchange.com/questions/681324/tough-contest-problem :
We can easily compute the derivative of $f(x)=\cos(\cos(\cos(\cos(x))))$ by the chain rule, to get:

$$f'(x)= \sin(x)\cdot \sin(\cos(x))\cdot \sin(\cos(\cos(x)))\cdot \sin(\cos(\cos(\cos(x))))$$

And similarly for $g(x)= \sin(\sin(\sin(\sin(x))))$:

$$g'(x)= \cos(x)\cdot \cos(\sin(x))\cdot \cos(\sin(\sin(x)))\cdot \cos(\sin(\sin(\sin(x))))$$

If we can prove that the minimum value of $f$ is greater than the maximum value of $g$, then obviously there would obviously be no root of your equation. Since $f$ is continuous and has a period of $2\pi$, we can utilize the closed interval method on $
Oh, my bad.
I didn't do radians. =)
At any rate, I find the above really boring. =P
07:25
But you can probably use a Taylor sieres if you want.
sin sin sin 1 is 0.67..... and cos cos cos 1 is .65
So if you verify that, you're done.
At any rate, any calculator does something similar to get an approximate value.
@PedroTamaroff Should I post this as question on the main site?
Do what you like. =)
I was going to tell you "I don't want to tell you what to do."
But I just did.
@PedroTamaroff Since you find this boring, may I ask you what you like from what you might get from me?
@Sawarnik Come again?
@PedroTamaroff What?
07:29
I don't understand what you said
Anyhow... I should sleep now.
@PedroTamaroff Oh, I meant that you found this thing boring. So what you like, within my level?
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Byes! The other day I was meaning to ask you something the other day but I could not -- it's nothing serious, I'm just looking for advice. Would you mind me dropping by some day this week or the other?
@Sawarnik I like Analysis.
But that's quite a vague statement.
@PedroTamaroff Within MY level?
I don't know what your level is. Calculus is a nice subject, specially if one studies it carefully. There are some nice theorems in there. For example, Darboux's theorem on derivatives (that they satisfy the intermediate value property) is not that widely known.
@PedroTamaroff My level, is non rigourous understanding upto integrals. Seems that I have to study a lot to interest you.
07:36
@Sawarnik There is a nice book called "Understanding Analysis" by Stephen Abott.
If you search carefully you can even find a .pdf neat copy.
You can sleep, I wont disturb you now.
That's an awesome book.
Also Spivak.
Spivak is good.
Good is an understatement actually.
Fantastic. And with a british accent.
I will search thanks :)
@Sawarnik without checking all sounds a valid proof
and the graph from original question sustains your assertion
the graph of Sammy Black
@Pedro Weren't you going to sleep?
08:01
@Theta30 Just the last bit, sin sin sin 1 is greater or cos cos cos 1 , gonna ask on the main site.
i guess he was
08:18
@Sawarnik Without trying to put words too much into Pedro's mouth, I think the reason that this feels 'boring' in that at first glance it doesn't teach anything interesting or new. Perhaps if some magical method for comparing iterated sines and iterated cosines appears then there might be something interesting there, but it seems unlikely that you'll add new methods to your toolbox with a problem like this.
I freely confess to being old and grumpy, though: I generally have the same feeling about most of the 'contest style' three-way inequalities that seem to pop up so frequently.
I think inequalities are boring
But, I am a dirty analysis nonliker
@Theta30 I have a feeling my proof is wrong.
@Sawarnik (Also, FWIW: I can see the chat but many people who are on the main site may not have quite-so-easy access, and/or may not be able to dig back through the chat logs readily. I would encourage making the question self-contained in terms of motivation; you don't by any means have to, but it might bump interest in the question.)
As far as the original question goes, it would take a lot more poking, but I think the easier approach might be to just go through the doubly-iterated functions; with $f(x)=\sin(\sin(x))$ and $g(x) = \cos(\cos(x))$ then it certainly appears that $g(x)\gt f(x)$ everywhere, and there might be enough there to show from some combination of that and bounding ranges that $g(g(x))\gt f(f(x))$ everywhere.
08:47
Greetings
@N3buchadnezzar I've just created a marvellous double integral :-)
@N3buchadnezzar $$\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{y}{x} \left \lfloor \frac{x}{y} \right \rfloor \ dx \ dy$$
@N3buchadnezzar then you may try this version $$\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{y}{x} \left \lfloor \frac{x}{y} \right \rfloor \left\{\frac{x}{y}\right \}\ dx \ dy$$
09:08
Hi all! Let $A$ be an $n \times n$ matrix. What could be a reasonable choice for measuring the size of the matrix? What I am looking for is a mapping $\mu: \mathbb{R}^{n \times n} to \mathbb{R}$ that could "measure" the size of the matrix. Something like a norm for vectors. Could determinant be such a measure? What else? To be more specific, having two multivariate Gaussian distributions (two covariance matrices), I would like to be able to talk about "small" and "big" covariance matrix.
09:40
@Chris'ssis Here?
10:05
I`ve been looking at this question math.stackexchange.com/questions/430276/… for a few hours now..
$$
\int^{ na }_{ma} \cfrac{ \log(x-a) }{ \, x^2+a^2 \, } \,\mathrm{d}x
=
\cfrac{\log 2a^2}{2a^2} \bigl( \arctan n - \arctan m \bigr)
$$
I know this result to be true, I have checed it numerically for a few hundred values and they all seem to hold.
Now, the integral can possibly be show by using the clever substitution
$$
x \mapsto \frac{at + a^2}{t - a}
$$
By using this and simplifying one finally gets that
$$
I_1 = \int_{ma}^{na} \frac{\ln(2a^2)}{(t^2+a^2)}\mathrm{d}t - I_1
$$
@DanielFischer, goodmorning! Could you consider for a bit my question above? About the measure of a matrix. Thanks a lot!
what properties do you want this to have
This is a simple equation that can be solved for $I_i$, but doing so leads to something strange
$$
I_1 = \frac{\log(2a^2)}{2} \int_{ma}^{na}\frac{\mathrm{d}t}{(t^2+a^2)}
= \cfrac{\log 2a^2}{2a} \bigl( \arctan n - \arctan m \bigr)
$$
Which is not what one wanted to show! There is an $a$ factor missing, and I can not for the life of me figure out where this error snuck in.
@nullgeppetto There are various matrix norms. Probably an operator norm would be more useful to you than the Frobenius norm.
10:24
@DanielFischer, thanks a lot! Have a nice day!
Thanks, I'm trying to have one. Have one yourself too.
@DanielFischer, :-)
 
1 hour later…
11:44
@robjohn I think I've found a way to finish that.
@Chris'ssis Good... I have not had time to look into it. Sorry.
@robjohn I was so depressed last evening I felt I'm completely lost. I couldn't bear that situation. I simply saw no way.
@robjohn I still have to work on it. The way is now clear to me.
@Chris'ssis There are times I've just had to step back from a problem for a while. I just keep banging my head on the same walls. Take a break and get a fresh start later.
2
@robjohn That's a great piece of advice.
12:08
@robjohn I think this is the most beautiful question I attended this year, but it's so evil.
12:19
hi
can Dijkstra;s SP algorithm be applied for
non directed graphs
doe the graph needs to be directed?
Huy
Huy
13:07
Let $A, B$ be two Hermitian matrices and $B$ positive semi-definite. I want to find the eigenvalues of $A-tB$ for $t \geq 0$. As those are the solutions of $$\det (\lambda - (A-tB)) = 0$$ for $\lambda$, I thought I will have $n$ polynomials as a solution. However, in a paper I am currently reading, it is stated "The $n$ functions $\lambda_1, \dots, \lambda_n$ are restrictions to $\mathbb{R}_+$ of branches of the solution $\lambda$ of the polynomial equation $\det(\dots) = 0$.
Is that statement due to different branches of taking the complex root? How would I find "the" solution $\lambda$ of the polynomial equation?
13:24
@PedroTamaroff I think it's : Find a non-zero $\mathcal{C^{\large 1}}$ function $f(x)$ over $\Bbb R$ with non-zero derivative such that $$f(f(x)) = 1$$
Dunno, though, have to check later whether this is the only condition imposed on it.
(PS : My believe is that there are none)
@N3buchadnezzar Limit superior?
What's on RH, @Mats?
@BalarkaSen Nothing, as impossible to me as always.
@BalarkaSen ?
@N3buchadnezzar limsup, or more compactly, "sup".
Toxicated American English.
@MatsGranvik Are you familiar with Conrey's method of pushin Hardy-Littlwood's proof of "a positive proportion of zeta lies on critical line" to "the positive proportion is 1/3"?
I am looking for it a while.
@BalarkaSen Check out an hour ago or so in chat, simple problem. Nobody bothered to answer :p
Banana comes to the party.
13:35
@BalarkaSen No I am not familiar with it. I have heard about the result, but that is about all I know.
@BalarkaSen A.
@MatsGranvik Are you familiar with Hardy-Littlewood's result?
@BalarkaSen No, not really familiar with Hardy Littlewood. My approach to Riemann hypothesis has not ever been to be able to prove that zeros are where they should be. Instead I set my self the goal of finding a formula for the first zeta zeros a few years ago. But at the time I said that, I knew that it is impossible. It is not that we don't know what the zeta zeros are, they are the zeros of the Riemann zeta function. But I hope there would be a simple formula for the zeros, as I said.
@MatsGranvik I believe there isn't a simple formula for zeta zeros. In fact, it is a mere consequence of that of the primes that zeta zeros are deterministically random.
@JasperLoy A
14:12
@BalarkaSen You there?
 
2 hours later…
16:13
Hey guys I was wondering if anyone knows an answer to this
2
Q: Function integrable over the interior but not over the set

Mika H. Let $S$ be a bounded set in $\mathbb{R}^n$; let $f:S\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be a bounded continuous function; let $A$ be the interior of $S$. Give an example where $\int_Af$ exists and $\int_Sf$ does not. There's a theorem that says if $\int_Sf$ does not exist, then for a set $E$ of measure n...

THe answer posted is a fat cantor set thing
but I was wondering if a simpler example like $\mathbb{Q} \cap \mathbb{R}$ might work just as well
The measure on boundary would be non-zero
Hello....Can anyone help me express the statement " Any mammal that has long ears has at least one of its predators with yellow eyes having all of its cubs that cannot fly" in the logical mathematical way.
and we can let our function be lets say 1
16:38
Hello, guy! Can you please help me figure out what's objectionable with this proof?
it's a proof that the arithmetic mean is at least as large as the geometric mean
for all real nonnegative integers a and b
(a+b)/2 >= sqrt(ab)
a+b >= 2 * sqrt(ab)
a^2+2ab+b^2 >= 4ab
a^2-2ab+b^2 >= 0
(a-b)^2 >= 0
which is true since squares of real numbers are nonnegative
what could be objectionable here?
16:56
@KareemMesbah well you didn't prove it
@AlexanderGruber actually, this is not my proof
this is a bogus proof
the proof assumes it is true and then shows it leads to something else that is true
but that doesn't imply that the original assumption was true
for example i could assume that 1=2, multiply both sides by 0, and conclude that 0=0, which is true. but that doesn't mean 1 really equals 2.
@AlexanderGruber, well, could you please help me fix that?
just gimme a hint not the answer
@KareemMesbah you could try reversing the steps: you want to finish the proof with $(a+b)/2\geq \sqrt{ab}$

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