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12:00
So then we are left with $\text{Re}\left( \int_0^{2\pi} e^{x} \mathrm{d}x \right)$
@robjohn, please help me too!
12:22
going sleep night
Can I say that the ordinal of seg(b) where b belongs to B, has an ordinal equal or lesser to that of B? (where both are ordered in the same well-order)
Not sure what seg(b) is, or B for that matter
Say that <A,<> is an ordered set, the set seg(a) [where a belongs to A] is the set {x belongs to A: x<a}
Which means the set that includes all the 'items' in A that come before the item a
ok
yes, you can say that
12:35
Now, I want to say that the ordinal of <seg(a),<> is lesser or equal to the ordinal of <A,<>.. I need it as a lema for some proof, not sure how to go about proving that though
I see, thought so - any hint on how to go about proving it though?
Actually, I will go back to the definition of ordinal and go about figuring it out that way. Thanks Karl!
Yeah, it is immediate from the definition.
(Or, at least, the definition I have in mind)
It's not the definition I have in my text-book, that's for sure :P
You say two well-ordered sets are equivalent if and only if there is an order-preserving bijection between the two.
It is the same definition.
Then, each equivalence contains a unique von-Neumann ordinal.
12:41
I am not yet into von-Neuman ordinals, unfortunately.
You can also order the equivalence classes themselves, so no big deal.
@N3buchadnezzar it is now a contour integral...
The ordering is given by $\alpha<\beta$ iff there exists $A\in\alpha$ and $B\in\beta$ such that $A$ is an initial segment of $B$. (Where $\alpha,\beta$ are equivalence classes, as above.)
So I get that <seg(a),<> has a unique ordinal, and so does <A,<>, question is how do I bring it about that the ordinal of the first is lesser or equal to the ordinal of the latter
@N3buchadnezzar $\mathrm{Re}\left(\oint ze^z\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{iz}\right)$ where the contour is the unit circle.
@Sush I was working on your answer. It is not easy to figure out how best to present some things.
12:46
Probably coming of as stupid here Karl, but wouldn't it be a<=b (= in the case that A is the whole of B)
Oh wait, didn't read the edit..
Yeah, it should be.
Too late to fix.
Alright, thanks - that is what I need to prove though, isn't it?
@N3buchadnezzar and there is no singularity of $\frac1ie^z$ in the unit circle.
Or well, it's what I want to prove..
It serves as a definition. I am not sure how the ordering relation on ordinals is defined in your book, so I just gave the one I was using.
12:51
Between every equivalence class and the set that has that equivalence class there is a bijective function, correct?
uh, I can read that in two ways
Oh, oh, nevermind. Got it, finally.
It's not a definition (what you wrote) in my book but can very easily reach to it from three seperate definitions - thanks Karl!
No problem
I think I am losing it, it starts to feel fun..
@RamanaVenkata The dirac measure is singular with respect to Lebesgue measure. If the set contains $0$ it has dirac measure $1$, if not, it has measure $0$.
@RamanaVenkata can you compute the function $F$ for that measure?
13:09
@BalarkaSen no, i haven't
13:34
Got to another lema, yet not sure if this one is even right.. <A,<> Is an ordered set. <A,<> is well-ordered iff for every a in A, the segment defined by a is well-ordered by <
By the way, Alexander, I have seen your answer here. I don't think this is what OP wants (which is not clear, as I have said before).
Any input will be appreciated - I fear it is wrong, since I can imagine a situation where it isn't so clear that it is right, yet it should be right..
@AlexanderGruber I am trying to give a functional extension answer to the question. Do you think it worths it?
seg(a)={x belongs to A|x<a} which means all the items before a
Yeah, I thought for some reason seg(a) required A to be well-ordered. meh.
13:36
@BalarkaSen sure, by all means
That would've made this one easier..
@Studentmath Hm, I am not sure about this one.
Same. It should be true though..
Though, say I take densely ordered set A..
I think we could let $A=\{a,b\}$ and put the following trivial ordering relation on it $\{(a,a),(b,b)\}$.
Oh, yeah, you probably want, at a minimum, that $A$ is linearly ordered.
Actually, the ordering relation being linear is good enough, as far as I can tell.
Yeah, if I can get from there to the fact that the ordering relation is linear, then <A,<> is well-ordered
13:40
Well, the $A$ I gave is densely ordered.
It's not necessarily linear.
@AlexanderGruber I am preparing a draft. The question is so vague that I can't say surely if I am writing what he wants. Review it for me when I finish, will you?
What does that trivial relation mean? (I sound extremely stupid, I know...)
I meant a<=a, b<=b and nothing else.
I see, alright
You can take two disjoint copies of $\mathbb Q$ for a less contrived example.
13:44
Yes, I see.. it seems to me from that, that the lema isn't true - doesn't it?
As stated, the lemma is false.
Odd, but thanks!
The given $A$ may have enough properties to make that kind of thing work though.
Yeah another easy example would be a densely ordered set A with a least element, a subset of it without the least element wouldn't necesserily have a least element too.. so it's false. I will look that through though, maybe I am missing other properties that could help me with it, yes. Once again, many thanks!
You're welcome
13:50
No, it's true! figured out why too.
@Alexander Would you do me a favour?
Keep the question open.
Each segment is well ordered by <. so for every a that belongs to A we take, the segment is well-ordered, so for every given a, all the items before him are well ordered by <, so the entire set is well ordered by <.
(I though mods might close it due to vagueness)
(A rough explanation but I hope you get the point)
@KarlKronenfeld
@BalarkaSen i mean, i don't control who accepts what
13:57
@AlexanderGruber At least you are a mod. Keep your vote out of that ;)
why would I unilaterally close a question that I answered? Lol
14:18
Plus we speak of ordered sets a.k.a. strictly ordered sets, which is a very important note too
14:49
what is a topological product of S^1 and R? Does it look like an infinite cylinder?
yop
15:22
@AlexanderGruber yeah, leave that to me :-)
@user20997 That's what it looks like as far as I can see...
@robjohn NOOO!
I am still preparing the draft!
@BalarkaSen If you're worried about people closing the question, post a preliminary answer. You can always edit an answer, even if the question is closed.
The preliminary answer should be a good answer, though
@robjohn Heya! I understood the method you showed me for integrating the function, but can you check if my following argument holds? Otherwise I will probably ask it as a question on the site
@N3buchadnezzar Sure.
15:27
$u(x,y) = \text{Re}(z e^z) = x e^x \cos y - y e^x \sin y$
From before we know that there exists an analytic function $f = u + i v$
Now we integrate $f$ around a closed path, the unit circle.
@robjohn I doubt a preliminary answer would be quite satisfactory. Besides, I am already finished.
Since $f$ is analytic this integral should be zero
@BalarkaSen cool
@N3buchadnezzar yep.
$$ \oint_C f\,\mathrm{d}s = \oint_C u\,\mathrm{d}s + i \oint_C v\,\mathrm{d}s $$
@N3buchadnezzar except, even if the integrand is analytic, the differential is $\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{iz}$
@N3buchadnezzar This picks up the value at $0$ times $2\pi$
15:31
Since the integral is zero we have that
$$
\oint_C u \,\mathrm{d}s = \frac{1}{i} \oint_C v\,\mathrm{d}s
$$
The lefthandside is real, and the righthandside is imaginary. Hence in order for the two sides to be equal, both integrals has to be zero.
Can one use this argument?
@robjohn Can an answer of a closed question have upvotes?
@N3buchadnezzar Another way of doing this is to use the mean value property of harmonic functions.
@BalarkaSen and downvotes.
Yeah, our proffesor told is this was the way to do it
@N3buchadnezzar They both amount to exactly the same thing in the case of a circular contour.
@robjohn I have finished the essential parts of the question and posting it, leaving a remark that the other part is 'on preparation'. Is that good?
@robjohn You have a cruel sense of humor.
15:33
But is the line integral method correct as well ? Okay
@BalarkaSen sounds fine
$$
u(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} u(z_0 + r e^{i \theta})\,\mathrm{d}\theta
$$
@N3buchadnezzar The mean value property is the line integral
@N3buchadnezzar that's it
Which is the middle value theorem written up for explicit the interval 0 to 2pi
But my problem is that we have $e^{i\theta}$ ?
$h(\theta) = u(\cos x, \sin x)$ which is real
@robjohn Fine. Done.
0
A: What is the difference between a non-solvable algebraic number and a transcendental number?

Balarka SenAbel-Ruffini theorem, which I am sure you are familiar with, simply says that the roots of a general polynomial of degree $n \geq 5$ is not solvable in radicals. I will modify this argument a bit to get my answer started. Abel-Ruffini theorem : The roots of a general polynomial of degree $n \geq...

15:36
@N3buchadnezzar You simply integrate the harmonic function around the unit circle and get the value at the center.
Gimme a second to write
@BalarkaSen Is $x^5+x+1$ non-solvable? I think that gives one example
@robjohn $x^5 + x + 1 = (x^2 + x + 1)(x^3 - x^2 + 1)$ is solvable. And what example?
$$ \begin{align*}
\int_0^{2\pi} h(\theta)\,\mathrm{d}\theta
& =
\int_0^{2\pi} u(\cos x,\sin x)\,\mathrm{d}x \\
& =
2\pi \text{Re}\left[ \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} u(0 + e^{i\theta})\,\mathrm{d}\theta\right]
\end{align*}$$
Nevermind.
15:39
@robjohn Something like this ?
@BalarkaSen ah, it's not even irreducible. However, if we have a fifth degree polynomial with a non-solvable Galois group, it can't be solved by radicals, right?
@robjohn Yes. So?
@N3buchadnezzar That looks right.
@N3buchadnezzar and what is $u(0,0)$?
zero ofcourse..
@BalarkaSen Then that root is a non-solvable algebraic, but not a transcendental.
15:41
@robjohn Yes, but I believe the question asks something different.
I just do not see why we can write $u$ on that form
More like a discrimination than direct comparison.
@BalarkaSen Oh, I was extrapolating from what I can see here.
I tried expanding and computing the real part, but they are not alike
@N3buchadnezzar Hang on...
15:42
$u(0 + e^{i}\theta))$ does not even make sense to me, since $u$ should deppend on two variables not one
@N3buchadnezzar $e^{i\theta}=(\cos(\theta),\sin(\theta))$
You do know the relation between $\mathbb{C}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$
Yeah, but more familiar with $e^{i\theta} = \cos \theta + i \sin \theta$
@robjohn Ah, they are isomorphic
@N3buchadnezzar That is how the Cauchy-Riemann equations are imposed
Thanks, that was the last piece I was missing. Sorry for asking so many questions for each problem. I really try to understand it before moving on.
Since they are defined on $\mathbb{R}^2$
15:54
Hi, someone to confirm :u^2+v^2 is a prime number which is congruent to 1 (mod 4) for this math.stackexchange.com/questions/659023/…
please, thanks
16:19
=)
Is anybody here familiar with Java and the Monte Carlo method of estimating $\pi$?
16:46
I hate stack overflow... They seem like a bunch of stuck up assholes who do nothing but downvote your questions.
There seems to be no point in asking any questions there, as they always effectively tell me to stop asking bad questions and go research it myself... But what if I did research it myself and still can't understand it? Who am I supposed to ask if I can't ask anybody for help?
Last question for me, today: Any good ideas on how to prove that the sum of all Aleph ns where n is natural number is aleph w? I am asked to compute, I know it's the answer, I am just unsure about how to prove it - perhaps by stating the set of such alephs has the ordinal of w, but.. I am unsure how that leads me there, can't find a good proven statement to use or think of one to prove. Any input will be loved!
@agent154 I assume they think such questions belong to stackexchange, and not to professional post-graduate more discussion orienated math forum.. but I may be wrong, never posted that (out of my league)
@Studentmath I said stack overflow, not math overflow
Oh.
My bad.
stack overflow is part of stack exchange. It's the site dedicated to programming
Hah, good to know not to ask questions there when I get stack in my programming courses :P
16:57
Finally, done.
0
A: What is the difference between a non-solvable algebraic number and a transcendental number?

Balarka SenAbel-Ruffini theorem, which I am sure you are familiar with, simply says that the roots of a general polynomial of degree $n \geq 5$ is not solvable in radicals. I will modify this argument a bit to get my answer started. Abel-Ruffini theorem : The roots of a general polynomial of degree $n \geq...

@AlexanderGruber
@Mike You are betting against something that has been searched upto $10^{165}$?
6
Q: Do we know a number $n\gt 5$ with no twin prime $n\lt q\lt 2n$?

Ian MateusThis is essentially a Bertrand's postulate version for twin primes. I am interested in both an explicit example and large lower bounds for it because of this answer of mine. In the comments below the answer, it is shown that there is no such $n$ below $8\times 10^{15}$. An efficient algorithm wo...

@Balarka I take it back since it would contradict the k-tuple conjecture (obviously, in retrospect), which I'd rather believe than not. But that's got nothing to do with how much we've checked it.
@Mike Okay.
I have no real intuition on k-tuple, though, so no betting on that.
small ks are obviously true, not sure what happens at large.
All I can say is that I don't believe in Hypothesis H.
:13582604 Can you explain me the question?
17:16
@BalarkaSen I just think it diverts from the question.
@PedroTamaroff Yeah, but what is the question?
@BalarkaSen "What is the difference between a non-solvable algebraic number and a transcendental number?"
@Mike But then I don't believe in H-L convexity conjecture, so I am in rather leagues with k-tuple.
@PedroTamaroff My believe is that this is not what he wants to be answered, which can be easily done as "By definition, of course!"
See his Q before the edit.
Don't you need to change something here $$\left[\frac{\vartheta_{10}(0|\tau)}{\vartheta_{00}(0|\tau)}\right]^4 +\left[\frac{\vartheta_{10}(0|\tau)}{\vartheta_{00}(0|\tau)}\right]^4=1$$
?
You wrote $_{10}$ on both terms.
@PedroTamaroff Done.
@Pedro Well, if you think the answer is irrelevant, I can delete that. The question is very vague and I knew from the beginning I don't understand what OP wants.
17:22
@BalarkaSen I don't know if it is irrelevant, but sometimes it is easy to get carried away.
@PedroTamaroff Like where?
Where actually do you think has a tendency of getting carried away?
http://mathoverflow.net/a/102186/25104
There is a new plot of the zeta zero counting staircase, remains to do it by integration and not the with the accumulate Mathematica command.
scale = 400;
Print["Counting to 60"]
Monitor[g1 =
ListLinePlot[
Accumulate[(1 -
Table[Re[
Zeta[1/2 - I*k]*
Total[Table[
Total[MoebiusMu[Divisors[n]]/
Divisors[n]^(1/2 - I*k - 1)]/n/Log[scale]/1.35, {n,
1, scale}]]], {k, 0 + 1/1000, 60, N[1/6]}])^12],
DataRange -> {0, 60}, PlotRange -> {-0.15, 15}];, Floor[k]]
Show[g1]
@Pedro For example, is Myersen's answer relevant?
17:43
@BalarkaSen Gerry?
@N3buchadnezzar I have something for you I just created. Does it possibly have a nice closed form?
$$1-\zeta(2)+2-\zeta(2)-\zeta(3)+3-\zeta(2)-\zeta(3)-\zeta(4)+\cdots$$
@Chris'ssis Likely.
@PedroTamaroff Yes.
@BalarkaSen Do you have in mind a possible answer?
@Chris'ssis Give it to me in series form.
@Chris'ssis I don't see a pattern.
@BalarkaSen Well, he seems to be more simplistic: "If the group is solvable, then the roots of the polynomial can be expressed in radicals; if not, not."
17:46
@PedroTamaroff $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(n-\sum_{k=1}^n \zeta(k+1)\right)$$
@PedroTamaroff That's something comment-sized, I think.
err
where'd that $1^n$ come from
@Mike What?
there we go
Pretty good.
17:48
Oh. I see.
@Chris'ssis interchange summation.
@BalarkaSen Justified by what?
um
the inner sum depends on $n$
@PedroTamaroff That can be though of later.
no, it really can't
17:49
@BalarkaSen That's a physicist's talk!
@Mike So? What stops?
@BalarkaSen OK, just continue with your idea.
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum_{k=1}^\infty f(n, k) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\sum_{n=k}^\infty f(n, k)$$
Under some conditions, of course.
Sure.
So, you have $$\sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {\sum\limits_{k = 1}^n {\left( {1 - \zeta (k + 1)} \right)} } $$
I wouldn't work with that if I were you.
17:54
Well, the inner terms are all positive.
So you can change the order of summation.
Oh, I see.
Sure, then.
Odd. I keep getting something other than I should. Is it possible the number of all countable ordinals who're not follow ups (as in, they can't be represented in a+1) is Aleph_null and not Aleph_one? It's the group {w,w+w,w+w+w,....w*n....}, so it has the ordinal of w, which means it's alike to N ordered by <... what am I doing wrong here?
@Chris'ssis Does this help $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n f(n, k) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\sum_{n=k}^\infty f(n, k)$$
@Pedro all negative, you mean
2
@Mike Yes, nevertheless, it's OK.
Take the effing minus out.
17:56
right
why am i getting re-involved in this
At any rate, I have two group theory problemsto solve.
What's the difference between set and group theory, if I may ask and not sound overly stupid?
@Studentmath Groups are sets endowed with binary ops.
17:58
I see
@BalarkaSen Well, special binary operations.
Like Ralph.
How's that? Irrelevant, eh? =D
You get used to praise here.
People are too easily impressed.
Yeah =D
And that's bad, right?
Don't know if it's left or right, just true.
18:03
@PedroTamaroff Not everywhere here! Just in Galois theory and transcendental number theory =D
@Mike I think the disproof of Bertrand's postulate for twin primes doesn't make the $k$-tuple conjecture false. Hardy just suggested an asymptotic, it says nothing about sporadic irregularities (though it would be a spetacularly strong one)
Hello
@Nimza Hello.
@PedroTamaroff hi :)
18:18
@BalarkaSen at what rep does an SE user become emeritus?
@robjohn 100k. Bill has already become one.
There are a number of 100K+ users. There is even two 200K+ users
Hm. Then 500k?
Kind of a catch 22 there. Hit 100k rep, and you are automatically declared retired and inactive. Intentionally stop acquiring rep before you hit 100k, and you are retired and inactive by definition.
For me, I delete my accounts periodically, lol.
18:21
@JasperLoy How many have you deleted so far?
@BalarkaSen I lost count.
Jasper has a phoenix complex.
2
Yes, I suppose the academic system doesn't have the analogue of reincarnation.
Unless you believe in reincarnation, I guess.
@BalarkaSen what is the final answer you got?
@Chris'ssis I haven't tried yet.
18:25
@BalarkaSen ah, OK.
@Mike Pete hasn't answered my mail yet. =(
Can we switch like this $$\sum_{k=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^{k+1}} = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{i^{k+1}}$$?
Ignore that.
@robjohn?
@Pedro?
@Ian There would be no tuple of the form $(p,p+2,p+6,p+8)$
@BalarkaSen What?
@Pedro Maybe he never will . . .
18:31
2 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
Can we switch like this $$\sum_{k=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^{k+1}} = \sum_{i=1}^\infty \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{i^{k+1}}$$?
@BalarkaSen You're a big boy, what do you think?
I have no idea. My mind has gone blank.
@BalarkaSen looks okay
@robjohn Thanksies.
@Mike why? Note that I'm assuming a single counterexample suffices to destroy the postulate
18:32
@Mike Damn you! =D
For $p$ large enough, if Bertrand's postulate is false, then $(p,2p)$ has no twin primes
But $p+6$ is decidedly a twin prime if it's part of such a $k$-tuple
@Mike this is stronger than the negation of the postulate
No, it's not
@Studentmath $\omega\cdot\omega,\, \omega\cdot\omega+\omega,\,\dotsc$
Goddamnit
18:36
@Mike I am trying to prove that an abelian group of composite order is not simple. My idea is to show that if $|G|=mn$ then the subgroups $\{x:x^m=1\}$ and $\{x:x^n=1\}$ are proper and nontrivial. In fact, it suffices to do it with one $m$, and we may assume $m$ is prime. Ah, then it is a consequence of Cauchy's theorem.
@DanielFischer HAI!
Wait no that wasn't worth a goddamnti
@PedroTamaroff Shark? Where?
@Ian If BP were false for twin primes, then for large enough twin prime $P$, there are no twin primes between $(p,2p)$ (with $p>P$)
@Chris'ssis I'll let you simplify $$S = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1-1/i^n}{1-1/i}$$
Now the $k$-tuple conjecture implies there are an infinity of $(p,p+2,p+6,p+8)$
18:38
Then you can try computing $\sum_{n \geq 1} (n - S)$
Which will result your summation.
This was quite easy.
In particular, there's a $(p,p+2,p+6,p+8)$ with $p>P$, which would contradict the falseness of twin-BP
@DanielFischer WAT?
@Mike ok, now I understand your version of the postulate. I was confused because I added the restriction $p\gt 5$, so my version could have had the scenario "a single counterexample, while still holding for sufficiently large $p$". This doesn't happen in your version, I get it now
@PedroTamaroff "Hai" is German for shark.
@Ian I don't understand what you mean there. I would implicitly add that too, since there are obviously no twins between $3$ and $6$
18:42
@DanielFischer Oh. Didn't know that.
Does anyone know how can I add my yahoo account to my gmail account?
@Mike your version: "BP holds for sufficiently large $p$". My version, a stronger one: "BP holds for any $p\gt 5$"
no
i'm using yours
$\text{yahoo account} + \text{gmail account}$, @PedroTamaroff?
my "twin BP": "for a prime $p>3$, if $p+2$ is prime, then there exists some prime $p' \in (p,2p)$ with $p'+2$ also prime"
oh
@DanielFischer ¬¬ I was told I can make my google account "pick up" my yahoo correspondence too, i.e. add my account to google's gmail.
18:44
nope, you're right
i'm using the one you said is mine
i redact and return to my original "goddamnit" and storm off
@Mike Yep.
@Mike You stormed and returned.
$Q_8$ is solvable, right @DanielFischer?
Surely.
@BalarkaSen I don't know what is the easy part. I think something is wrong in my question.
@PedroTamaroff All groups of order $< 60$ are solvable (nice exercise, that, by the way).
18:50
@DanielFischer Heh, OK. I have to find all 7 composition series for $D_8$; I found the three composition series for $Q_8$.
@Chris'ssis I am currently busy thinking another problem, I will get back after I am done. Meanwhile, @robjohn might jump in?
@PedroTamaroff A composition series, was that with abelian factors, or with simple factors?
@DanielFischer Simple.
@BalarkaSen That is $\zeta(2)+\zeta(3)+\dots+\zeta(n+1)$
@PedroTamaroff And does your $D_8$ have $8$ elements, or $16$?
18:53
@DanielFischer $8$ elements, acts on $4$ vertices.
@robjohn I was thinking of partial sums when I wrote that.
@PedroTamaroff Then you don't really have many possibilities to try, should be doable.
And taking $\lim_{N \to \infty}$
@DanielFischer I have the lattice of subgroups, and I know what the normal subgroups of $D_8$ are, so that's a start.
It doesn't have too many subgroups of index $2$, for a start.
18:55
@DanielFischer Three.
And all other subgroups are contained in those.
One of the three has a single subgroup of index $2$, the other two have three each, makes $7$.
@BalarkaSen If you start your sum at $i=2$ then the limit is $1$
@DanielFischer Right.
@BalarkaSen this is the correct version $$1+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\left(n-\sum_{k=2}^{n}\zeta{(k)}\right)$$
@BalarkaSen I create lots of questions, and there are also mistakes, I'm not a robot. :D
@Chris'ssis don't you want $n-1-\sum\zeta(k)$?
19:02
@robjohn yeah, why not ? With a "+" you mean?
@Chris'ssis The thing I was thinking of was $$\sum_{k=2}^\infty(\zeta(k)-1)=1$$
@robjohn Indeed.
@DanielFischer Yes, thanks, I got to it eventually.. a bit of twisting and few lemas (as I have to use specific proofs in the text-book)
@robjohn Other than amazon.com is there any other big seller in the US that has many math books? I know about barnesandnoble.com.
@Chris'ssis The sum is of $n-1$ $\zeta$s and I think we need to cancel a $1$ per each
@JasperLoy Those are the two places I would look.
19:05
@robjohn True, I misunderstood things.
@robjohn OK, do you have a preference for one over the other?
Here is the beauty $$1+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\left(n-\sum_{k=2}^{n}\zeta{(k)}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
:D
@JasperLoy I don't really. I would just look to see who has your book and if both do, who has it for less.
@Chris'ssis never mind
@Chris'ssis why not just sum $n$ from $1$ instead and forget the extra $1$?
@robjohn Oh, right! Thanks!
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(n-\sum_{k=2}^{n}\zeta{(k)}\right)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
It's really cute now! :D
19:38
I answered 2 lhf just now.
$$
\begin{align}
\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(n-\sum_{k=2}^n\zeta(k)\right)
&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(1-\sum_{k=2}^n(\zeta(k)-1)\right)\\
&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty(\zeta(k)-1)\\
&=\sum_{k=2}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^{k-1}(\zeta(k)-1)\\
&=\sum_{k=2}^\infty(k-1)(\zeta(k)-1)\\
&=\sum_{k=2}^\infty\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{k-1}{n^k}\\
&=\sum_{n=2}^\infty\sum_{k=2}^\infty\frac{k-1}{n^k}\\
&=\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac1{n^2}\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{k+1}{n^k}\\
&=\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac1{n^2}\frac1{(1-1/n)^2}\\
&=\zeta(2)
@robjohn nice :-)
Because ... $$\sum_{k=2}^\infty(\zeta(k)-1)=1$$
Heh... my high scoring answer today is from Aug 20 last year. I wonder why the sudden interest.
@Chris'ssis yep
@robjohn Maybe there was a bump?
@JasperLoy I don't see any edits.
19:49
@robjohn Haha, then maybe someone linked to it from a recent question...
@JasperLoy I was looking into that...
@robjohn Mhenni linked his answer, a scrolling shows yours
@IanMateus a current answer?
@robjohn see here
@IanMateus I should have started at the bottom of this page
19:58
@robjohn Hehehe
@IanMateus Now I should try to answer that question :-)
@robjohn definitely!

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