@Eric Need to have dollar signs ($) around your latex code
@DonLarynx I got you beat. I have an exam coming up in like 3 weeks for a course that I haven't gone to in over a month... Hell, since it started in September, I've gone maybe 10 times at most.
The class is taught by a professor that can barely speak English, so most of the class doesn't bother going at all. We get nothing from him.
I've got an assignment due in that class on Monday, of which I know nothing about... so I have to learn the material over the weekend to do so, taking time away from a group project I'm working on.
indeed. It's true when the $B_i$ are both finite. When dealing with finite transcendence basis, it's a lemma which allows conclude that any two finite transcendence basis have the same number of elements. In the infinite case, there's another proof, but I wonder if we can proceed by using this again
@KarlKronenfeld I am unable to see how the bound $(4/\pi)^sn^n/n!\le\sqrt{|\Delta|}$ yields Hermite-Minkowski (i.e. there are finitely many number fields of given discriminant). ideas?
the few sources on google search results insinuate ramification is involved, but (a) I don't want to think about ramification and (b) stewart/tall doesn't even seem to mention ramification anywhere, so they can't expect us to use it in an exercise
@anon Yeah, I don't really have any ideas. Of course only finitely many $n$ satisfy that relation, but (given my limited knowledge of any of this stuff) going from there to finitely many extensions seems nontrivial.
How does one go about proving $\Pi(x)= \sum_{r \ge 1}\frac{\pi(x^{\frac{1}{r}})}{r} \Leftrightarrow \pi(x)= \sum_{r \ge 1} \frac{\mu(r)}{r} \Pi(x^{\frac{1}{r}})$? It's obviously a Mobius inversion but I'm clueless as to how to execute it.
Here are a few functions whose continuity, differentiability and existence of partial derivatives are to be checked at the origin. I have given the answers, but I would really appreciate it if someone could check it for me :) $$1. f(x,y)=\sin x\sin(x+y)\sin(x-y)$$ Continuous, differentiable, part...
Also to prove that a multivariable function is continous one has to show that its value is independant of the path you aproach the point. Luckilly as long as your function does not contain any singularities, you are fine.
Mathematical singularity, a point at which a given mathematical object is not defined or not "well-behaved", for example infinite or not differentiable. Here you would end up dividing by zero, which never is a good thing.
Limits are all about the journey towards a point or place. Limits do not care the slightest about what actually happens at the point, only how the function is behaving towards the point.
We are very strict on the difference between being differentiable in a point, and being differentiable on a domain or region. Ah, the question states to check origo explicitly.
In that case yes. But from your post it seems that your argument goes like this: Hey I found the directional derivative at origo, hence my function is differentiable here. That is wrong, eg computing the explicit expression at origion is somewhat pointless.
I actually have an exam on groups and symmetries round the corner... any advice ? :)
@N3buchadnezzar Apparently the answers are wrong. I was trying this online assignment and that says that my answers are incorrect... I don't know which one is wrong, though.
I saw this inequality a while ago, stated as an obvious fact $$ \frac{x - y}{\log x - \log y} \leq \sqrt{xy} $$ Is there any obvious argument as to why this holds?
It looks similar to the Lipshitz condition, or perhaps Jensens Inequality. But it is not quite the same.
Because of the people who frequent the chat, the topic often sway towards integration, sums and problem solving. So being absent from chat has a few downsides, including missing out on cake and soda.
I was wondering if there is some hope for computing this by real methods $$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-nx} (\cot(x)+\coth(x))\sin(nx) \ dx =\frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{1+e^{-n\pi}}{1-e^{-n\pi}}\right)^{(-1)^{n}}$$
@robjohn Why would it be so? I mean, I am trying to understand the sense of it, so I know where to look for the solution. Let’s say I have a complete graph K_5, then there would be no trips of length 3, would there? They all would be longer, because all vertices are connected.
I feel like I'd prefer to attend a series this beautiful evening. Maybe this one $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{3^n}\left(\frac{\pi }{\pi^2-3\pi+3}\right)^{1/3^n}$$
@theUg You have three nodes, each connected to the other two. There are two paths to get back to the same node (e.g. 1->2->1 and 1->3->1 are the ways to get from 1 back to 1 in two hops) and only one way to get to another node (e.g. 1->3->2 is the only way to get from 1 to 2 in two hops)
@theUg for that one, you can get from 1 to 1 in three hops in two ways: 1->2->3->1 and 1->3->2->1. To get from 1 to 2, there are 3 ways in three hops to get from 1 to 2: 1->2->3->2, 1->2->1->2, and 1->3->1->2.
@robjohn Okay, that makes sense now, but does not help me relate it to matrix tree theorem. I just do not understand relation fundamentally. And just looking at two pages of dense text of proof of this theorem just scares me.
And it kinda sucks too, because I hardly ever did matrices before (I have trouble with basic properties), and now this is on exam all of a sudden.
Oh, by the way, it is not for K_m, it is for K_4, so, at least, it is finite.
@theUg using matrices for graphs does not really require that you've done a lot of matrices in the past. As long as you know how to multiply matrices, that is usually good enough to get started.
@robjohn Like I said, there is literally two pages of proof, and it boggles me. And all this just for a 1/4 point problem. So it should be something obvious, but I do not see it.
In the mathematical field of graph theory Kirchhoff's theorem or Kirchhoff's matrix tree theorem named after Gustav Kirchhoff is a theorem about the number of spanning trees in a graph, showing that this number can be computed in polynomial time as the determinant of a matrix derived from the graph. It is a generalization of Cayley's formula which provides the number of spanning trees in a complete graph.
Kirchhoff's theorem
Kirchhoff's theorem relies on the notion of the Laplacian matrix of a graph that is equal to the difference between the graph's degree matrix (a diagonal matrix with ...
One method is induction. Another way to calculate $A^{n}$ for a $2 \times2$ matrix generally is Hamilton-Cayley Theorem: $A^{2}-Tr(A)\cdot A +\det{A} \cdot I_{2}=0$. This is a very useful theorem which can be applyed for any $n \times n$ matrix.
for example if you have a $2 \times 2$ matrix wit...
no, when I was without any answer I got your answer, so will wait
last year, I had run the command in nzmath to get a representation of a prime no. with125 digits, but this is not a huge number I do not know why this time it is taking such a long time
I didn't finish the full book; the last chapter is still remaining, of complex multiplication, rest I finished, but initially I didn't understand, now slowly knowing that subject
@N3buchadnezzar not sure off-hand, but I am sure Makoto Kato did something similar recently, so it might be worth looking at his answers to his own questions
@Sushma Thanks - and if you want to contact me, my email is on my profile page
@Chris'ssis I am trying something that looks promising, but just to check, I ran this through Mathematica and it gets an answer of $0.4886437056940325001$ and the ISC finds nothing for that. So the nice answer is not nice enough for the ISC :-)
@Chris'ssis If we let $\pi$ be a variable and let $\pi\to3$, then that function limits to $\frac12$ which agrees with the sum if we substitute $3$ for $\pi$...