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00:00
derp
@anon But still, we don't really need $x^M\in\mathfrak p[x]$, do we?
Oh, derp again.
how do we arrange for the integrality condition?
lol I am of no help.
@anon I have a feeling it is really some determinant trick.
Note that multiplication by $x$ induces a map $\mathfrak p\to\mathfrak p$ which can be made into a matrix.
00:15
indeed
I was unable to make headway in that direction
mmm, is End_Z(Z^n) integrally closed?
What about the $\mathbb Z$-module $\mathbb Z+\mathfrak p$?
ooh, that is f.g. and contains 1! so we can just work in (Z+p)[x]. that is very clever.
care to post that as an answer to the question on main?
wait, but we need (Z+p)[x] f.g. somehow
Yes, I was noticing that.
Wow, wtf could we be missing.
found the answer in an Algnumthry book
we do use a determinant trick
00:32
Evening all
Kat
Kat
Hi, I need help on an algebra problem
0
Q: Elementary Algebra Inequality question

Kat$$ \frac{1}{x-1} < -\frac{1}{x+2} $$ (see this page in wolframalpha) Ok, so I think the main problem is that I don't really know how to do these questions. What I tried to do was move $-1/(x + 2)$ to the LHS and then tried to get a common denominator. I ended up with $$ \frac{(x + 2) + (x -1)...

I don't know what I'm doing wrong
If you could somehow solve for $x$ as if $\lt$ mean equation, then you could solve for $x$ in some equations. However this isn't $=$ and the difference is that when you multiply by a negative or you invert, both sides of $\lt$ you have to change signs.
@Kat
Kat
Kat
I don't get what that means
So pretend like you're solving an algebra equation and each time you need to multiply by possibly a negative value, then handle two cases
@anon Is it specific to a particular ideal $\mathfrak p$ or something?
00:37
$\frac{1}{x-1} \lt -\frac{1}{x+2} \iff (\text{case 1}; x - 1 \gt 0) \dots$
Kat
Kat
So then when I move the -1/x+2 to the LHS I have two cases?
@KarlKronenfeld nah
Do this: first find all $x \in \Bbb{R}$ such that $x \gt 0$ and your inequality holds. Then do the same for all $x \lt 0$.
*I mean $x - 1$
Kat
Kat
I can't see MathJax
Kat
Kat
00:41
I still can't see it
Did you make the bookmark and click in while in this tab?
Kat
Kat
yeah
oh wait, it works now
Kat
Kat
thanks
ok so i can't multiply (x +2 ) because it was negative?
it's weird; why don't they put it in the site <script> area
Imagine this.
If you broke your problem into cases
and took the union of all the solutions at the end then that's valid right?
Kat
Kat
00:43
yeah
Well, break into cases so that you can somehow get those expressions out of the denominator
Kat
Kat
i don't know how
i don't remember learning any of this
if $x - 1 > 0$, then $x \gt 1$, so $x+2 \gt 0$ automatically see?
Kat
Kat
right
so I'm seing if x -1 is > 0 or if x -2 is > 0 ?
So in this first case we're working, multiply both sides by $(x-1)$ and both by $(x+2)$
Kat
Kat
00:45
yeah
well I moved -1 / x + 2 to the right side
what's do you have so far?
Kat
Kat
(1 / x- 1) + ( 1/ x +2) < 0
@anon $\DeclareMathOperator{\end}{End}$So what we are dealing with is the usual determinant trick and the ring homomorphism $\mathbb Z[x]\to\end(\mathfrak a)$. I think what I failed to do is establish that $x$ can be determined by this homomorphism and the endomorphism $x$ induces on $\mathfrak a$.
$ x - 1 \gt 0 \implies \left ( \frac{1}{x-1} \lt -\frac{1}{x+2} \iff (x + 2 ) \lt -(x-1) \right )$ after multiplying both sides by said above
@KarlKronenfeld Dude.
Kat
Kat
00:50
ok, but i still don't know how to solve this
\newcommand{}{}
@Charlie I am not.
@Kat Do you see now?
Kat
Kat
no...
well do you see how I got the rightmost expression in my last post?
Kat
Kat
I really don't get it
00:52
The property I used was this...
Kat
Kat
i don't get the <-> part
That means the operation is reversible, certainly you can divide again by those linear expressions and get back to where you were, correct?
Kat
Kat
ok
You keep it iff in case you need to make use of that later
but I don't think we'll use the backwards implication arrow for this one
@anon KCd is Keith Conrad? (i.e. the user here?)
Kat
Kat
00:53
ok, but then how do i solve it and find x?
Well, continuing from above you have $(x + 2) \lt - (x-1)$. So solve a linear equation for $x$
27
A: newcommand vs. DeclareMathOperator

Andrew Swann\DeclareMathOperator is designed to create commands that should typeset operator names such as sin and lim. Some of these are already defined in base TeX or LaTeX so one writes 2\sin\theta instead of 2sin\theta giving correct spacing and font. If you need an operator of this type that i...

Kat
Kat
x + 2 +x - 1 < 0
so then 2x + 1 < 0
and x < -1/2
but x != 1 or -2
so then what is the solution?
@Kat, the properties of inequalities we are using are if $a \lt b$ for two real numbers $a,b$, then $c a \lt c b$ for all $c \gt 0$. Even more generally, $a \lt b \implies a + c \lt b + c$ for ANY real number $c$. So we can still use those if our expressions involve variables but evaluate to real numbers, right? That's what we're doing
Kat
Kat
ok so the 2 < 1?
00:57
I'm reading about greens functions and fixed point theorems (in regards to existence and uniqueness of solutions). Both texts from my course literature only ever considers homogeneous boundary values. Are nonzero b.c.s really so problematic?
I get $x + 2 \lt 1 - x \iff 2x + 1 \lt 0 \iff x \lt -1/2$
@KarlKronenfeld Oh, don't get LaTeX righteous on me now!
In other words, for $x - 1 \gt 0$, there is no solution to the inequality since we have a contradiction, but Idk for sure, someone?
Kat
Kat
I don't know. This is from a high school pre-calc textbook
it shouldn't be this complicated :(
@Kat get it yet?
01:10
@Kat, At the point where you have the single fraction, for a/b < 0, then a < 0 & b > 0, or a > 0 & b < 0. Two cases to check.
01:23
hi
could someone tell me how to graph this polar function? $r(\theta)=1+\frac{\theta}{\sin(\theta)}$
but don't tell me what it is
I wanna know some technique to graph it without seeing the graph
blind fold yourself?
yes
what inverval does $\theta$ run on?
01:26
they don't say it
I guess I just have to deduce it
but it's not gonna be defined on $k \pi$ for $k \in \Bbb Z$
I think it's enough to draw it on $[0, 2\pi]\backslash \{0, \pi, 2\pi \}$
Compute the value at a few points.. connect the dots?
ok I was just trying to find a more descriptive method
because I don't know what happens on $0$ for example
I think I'll get two U's as the graph
U U
This function sounds like its not single-valued if you let the angle continue to increase
well then maybe it's convenient to consider only $[0, 2\pi]$
I'm computing some values
After having seen the plot, I actually got some ideas on what you could have done to determine it, but its a lot easier after having seen it.
01:35
don't tell me
You should know it's a line... try and define a polar line, you'll see this is a horizontal one then
Wait, that's theta/sin theta
¬¬
thanks for telling me it's a line
its not a line
¬¬ !!!!
No that's one over sin theta
01:36
don't tell me what it is please
I need some technique
it's not a horse
to graph it before seeing the graph
Think of the asymptotes. There will be a range of theta where r gets really big.
There'll be another range where it's basically a circle (linear in polar terms)
Actually, i dont have any really good ideas. I'm sticking to my "compute a bunch of values" approach. Is this a "sketch the function" type exercise?
yes I know there must be asymptores in $0$, $\pi$ and $2\pi$
01:38
I agree with Alec, look at the limiting behavior
what happens when $\theta$ is near 0? what about when its near $\pi$?
If theta is a bit bigger than zero, it's basically 2. start there.
sin(theta)'s gradient is less than 1, but theta's gradient (wrt theta) is 1, so theta/sin(theta) is getting bigger as theta increases for as long as sin is getting bigger (0-pi/2)
Then sin stays positive but is getting smaller, as it's bounded by 1, theta/sin(theta) starts getting huge
Then it gets undefined at pi, obviously, then the same thing happens in reverse! (think of the interval (-pi,pi] I noticed you were using [0,2pi] this is wrong.
Now @KevinDriscoll I need some analysis help. I have a question that makes no sense.
One doesn't have the chance to use the word Eulerian every day.
@AlecTeal Analysis!?!?!? @PEDRO!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
01:53
@KevinDriscoll WHHHhhhhAAAAAAAAAAT?
@Pedro @Alecteal needs help with analysis....... I didn't know what else to do........
@KevinDriscoll "I panicked."
@PedroTamaroff $f:[a,b]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, it is a squelch function if for each partition $a=p_0<p_1<...<p_{k-1}<p_k=b$ $f$ is constant on $(p_{j-1},p_j)$
@AlecTeal Hit me.
Show that such a function must have $f|(a,b)$ constant. What is the maximum cardinality of the set of values f can take.
This is apparently a common error students make when defining a step function.
01:55
one
@PedroTamaroff what does f|(a,b) actually mean? "over", if it is true then obviously 1, but I cannot show that f|(a,b) must be constant.
Thanks @Davith for that.
@AlecTeal The restriction of $f$ to $(a,b)$.
suppose it's not constant
and you can find a partition
@AlecTeal squelch?
that has not those propierties
01:56
@PedroTamaroff I searched for it, nothing. I think they made it up.
@AlecTeal Take the partition $P=\{a,b\}$?
@Twink Or three, $f$ is defined on $[a,b]$, and we know nothing about the values at the end points.
@PedroTamaroff I don't follow.
Is it saying "there is a function, it is "squelch" if you can take any partitions you like and do this" rather than "there is a function, over these partitions"
@AlecTeal A partition of $[a,b]$ is a finite set of points of $[a,b]$, one them which is $a$, another which is $b$.
Thus $P=\{a,b\}$ is a valid partition of $[a,b]$.
What's up?
02:00
So it is a squelch because the partitions are ot defined with the function, because we can take any partition we like and this "squelch" function is over it, I could choose any open region I like?
@PedroTamaroff what's the formal definition of a step function (in contrast to this)
@AlecTeal Well, you can say a function is a step function if it is a finite sum of characteristic functions of intervals.
@AlecTeal "There is a partition such that..."
I said "a function is a step function if and only if on an interval I it can be devided into a finite number of sub intervals ($I_1,I_2,...,I_n$) such that $f(x)=c_i$ for all $x$ interior to $I_i$, where $c_i$ is constant for i=1,2,3,...,n
@PedroTamaroff @DanielFischer
@AlecTeal Yes, that's one way to describe them.
@DanielFischer and this differs from the "squelch" definition how..... In the sense that I define the intervals bsed on the function? I'm not sure (I get brief flashes, but I am not confident) how they differ.
02:05
@AlecTeal You: $\exists \text{partition}$, squelch: $\forall \text{partition}$.
guys do you kow a technique to graph the polar function $f(\theta)=1+\frac{\theta}{\sin \theta}$?
@FernandoMartin Yo.
without seeing the graph?
@Davith I just went through that.
@Twink ...?
02:05
@DanielFischer oh okay! thanks, each=all.
to plot it without seeing the graph
without cheating
Again;
If theta is a bit bigger than zero, it's basically 2. start there.
sin(theta)'s gradient is less than 1, but theta's gradient (wrt theta) is 1, so theta/sin(theta) is getting bigger as theta increases for as long as sin is getting bigger (0-pi/2)
Then sin stays positive but is getting smaller, as it's bounded by 1, theta/sin(theta) starts getting huge
Then it gets undefined at pi, obviously, then the same thing happens in reverse! (think of the interval (-pi,pi] I noticed you were using [0,2pi] this is wrong.
It is not quite symmetrical about the x axis remember.
yes Alec but I'm asking if maybe there's a technique that we don't know
yes it is symmetrical
hey @Pedro
because $f(\theta)=f(-\theta)$
02:07
Not true.
Wait, true.
But seriously sketch the top half and then reflect it.
Ive just told you what to do
well I'd like to have an easier technique to apply it in general
maybe there's a way to tansform it onto rectangular coordinates
There is but it'd be tedious and not good because of that +1
@Twink As far as a I know there is no general method for graphing functions by hand and getting in right. Its an art.
x^2+y^2+arctan(y/x)/(y/(x^2+y^2)^0.5) isn't easier
Wait that's not quite correct (bad night :P), the thing after the x^2+y^2 is though, and that alone should scare ya off
@PedroTamaroff @KevinDriscoll math.stackexchange.com/questions/529900/… have a gander at that, 10h in now.
@AlecTeal Observe that if $s(x)$ is constant over $(a_i,b_i)$ then $s(x/k)$ is constant $(ka_i,kb_i)$ and conversely.
That is, you have a bijection between partitions $I\mapsto kI$.
02:27
So @PedroTamaroff I ought not be using linear algebra
@AlecTeal I don't see where I used linear algebra.
Heyy everyone, I stumbled upon a thought regarding calculating discrete logarithm problem and now I am super confused...
Exactly @PedroTamaroff
@AlecTeal Where did you use linear algebra?
I wanted a linear map $L:[ka,kb]\rightarrow[a,b]$
02:29
@AlecTeal Just because you used the word "linear" doesn't mean you're using "linear algebra" ^_^
Even
@PedroTamaroff changed it
then $a(L):[ka,kb]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$
$a(L)=b$
I wanted to use the fact that a linear map like L is a bijection between the sets [ka,kb] and [a,b]
Can someone explain whether all numbers can be summed u to be in Zp* or not.. The exact query is what if we chose a random number, r and raised it to say a. Can we calculate what that number was after taking mod p of answer.

r^a (mod p) = x. Can x be used to tell what a was....r is random number not a number from Zp*
@AlecTeal You're thinking too hard.
@PedroTamaroff it's really obvious, f(x/7) stretches f out 7 times.
Proving it though...
Anyway, @PedroTamaroff will you put that as an answer please (just C&P)
@AlecTeal As a sidenote, using $a,b$ both for functions and real numbers is really untidy.
I'd rather use $f,g$ for functions, like always.
02:34
@PedroTamaroff I just noticed that.... I don't know the letters I meant to use
One is a .... u with a | through it, the other is a u with a | where the top right of the u joins the top of the |
Hmm.. sanity check: $\max_{x=[0,1]} |\arctan(u(x)) - \arctan(v(x))| \leq \max_{x=[0,1]} |u(x) - v(x)|$ is this valid?
@MikaelÖhman Mean value theorem.
@DanielFischer because my step function definition was a mouthful, using all and exists, how would you define one?
$(\tan^{-1}x)'=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}\leqslant 1$ everywhere.
yes, KCd is keith conrad
02:43
@anon Is he boss in his field?
@PedroTamaroff if I have an interval I = [a,b] is there a notation for the open interval (a,b). Or do I just say "internal to"?
Last question I promise!
I believe he is known best for his expository notes. I do not know about his research.
@AlecTeal The notation $(a,b)$ is ubiquitous.
@anon Ah.
@anon how do you know it's him?
@PedroTamaroff I never defined the interval in terms of a and b, i have a bunch of closed ones, $I_i$ I want to denote the open "version" of them.I'm guessing no notation, thanks.
02:45
@Twink check his MO account associated to the MSE account
(for example)
@AlecTeal $(a,b)=\{x\in{\bf R}:a<x<b\}$.
@anon Hey, I tell you about Halmos' discussion of the tensor product?
I guess you can enlighten me further.
@Pedro thanks
03:01
@TedShifrin Hey!
@PedroTamaroff: Today I mentioned what we were discussing yesterday about Set^op
It turns out that it has a more or less understandable interpretation
You can think of it as a subcategory of Rel
an arrow $f^{op}$ is just the relation formed by the pairs $(f(x), x)$
@FernandoMartin Ah. Now that is not bad.
=)
Yes, but it's not a bad idea to get used to formally dualizing stuff either
@FernandoMartin So if $f\subseteq A\times B$ then $f^{\rm op}\subseteq B\times A$ and $(a,b)\in f\iff (b,a)\in f^{\rm op}$.
@FernandoMartin Time to time.
03:10
@FernandoMartin Today I had the chance to talk about Eulerian numbers. They count stuff. But they also appear naturally when using the $x\dfrac{d}{dx}$ operator.
That's impressive
Where did you learn that?
@FernandoMartin I read.
I know!
I mean, which book did you read that from?
I honestly cannot remember.
@Pedro: Hey (later)
03:12
I think I found them in Polya & Szego again, @Fer.
@TedShifrin You're leaving? =/
I did leave, I returned, and I'll soon leave again!
We all have to leave sometime :-)
Indeed @skull
@PedroTamaroff: I don't get your second-to-last line
Why is it that $D^k \frac{1}{1-x}$ is that sum?
@FernandoMartin $$\sum\limits_{k = 0}^\infty {{x^k}} \mathop \to \limits^d \sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {k{x^{k - 1}}} \mathop \to \limits^x \sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {k{x^k}} \mathop \to \limits^d \sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {{k^2}{x^{k - 1}}} \mathop \to \limits^x \sum\limits_{k = 1}^\infty {{k^2}{x^k}} $$
03:18
Duh
You're absolutely right
@TedShifrin Do you have a geometric interpretation of the tensor product?
@FernandoMartin You didn't even try! =D
I never thought of replacing $\frac{1}{1-x}$ with its series
@FernandoMartin Ah.
Note that "occur" means something different that "se me ocurrió". =P
Haha, you're right
How should I say it?
I never thought of?
It doesn't have the same ring to it...
@FernandoMartin I was going to go with that.
@FernandoMartin True.
03:21
@PedroTamaroff: remember the smooth homotopies problem?
@FernandoMartin Ya.
All over @Pedro, but it's too late to talk about vector bundles :)
It was slightly ill-posed
@TedShifrin But I just started drinking my coffee!
@FernandoMartin ORLY?
Yeah, I'm not even sure the relation is transitive! To prove that, one would like to compose homotopies
03:22
LOL ... But I'm teaching in 9 hours ... And I got up at 6 am
But we can't guarantee that the composition will be smooth in general...
@TedShifrin Ah. What are you teaching?
Compose or concatenate? @ Fernando
Concatenate would be the correct word, though my topology teacher calls it "vertical composition"
Symmetric spaces and allied Lie algebra stuff
03:23
It isn't composition in the usual sense, that's for sure
@FernandoMartin Who's teaching?
Minian is teaching topology, Cukierman is teaching geometry
You can do it smoothly if you use bump functions
Both are good, but Minian is amazingly good
What makes him so "amazing"?
03:26
He's a great teacher and he really knows how to motivate topics
@Fernando: Maybe I'm missing something, but it's sorta standard to patch smooth homotopies with a bump function.
@Ted: I've never really studied bump functions so I can't know for sure
The motivation behind topics is indeed something that is missing in most textbooks.
Essential tool for differential topology, diff geometry, and analysis.
@TedShifrin: The problem also included some other restrictions on the homotopy
03:30
Well, send it to me sometime ... :)
Haha, let's see if I can write it down without forgetting any hypotheses
Take the set of injective, smooth, regular curves in $\mathbb{R}^3$
Define to curves $\alpha$ and $\beta$ to be equivalent if there's a smooth homotopy $H$ between them, such that $H_t$ is an injective, smooth, regular curve for each $t$
Isotopy, yes
Is there just one equivalence class?
oh, we consider our curves to have domain $[0,1]$
My gluing comment works fine.
Closed curves, I assume?
That's great! Then I have a proof I guess
No, we consider them to be injective at endpoints too
03:34
@TedShifrin Me wonders.
Oh, weird.
@TedShifrin: If we allow closed curves then we have all sorts of knots there, I think
Then can't we use straight-line homotopy?
We want $H_t$ to be injective
so with most curves the straight-line homotopy won't work
Not most, but occasional, yes.
Wonders what, @Pedro?
03:37
Suppose that $w$ is a bilinear form on $U\oplus V$.
Then for each $y_0\in V$ we obtain an element of $U^\ast$ by $\psi(u)=w(u,y_0)$.
Halmos asks: is it true that if $w$ is nondegenerate, then every linear functional in $U$ can be obtained in this way?
Doesn't this depend on dimensions of $U$ and $V$?
@TedShifrin My thought was the same.
Unless you prove nondegeneracy implies such.
@Pedro: Are $U$ and $V$ finitely generated?
@FernandoMartin I would think so.
03:44
Isn't the book titled Finite Dimensional ...?
Isn't the map from $U$ to $U^*$ defined by $u\mapsto w(u,y_0)$ injective by non-degeneracy?
@FernandoMartin The map is $y_0\to w(u,y_0)$.
So $V\to U^\ast$.
03:47
Duh, you're right
Well, the map $V\to U^\ast$ is injective, and similarly you can construct an injection $U\to V^\ast$.
Thus, the dimensions are equal.
Wonders if the @anon is around.
Why do you need @anon? :)
@TedShifrin I like his explanations.
@KarlKronenfeld Cool.
Pshaw. You can do this yourself! Check out my comment on math.stackexchange.com/questions/530513/…
03:55
@TedShifrin No, I wanted to talk about tensors.
Not about this.
Ah, ok :) we'll talk about Möbius strips re tensors this weekend :)
@PedroTamaroff you rang?
@anon Yeah.
anything particular you want to know, or do you want an intuitive idea of what a tensor is?
1 hour ago, by Pedro Tamaroff
@anon Hey, I tell you about Halmos' discussion of the tensor product?
(can)
03:58
you mentioned that Halmos mentioned that his treatment is slightly unorthodox, but I don't recall anything else
@anon Well, first he says the following.
Night, all!
(I will not quote, just talk.)
night
Consider $\Bbb C[s]$ and $\Bbb C[t]$. He says we would like to call $\Bbb C[s,t]=\Bbb C[s]\otimes \Bbb C[t]$, for example.

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