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00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

00:02
@PedroTamaroff I have one of those
That has happened to me, and the converse, too.
0
A: Error accumulation in an approximating numerical algorithm for $y_n =\int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^n}{x+10} dx $

BitrexWhen $y_{n_1} = 0$, $y_{n_1-1} = \dfrac{1}{10n_1} + \alpha_1$, where $\alpha_n$ is the value of the roundoff error at each step (not necessarily the same for each step.) Plugging this back into the formula: $y_{n_1-2} = \dfrac{1}{10} \left(\dfrac{1}{n_1} - y_{n_1 - 1}\right)$ we get: $y_{n_1...

Thanks for the vote :)
@KevinDriscoll You're the physicist here.
Do you buy this?
Wow
@PedroTamaroff don't tease the physicist.
@KevinDriscoll ignore him, Physics is totally worth it really :P
00:12
@AlecTeal Tease? How so?
00:24
@anon Dude. Not interested in the automorphic forms and reps?
a zero divisor is automatically nonzero
the other day I was talking to you and had to write "nonzero non-zero-divisor"
autos?
I am not at the right level to look into them.
@anon Ah, OK.
@anon Maybe you're talking about something else.
does anyone here know anything about differential field theory?
a zero divisor is by definition nonzero
it's not a consequence of the definition, it's built-into the definition
@anon My fault.
00:28
@JackM like, derivations and stuff? not really.
@anon I honestly thought $0$ was also considered a zero divisor. =)
indeed
meaning it was clear you were operating under that impression
@PedroTamaroff: What's an automorphic form?
00:29
@FernandoMartin Dunno.
jgi
it's a generalization of a modular form
@anon: The stuff at wikipedia is 2deep4me
@anon Ah.
@anon We know that $x^{p-1}=1\mod p$ has exactly $p-1$ solutions. This means that $x^{(p-1)/2}=1\mod p$ must have exactly $(p-1)/2$ solutions, yes?
yes
Hey @PedroTamaroff, can I ask you something about characters?
00:37
@FernandoMartin You can try.
@anon I should doubt less.
Suppose $\chi$ is a character over $\mathbb{F}_p$
@PedroTamaroff I think that golfball vid is real
@FernandoMartin Kay.
Is it true that $\sum_t \chi(1-t^m)=\sum_t \chi(1-t^{am})$ for any $a$?
@FernandoMartin $m,a>0$?
00:40
I don't see why it should be, but it should be (otherwise some problem out of I&R is false)
yes
well, maybe for any $a$ is a bit reckless
@FernandoMartin What are you looking at?
Let me try to explain
clearly true if (a,p-1)=1
@anon: since ^a is a group iso then, right?
right
00:42
great
well, I'll try to prove that (a,p-1)=1 in this problem I'm working on
for that equality to hold generically, $\sum_{c\in C}\chi(1-c)$ would have to be invariant with respect subgroups $C\le\Bbb F_p^\times$
@FernandoMartin Page?
Exercise 8 from page 105
I'm trying to reduce the problem to the case $m|(p-1)$, which is easy
@FernandoMartin Heh, I'm on page 52, long road.
I haven't read the first 100 pages entirely though
00:52
@FernandoMartin Got a mail, Number Theory Seminar.
@anon "Hecke/Sturm bounds for classic modular forms."
01:05
Let's say that I write $(m, p-1) = am + b(p-1)$ for some $a$ and $b$
can I choose $a$ such that $(a, p-1)=1$?
I can almost sense that I just asked something stupid
@FernandoMartin Write $a=k(p-1)+r$, $r<p-1$?
bloody hell
turn up to give talk at geometry reading seminar
and then robert bryant walks in
yay pressure
@AnthonyCarapetis Dunno who that is. Googles.
@PedroTamaroff: so?
@FernandoMartin If $r\neq 0$, you may take that $r$.
01:14
ugh right
that settles it
thanks!
Clicks tongue.
@FernandoMartin Well, duh.
If $r\neq 0$; keep $a$!
I mean I was being dumb.
if $r\neq 0$, then $p-1$ does not divide $a$ but it may still be the case that $(a,p-1)\neq 1$
Sorry, yes.
Me being dumb again.
01:16
Oh
Well, then that's the case for $r$ too
haha, so it's not settled
dang.
I was mixing up my primes.
I read $p-1$ as $p$ in my head.
@PedroTamaroff: I'm trying to prove that $\sum_t \chi(1-t^m) = \sum_t \chi(1-t^d)$ where $d=(m,p-1)$
I used that $d=am+b(p-1)$, so $t^d=t^{am}$
now it would suffice to show that $(a,p-1)=1$, since in that case ^a would be a group iso and we would be done
01:32
@PedroTamaroff: Do you know these guys?
The song at the second part of the video is called Poincaré, haha
@FernandoMartin I'm watching $\text{HOM}\exists \text{LAND}$. =)
hi argentinos. excuse me but how do you know how many variables libres are there in a linear equations system?
I don't get your question
for example here
how do we know that we can choose two variables arbitrarily?
01:44
In general, a subspace of $\mathbb{R}^n$ defined by k non-redundant linear equations is of dimension $n-k$
@Twink $n-\rm rank$.
Pedro but I still don't know the rank in that example
after I have the basis I will know the rank
I don't even have it in a form of a matrix
@Twink The equation simply says that $y=2x+3z$.
You sub that and you're done.
Two free variables.
sub?
There is no difference between that set and $\{(x,2x+3z,z):x,z,\in\Bbb R\}$
@Twink Substitute.
01:47
so if we had an equation with 4 variables
Note that is $x(1,2,0)+z(0,3,1)$ by the way.
then we could choose 3 arbitrarily?
So the span of $\{(1,2,0),(0,3,1)\}$.
@Twink Usually that is the case.
ok :) thanks
the rank is the number of LI columns right?
@Twink Or rows. Yes.
01:51
thank you :D
thank you for sharing your knowledge
@FernandoMartin I am too lazy to type up the answer to the question here, but there is something that interests me about it. Call the category defined in that question $\mathcal H(V,W)$ and note that it is a full subcategory of the functor category $\text{Vec}^\mathbf{2}$. I wonder if a functor $\mathcal H(V,W)\to\mathcal H(V',W')$ can be represented by an arrow in that larger category.
I thought this may perhaps interest you too.
@FernandoMartin Did you sort your problem out?
Maybe try another approach?
02:09
HEY GUYS
sorry caps.
I was wondering about a problem, does there exist an unbounded linear map $F: l^2(\mathbb{N}) \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$
@Pedro Sorry I was away. Yeah at 150 mph (240 kph) I buy it. Its very similar to high speed footage of water balloons at lowish speeds and golf balls are surprisingly elastic
@masfenix: Why do you think there should be one?
@KarlKronenfeld: let's see
@PedroTamaroff: No, just took a break
@TedShifrin I think there is one because $l^2(\mathbb{N})$ is an infinite-dimensional Hilbert space.
so I remember my professor saying that there can be unbounded maps
I know of discontinuous linear maps on Banach spaces, but not on Hilbert spaces.
02:20
So the answer is no?
well then I would have to prove that.
Inner products are powerful things.
Hmm, I take it back.
@TedShifrin en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Discontinuous_linear_map says that it may be hard to find a concrete example for a complete space (so Hilbert spaces?)
I am just very rusty ... It's been about 35 years since I've thought about this :P
No, I untake it back. I can think of examples $H\to H$, but not for a linear functional on $H$.
@Ted @masfenix I dont think the inner product helps you because an unbounded map is precisely one for which $\left| F( \phi ) \right|$ is unbounded even though $\left| \phi \right|$ is finite
but what do I know
Right @Kevin. Can you give a map to $\Bbb C$ ?
Maybe so. What if we take $H=L^2([0,1])$ and something like evaluation at $0$?
No, that's not defined.
02:27
@Ted No, I can't give an example. @Masfenix talked about this the other day and my instinct was that no such map exists, but I'm totally unsure
I remember loving learning about densely defined discontinuous linear maps in the context of PDEs when I was in grad school. But I'm old and I never use this stuff at all :P
In mathematics, linear maps form an important class of "simple" functions which preserve the algebraic structure of linear spaces and are often used as approximations to more general functions (see linear approximation). If the spaces involved are also topological spaces (that is, topological vector spaces), then it makes sense to ask whether all linear maps are continuous. It turns out that for maps defined on infinite-dimensional topological vector spaces (e.g., infinite-dimensional normed spaces), the answer is generally no: there exist discontinuous linear maps. If the domain of defin...
look at the section under General existence theorem
The "general existence theorem" section seems to be exactly what you want
I think this may help us
yes @AnthonyCarapetis exactly.
@Ted I see. So it may be that the function is integrable, but its value at a point may still be infinite
02:29
yeah, but values of functions don't make sense, because elements of $L^2$ are equivalence classes.
Hmm, @masfenix @Anthony, I was thinking about an example like that but convinced myself it wouldn't work in a Hilbert space.
Now, I understand the example but I could use a little intuition on it.
@Anthony is our resident fancy analyst ... I defer.
hey don't be calling me things like that
@masfenix, $\ell^2$ has an obvious orthonormal basis :P
I think the key thing to notice is that it's an algebraic basis, not a Schauder basis
02:32
@Ted equivalence classes......... yes, of course............ quite right
well, I'm thinking Hilbert space basis ... not algebraic
@TedShifrin, right which is $(1, 0, 0 \ldots), (0, 1, 0 \ldots), (0, 0, 1, \ldots)$
I've been spending all night thinking about Chern classes and degeneracy classes. I should go back to that ... :P
yes @masfenix
If you try to define a map like that using only a Hilbert space basis
So, mapping the $n$th one to $n$ and extending by linearity is an example.
02:33
Then you're only defining it on a dense subset
Well, unbounded operators are usually densely defined, anyhow :P
Usually we extend by continuity to get a bounded linear map, but obviously in this example we don't want to
So you need a full algebraic basis to "complement" it I guess
UGH at algebraic basis.
I don't do that stinking uncountable stuff.
@FernandoMartin I think we may lose the vector space structure present in the hom-set, but if there is a way to represent addition and scalar multiplication "categorically", or to otherwise show that functors are linear we'd be making good progress.
02:36
So if I understand this correctly, we take the usual orthonormal set of $l^2$ and define a linear functional by $F(e_n) = n\cdot |e_n|$
so how do I show this map is discontinuous?
@Ted what happened to your geometrical answer for the 'building a bridge' question? Did you find an error?
because the distance between two points is always one?
@KarlKronenfeld: sorry, I got distracted and just finished reading
@masfenix: that's only defined for the subspace spanned by the $e_n$
let's see
02:37
Just show it's unbounded, @masfenix. Continuity is equivalent to boundedness.
right, but I am not really sure how to show its unbounded. Isn't it easier to show discontinuity?
Well, @Kevin, they convinced me it was wrong. And I had convinced myself it was right based on symmetry, and there was a 7th grade algebra flaw in that. So I think my "obvious" triangle inequality step was wrong.
@AnthonyCarapetis, the orthonormal basis $e_n = \delta_n$ where $\delta_n$ is the Kronicker delta function spans the entire space, no?
@KarlKronenfeld: I don't know much about this, but wouldn't this have to do with enriched categories?
You have elements of length $1$ whose images have arbitrarily large lengths.
02:43
@TedShifrin, thank you. So I've formulated something like the following: Define $F(e_n) = n |e_n| $. Recall that a unbounded map is exactly one for which, $\forall x \in H$ where H is a Hilbert space, $|F(x)|$ is unbounded whereas $|x|$ is bounded, and so since the map defined above takes elements (that are bounded) to images with increasingly larger lengths, it follows that the image is not bounded and hence the map is unbounded.
@KarlKronenfeld: How would you represent, for instance, the trivial endofunctor?
@Ted ah okay. That's unfortunate because I didn't understand your answer, and maybe there was something there I need to understand
I still think the path should consist of parallel beginning and end, @Kevin, but my proof was flawed (since dilating the inner ball distorts distance).
@masfenix: First, $|e_n|=1$, so it's just $F(e_n)=n$. But I guess you should address @Anthony's point of whether this extends to give a well-defined linear map on all of $\ell^2$.
@masfenix: Hilbert space orthonormal bases only span the whole space only if you allow infinite linear combinations. This normally works fine to extend the definition of a linear functional to the whole space (by continuity); but since this one is unbounded that won't work. For example $\sum_k e_k / k^2 \in \ell_2$ but $F$ would send it out of $\ell_2$.
@Anthony: We're defining a linear functional! So what do you mean?
02:48
@Ted: what's the issue? We've only defined it on a dense subspace, and we clearly can't extend by continuity (since it's not even bounded on the subspace)
Right. But my experience (years ago) with unbounded operators is that they're essentially always only densely defined (e.g., differentiation on $L^2$). I dunno.
Oh right, forgot about that
Yeah if that's the convention being used then you don't need to worry about extending it
@AnthonyCarapetis could you explain "extending" a little bit more. I want to understand it a bit more
@masfenix: the example we have is defined only for those $x \in \ell_2$ with finitely many non-zero components, so it is defined only on a subspace of $\ell_2$. It is conventional that an "unbounded linear operator $X \to Y$" actually means a linear map $Z \to Y$ for some subspace $Z \subset Y$; so if you are using this convention then the example suffices.
If not (i.e. if you want the map to have domain $X$) then you need to define it for sequences with infinitely many non-zero components; i.e. "extend it to all of $\ell_2$".
I always found that terminology confusing... "unbounded operator" really means "partially-defined operator" rather than "operator that is not bounded"
@KevinDriscoll Physics approved!.
03:01
@AnthonyCarapetis wow, thanks.
03:13
@Pedro Indeed. There's some cool videos of water dropltets in space that NASA did that show the same sort of thing
 
2 hours later…
04:52
Are linear maps the same as linear operators? Wikipedia says the two are the same, while Axler's "Linear Algebra Done Right" (which I've only just started reading) says that an operator is a linear map from a vector space back onto itself.
@jsmith95: different people use different terminology/conventions. In general I would not assume "operator" implied self-mapping unless specifically defined that way in the article/book.
Ok, thanks Anthony.
"linear operator" has various slightly different conventions. I'd avoid it for general linear transformations because the most important usage is that of operators of functions (e.g. differentiation, fourier/laplace transforms, etc.).
Thanks Anon.
05:35
who's downvoting my answers ?
06:17
@what'sup Not me, I have only downvoted one answer in my life, and it really needed it. Interesting though, I looked, and someone definitely slammed a few of your old answers. There is, as you may have read an automatic catcher for this. Alternatively you can get the attention of a mod.
I am sorry this happened to you, and I hope it works out. The fact that you had 3 answers downvoted in short order, one from October 6 tells me someone is being a harsh jerk.
Did you make someone mad? hehe
@what'sup it certainly looks like targeted downvotes, as they are within one minute.
Can Somebody give me hint How to derive this lemma imgur.com/CbUG8rE ??
@Tobias Indeed! Hopefully the algorithm will catch this and restore the deal for what'sup.
@J.W.Perry unfortunately I am not sure 3 downvotes is enough for that to kick in (though I am not that knowledgeable about the algorithm)
@TobiasKildetoft Yeah I was thinking the same. I do not have personal experience (yet), but that would definitely hurt my feelings. maybe a Mod will catch this and look at it?
06:25
@what'sup you can always ask @robjohn to take a look at it
There ya go.
@KevinDriscoll can't tell that.
If there is something fishy, there are automatic scripts to handle it.
@robjohn imgur.com/CbUG8rE Can you give a hint to prove this lemma..
@what'sup Since they were in rapid succession, it does look suspicious. However, there is nothing more that I can tell than you can tell by looking at your reputation page
@RamanaVenkata Why don't you post that as a question with everything you have tried in the usual manner. It is definitely a defendable question.
06:34
@RamanaVenkata I'd look at the Mean Value Theorem...
06:45
@robjohn @J.W.Perry @KevinDriscoll @TobiasKildetoft thank you for helping
@what'sup My (our) pleasure, and thanks for your contribution.
:-)
goodbye now i'm in MSE but not in the chat . :-)
Cya around :-)
 
2 hours later…
08:43
blah
 
1 hour later…
09:45
I'm having trouble trying to think about volume of an ellipsoid
Can I imagine it as a sphere first, as if the axes of the graphs were scaled such that it looks like a sphere?
09:58
@Flaw Consider the effect that scaling of the axes would have on $x^2+y^2+z^2=r^2$
I can imagine the individual axes being scaled by a b and c
but the volume... r^3 term I'm not sure how
What is your specific question?
10:24
I'm trying to get some kind of spherical polar form of a volume element of a ellipsoid.
10:52
hello, I need support in a math problem about euclidean space and rototrasformations.. I'm really poor at it, does anyone know where I can get support? Thanks
rototransformations?
 
1 hour later…
11:58
@FernandoMartin I don't know about enriched categories, but it seems to be enriching the category of all $\mathcal H(V,W)$ over $\text{Vec}^\mathbf 2$. I do not see why the $0$ arrow $(V\to V,W\to W):f\to f$, with $f$ anything would not represent the trivial endofunctor. However, I do see a problem with my general idea, which I will try to turn into a counterexample later. The fact that one has to choose representing objects as well as arrows seems to be too restrictive.
12:24
I'm new to chat so I apologise if this is inappropriate. Could someone take a look at my post here (math.stackexchange.com/questions/518855/how-to-find-liminf-f-n/…) and tell me if there is something wrong with it? I've had two downvotes but no indication of why.
@MichaelAlbanese Weird.
Dunno.
Maybe people don't like answers which post such short hints. In this case it is really all you need though.
@MichaelAlbanese Yep, the question is pretty straightforward. People should try harder =/
@PedroTamaroff Thanks for taking a look.
12:48
@JackM 3d rotation and translation.. in italian we have this word but maybe you don't
13:40
Because the Lambert W function can be defined from the rows in this triangle:
$$\displaystyle \begin{bmatrix} 0=0 \\ +1&-1=0 \\ +1&+1&-2=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&-3=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&-4=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&+1&-5=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&+1&+1&-6=0 \end{bmatrix}$$

I would like to define a prime version of the Lambert W function from the rows in this triangle:
$$\displaystyle \begin{bmatrix} 0=0 \\ +1&-1&=0 \\ +1&+1&-2&=0 \\ +1&-1&+1&-1&=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&-4&=0 \\ +1&-1&-2&-1&+1&+2&=0 \\ +1&+1&+1&+1&+1&+1&-6&=0 \end{bmatrix}$$
I know how to define it, but I can't extend the range of convergence.
If the latter prime version really converges, that is.
13:55
from the first triangle:
$$\text{x/LambertW(x)} = \int \left(\sum _{n=1}^{\infty } (-x)^n \exp \left(\lim_{s\to 1} \, \zeta (s) \sum _{k=1}^n \frac{1-\text{If}[k \bmod n=0,n,0]}{k^{s-1}}\right)+1\right) \, dx+1$$
and from the second triangle:
$$\text{x/PrimeLambertW(x)} = \int \left(\text{Expand}\left[\sum _{n=1}^{\infty } (-x)^n \exp \left(\lim_{s\to 1} \, \zeta (s) \sum _{k=1}^n \frac{\text{If}[n=1,0,\text{Table}[\text{DivisorSum}[m,\text{$\#$1} \mu (\text{$\#$1})\&],\{m,\text{nn}\}][[\gcd (n,k)]]]}{k^{s-1}}\right)\right]+1\right) \, dx+1$$
14:28
The prime version is close to x/LambertW(x):
x = (1 - 11/8)/Exp[1]
2*Pi*Exp(1)*x/PrimeLambertW(x) = 14.5228821632539947115667526619...
2*Pi*Exp(1)*x/LambertW(x) =14.5213469530656281679750582094...
and:
x = (2 - 11/8)/Exp[1]
2*Pi*Exp(1)*x/PrimeLambertW(x) = 20.6316183974506150286988447032...
2*Pi*Exp(1)*x/LambertW(x) = 20.6557403556995572026029091483...
14:47
@skullpatrol At least thinking feels harder, so it must be better. No pain, no gain. Burn the fat, feed the muscle. Your brain is your muscle. Use it or loose it. But asking can give you the answer easily. Knowledge is power. But on the other hand, nothing worth knowing can be taught.
I don't know why I channeled a fitness guru, but it seemed fitting...
True, you do need to practice... Use it or loose it.
but
Education is what remains after one has forgotten everything he learned in school
@skullpatrol How would you go about finding a formula for the zeta zeros? If there is one.
@skullpatrol Yes, one should not let your education interfere with your learning, someone said.
@MatsGranvik I would go to the library and look it up.
@skullpatrol But that book has not been written yet.
@MatsGranvik Someone must have done something about it.
15:00
Yes there is a an approximate formula that is very good on average. But it is far from exact for a individual zero.

http://mathoverflow.net/questions/82635/explicit-formula-for-riemann-zeros-counting-function
http://www.archive.org/stream/proceedingsofthe032881mbp#page/n116/mode/1up
Those links above are about how to count them. But not what they are.
the zeta zeros, that is.
@skullpatrol
@MatsGranvik Thanks for sharing.
@skullpatrol Others say the path of least resistance is the best way to creativity.
15:16
@MatsGranvik "creativity" is generally frowned upon on during the lower grades of math
@skullpatrol On the basis that "you're new, so your ideas must suck."
@JosuéMolina yes and inexperienced...
@skullpatrol I felt that in college creativity was seen as a sign of plagiarism.
I often hesitated solving problems in ways disparate from course content.
@JosuéMolina Indeed, the Professor gets to make the rules.
15:27
The rules were often tacit.
sounds like a pity party to me
I like to naïvely surmise that professors stop underestimating you upon reaching graduate school.
Though the opposite could be just as true, as xkcd often displays it.
16:14
What's an experiment?
:D
16:33
Experiment? never heard of it.....
17:29
Probably way outside the radius of convergence but the logarithms of the power series are close to each other, according to the plot above.
This when comparing x/PrimeLambertW(x) and x/LambertW(x)
17:51
In problem 9 of chapter 6 in Spivak's calculus (4th edition), it asks to prove that if some function $f$ is defined at $a$ but not continuous at $a$, then prove that for some number $\varepsilon > 0$ there are numbers $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$ with $|f(x) - f(a) > \varepsilon$.
I've only been able to prove that there are numbers x such that $|f(X) - f(a) \geq \varepsilon$, but not the strict inequality, and I don't think it's possible to prove the strict one (i.e. there's an error in the book). Can anyone confirm this?
18:21
@nsanger This is just the inverse of the definition of continuity
@robjohn, Yeah I realize that, but this just means that there is at least one $\varepsilon > 0$ such that no $\delta > 0$ exists satisfying $|x -a| < \delta \implies |f(x) - f(a)| < \varepsilon$. So for that $\varepsilon > 0$ this tells you that there there are $\delta > 0$ such that there exists numbers $x$ where $|x-a| < \delta \implies |f(x) - f(a)| \geq \varepsilon$. How do you make this inequality strict?
$f$ is continuous at $a$ iff $\forall\epsilon\gt0,\exists\delta\gt0:|x-a|\le\delta\implies|f(x)-f(a)|\le\epsilon$
@nsanger start with $\epsilon/2$
Do you mean $2\varepsilon$?
or that
Triangle inequality?
18:28
Alright, that works then, thanks.
$|f(x) - f(a)| \geq 2\varepsilon > \varepsilon$, thanks.
18:38
choose a number $|A| < \epsilon$, choose x so that $B = |A + f(x) - f(a)| <2\epsilon$, then $|A + B| - |A| < \epsilon < |f(x) - f(a)|$ ?
18:49
No, I don't think that's right.
Delete, kthnx :)
19:33
Can anyone help with this convex analysis question? Should be easy: texpaste.com/n/v73fs0gw
Here it is actually: texpaste.com/n/he0sp4p8
Hey folks, a basic math question here: http://i.imgur.com/0grknFb.png

Is it sufficent for A to say: A = { x: R, x < 8}

and for B to say A = {1, 2}
@VaughanHilts isn't A ={x in IR : x<3}?
Well, it's a union.
So shouldn't all the numbers from below 8 be there, too?
-2 to 8; and since that falls within below 3, it ends up just being < 8
That was my reasoning, anyway.
@VaughanHilts you used letter A to everything :P anyway, yes (a) A U B= {xin IR:x<8}
Haha, yeah. that was a mistake :)
19:47
By def, union is all the elements that are in A or in B
Yep, I'm enrolled in a proofs class - and I recall that. I just wanted to make sure I'm not doing any slip ups. :) I'm doing a mock test with no answers provided.
So having it verified is a bit tricky ;)
@VaughanHilts :)
Is something is a disjoint non-empty subset, then how can they also be subsets?
The rule of a subset is you must contain at least one element of the other, yet disjoin t means you mustn't contain any.
Is this just a vacuous proof?
@VaughanHilts disjoint means A intersection B = Ø
Oh, so they share no components.
Or elements rather.
19:56
@VaughanHilts suppose you have a superset, remove two subsets, they are sybsets, but their intersection is empty
But even then, don't you require at least one element in common to have a subset?
A intersection B = empty set clearly indicates that they share no elements, no?
@VaughanHilts nit necessarily A={1,2,3,4,5,6} B={1,2} C={4,5,6}
What is C?
@VaughanHilts B,C subset A
I'm not getting it quite... so I'm going to post a question. :)
19:58
@VaughanHilts A is a subset of B if all of the elements in A are also in B
Yes, that is correct. However, A and B are disjoint sets of each other, which means they musn't share any elements.
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