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00:09
@PeterTamaroff: are you finding that you are putting more effort into answers and getting fewer upvotes?
@PeterTamaroff Ah, I see you've gone to eat.
00:30
@robjohn I'm here.
@robjohn Hm, maybe? You mean me personally, or are you feeling that way too?
@PeterTamaroff I was just feeling that it has been getting harder to get votes.
@Peter, did I not include the index?
@TedShifrin Nope =(
I've had to remind people to accept answers.
Sorry. @Peter. I'll send you a new version with index.
user87637
@robjohn Yes, I think so too. Perhaps they are all realising that every question is a lhf, lol.
user87637
00:38
@TedShifrin You are too kind!
@TedShifrin Hey! No need for apologies. Thank you!
@Peter. Rafa did just win in 4. Check your email.
01:01
@TedShifrin Oh, now he has all the four. Amazing.
01:14
This is his second US Open :)
fricken pissing me off... 3y=9[5-3(9-y)], y=6.6 right?
@Joe. No, I don't think so.
@JoeStavitsky Try plugging 6.6 in for $y$, are both sides equal?
@TedShifrin, ok, y=3[5-3(9-y)]
=15-9(9-y)]
=15-81+9y
>>-10y=66
crap, got the sign wrong
@JoeStavitsky You did worse than get the sign wrong: the coefficient -10 is incorrect.
01:24
I hate that, when I keep staring at it and I cant spot the error
grrrrr
not my night
I assume you subtracted 9y from both sides, so write that out carefully.
Yes, that's what I got.
Personally, I find it easier to divide by $3$ and get $\frac y3=-22+3y$.
@Jasper For the most part, yes. But when I come to a really meaty problem, I know that it will usually get 1 or 2 votes.
02:31
@anon You know about the completion of topological groups $G$ by way of filtrations right? If so, I have a question about one tiny choice in the construction of the filtration of $\hat G$. I read in Qing Liu's quick overview of completions at the beginning of his text on Algebraic Geometry that $\hat G_n=\{\langle g_m\rangle\in\hat G: g_m=0\text{ for all }m\le n\}$ I believe it should be "for all $m<n$" in the description of the set. Can you suggest one over the other?
Oh, nevermind. You want the kernel of the projection $\hat G\to G/G_n$, which requires $g_n=0$ as well, obviously.
profinite completions?
I don't understand your notation, $\langle g_m\rangle$ is some kind of countably infinite tuple indexed by naturals?
@anon I got it, but at any rate Liu defines $\hat G$ to be the inverse limit of the system $G/G_i\to G/G_j, i\ge j$, which can be realized as a quotient of the product of the groups.
So $\langle g_m\rangle $ is a representative of a class in this quotient.
02:47
okay, m & n hail from some general indexing set I gather
Yes, $G=G_0\supseteq G_1\supseteq\dots$.
so you're doing the inverse limit of quotients with denominators from a filtration
not the full profinite completion
Not yet at least.
@anon After looking up profinite completion, it may actually be different from the completion of a topological group.
Anyway I have to go.
03:08
@anon Hey.
yo
@anon IIRC, a manifold in $\Bbb R^3$ can look locally like both $\Bbb R$ or $\Bbb R^2$, right?
eh?
pretty sure that wouldn't be a manifold
@PeterTamaroff Not the standard definition of a manifold.
Invariance of domain takes care of that.
@AlexYoucis So, we cannot allow for dimensions to change around?
@AlexYoucis Hello, by the way. Glad to see you around! =D
03:11
@PeterTamaroff I mean, you can but its just not the standard def. of a manifold.
@PeterTamaroff Haha, hey. Glad to be around.
@AlexYoucis Oh, OK.
@PeterTamaroff These type of objects come up in a lot of places though (e.g. a plane with a perpendicular line passing through it).
@AlexYoucis Oh, but that is not what I meant. Consider, say, something that looks like a peanut but really stretched out in the middle, dunno.
@PeterTamaroff Two spheres connected by a line segment/
@AlexYoucis I was thinking of a smooth change though.
03:14
But ones that have a singularity at the origin?
E.G. two cones touching at a vertex?
@AlexYoucis Right, but smoothened out nicely. Like Gabriel's horn.
@PeterTamaroff I don't know what would be smoothed out, but also not locally always $2$-dimensional.
Say the graph of $e^{-1/x^2}$ revolved around the $x$-axis?
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Is the fact "every compact manifold has the homotopy type of a CW complex" difficult to show?
$f(x)=0$ only at the origin.
So it is almost as good as revolving a diff. curve to get a surface.
But near the origin it gets really thin.
03:16
Can you graph a picture? :)
Yes, just a moment.
Drats, I cannot make it work.
@PeterTamaroff Oh, well :) I think I can picture what you're talking about, and it sounds like it has a singularity at the origin.
@TedShifrin
Suppose I have a function $f$ of one variable. Then $(t,f(t)\cos s,f(t)\sin s)$ gives the revolution about the $x$-axis does it not?
Rehi @Peter: Dimension of a manifold is unique. Otherwise you're doing stratified spaces or some such.
@AlexYoucis I don't know how to plot that in W|A.
@TedShifrin Ah, OK.
03:24
@TedShifrin Are there nice moduli spaces for higher genus Riemann surfaces? For example, the moduli space for tori is nice. If so, are they controlled by some group like SL_2(Z)?
@AlexYoucis BTW, Mariano has told us a few times his computer or whatever he uses automatically logs in here, so he might not respond simply because he is not around! =)
Yes to your question. No, much more complicated moduli ....
Yes to @Peter's question, I meant.
@TedShifrin Look Ted, indexed as I said.
@TedShifrin I know this is a tall order, but can you give any intuition about why there should be a unique structure on the sphere, but not one on higher genus guys? Also, I assume there are infinitely many non-biholomorphic structures on all higher genus surfaces, right?
You can get dimension classically by taking $H^1(\mathcal T)$, where $\mathcal T$ is the tangent sheaf.
Riemann-Roch gives it for $\mathbb P^1$.
03:30
@TedShifrin Is that directed at me?
@Peter: that's table of contents, not index. I sent you a new one with both.
Yes, @Alex. On the iPad it's a pain to do the @ everytime... No names come up, can't click!
@TedShifrin Haha, it's no problem. I'm not sure why that answers my question. Mind explaining? :)
@TedShifrin OK; that, table of contents. It allows to surf around the document, with hyperlinks and stuff. And yes, that is the new document, I did get it!
@AlexYoucis By math-level cross out, certainly!
You asked lots of questions, @Alex :) Too late for so much typing ... :) And tomorrow night I have to grade 30 exams ... But I'll get back to you :)
@TedShifrin No problem! Best!
03:36
@Peter, how did you do that w/o TeX file?
@Alex, do you know RR and linear systems?
@TedShifrin The STDU Viewer makes the table of contents to the left by a "select text and I will hyperlink to it" way. It also builds up the table you see on the left. Quite neat.
@TedShifrin What is RR?
@AlexYoucis Are you teaching anything now?
@PeterTamaroff Teaching is a strong word. If you mean helping calc 1 students understand $\delta-\epsilon$ then, yes, I'm teaching.
@AlexYoucis Heh, OK. "Trasmitting knowledge". =P
03:39
@PeterTamaroff The technical term is GSIing, but yeah haha
Ah ... @Peter. it's easy to hyperlink in LateX, of course, but too much work just for YOU.
@AlexYoucis Are you looking forward to getting a position as a TA or something like that?
@AlexYoucis This was shown by Whitney by considering an embedding of the manifold in some $R^n$, and considering for some $\epsilon>0$ the set of hyperplanes parallel to the coordinat hyperplanes and separated by $\epsilon$ units: these hyperplanes cut the maanifold in pieces, and he shows that when $\epsilon$ is sufficiently small you can in turn cut these pieces into simplices to get, in all, a triangulation.
@TedShifrin Heh, sure. I couldn't ask for more.
the idea is not difficult, the details are non trivial
03:40
And here is Mariano.
@Mariano, for TOP or DIFF?
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Did you see my Facebook post on the cleansing done in Pab I?
no :-)
@TedShifrin, Diff
03:41
That's what I thought.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I think you'll like it.
@TedShifrin It is funny how you understand yourselves so easily.
not all top manifolds are cw complexes,no?
@TedShifrin Is there even an embedding theorem for topological manifolds?
@Alex: Riemann-Roch ... Yes, there is, at least for compact ones.
it seems to be open even in dimension 4: mathoverflow.net/questions/73428/…
Riemann-Roch has nothing to do with embedding topological manifolds...
03:44
Really? Should just be continuous partitions of unity and
No, RR was answering his previous question.
in the compact case, this is actually easy and only depends on the topological dimension
@TedShifrin Oh, then, yes.
there are classical embeddings of metric spaces of finite topological dimension
That's what I thought, @Mariano.
good ol' general topology :-)
03:47
Does CW stand for anything?
c is closure-finite
Oh, Wikipedia. OK.
w is weak
well, weak topology
Ok @ Alex. For $g=0$ use RR to construct a map to $\mathbb P^1$ of degree $1$. That gives you your biholo.
yeah it should be in wikipedia :-)
at the time, whitehead experimemtated with several pssible definitions
03:48
G'night, all.
he had a letter for each property and each class was designated by the letters of the properties defining it
CW is the one that stuck
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez It turns out that what Spivak does is the following, in the proof of Poincaré. I worked it out today at the uni. I guess it is what you showed me the other day, but in the whole generality.
@TedShifrin No, yeah, I know why g=0 is trivial, and why that standard approach fails for g>0, but I didn't know if there was any intuition about why it should be the case that g>0 has multiple structures. Good night!
Deformation theory, @Alex.
Talk later ...
@TedShifrin Bye byes
03:52
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Is this anything like the type of stuff you do: jstor.org/stable/1994967
?
First, consider the map $F:[0,1]\times \Bbb R^n\to\Bbb R^n$ given by $F(t,{\bf x})=t\bf x$. If $\omega$ is a $k$-form on $\Bbb R^n$ then $F^\ast \omega$ is a $k$ form on $[0,1]\times \Bbb R^n$ which I computed to be $$dt\wedge (F^\ast \omega)_1(t)+(F^\ast\omega)_0(t)$$ where $$(F^\ast \omega)_1(t)=\sum_{I} \sum_{\alpha=1}^k(-1)^{\alpha-1}t^{k-1}\omega_I(t\;\cdot \;)x_{i_\alpha} dx_{i_1}\wedge\cdots\wedge\widehat{dx_{i_\alpha}}\wedge\cdots\wedge dx_{i_k}$$ and
Ooops-
ah that's a beautiful paper!
when I think about deformation theory, I usually restrict myself simply to K[x]/(x^n) and/or series, but sometimes yes
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I'll take that as a maybe :)
While $(F^\ast \omega)_0(t)=\sum_I \omega_I(t\;\cdot\;)t^k dx_I$.
The dot means "there you put ${\bf x}$.
Indeed, that s precisely the argument I sketched the other day
04:00
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Right. Well, then when we take an arbitrary $k$ form on that cylinder we can write it as $\eta=dt\wedge \eta_1(t)+\eta_0(t)$ (this I picked up from the answer) and we may define an operator $J\eta=\int_0^1 \eta_1(t)dt$, so we integrate the coeffs wrt to $t$. Then $$d\eta=\underbrace{d\eta_0(t)}_{\text{ only w.r.t to the } x_i} +dt\wedge \left(\frac{\partial \eta_0}{\partial t}-d\eta_1\right)$$
And $J$ of that is $\eta_0(1)-\eta_0(0)-dJ\eta$
So things and up cancelling really nice.
Can somebody explain math.stackexchange.com/a/170918/16980 Proof 1 where the author write $[H: H\cap K] = [HK: K]$
the author can
did you see the link in the comments?
Links in the comments assume order of H, K and $H\cap K$ to be finite
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez So I end up getting that $$d\left( {I\omega } \right) + I\left( {d\omega } \right) = dJ\left( {{F^*}\omega } \right) + J\left( {d{F^*}\omega } \right) = {\left( {{F^*}\omega } \right)_0}\left( 1 \right) - {\left( {{F^*}\omega } \right)_0}\left( 0 \right)$$
true
04:06
This is why I said it was like a "hyped up" FTC @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez =P
And we have that $$\eqalign{
& {\left( {{F^*}\omega } \right)_0}\left( 1 \right) = \omega \cr
& {\left( {{F^*}\omega } \right)_0}\left( 0 \right) = 0 \cr} $$
everything is tthe FTC
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez HEHE, yes, OK.
There are very few things we know about real functions, two or three. Everything has to go back to one of them
04:07
@RamanaVenkata My favorite way to see the equality is with equivalence relations. Define $\sim$ on $HK$ via $a\sim b$ iff $aK=bK$, and $c\sim d$ on $H$ iff $c(H\cap K)=d(H\cap K)$. By abuse of notation write the quotient spaces as $HK/K$ and $H/(H\cap K)$. Then there is an isomorphism $HK/K\cong H/(H\cap K)$ given by $[hk]\leftrightarrow[h]$.
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez =)
We can't assume the normality of H and K
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Can you try to explain this: "More specifically, we associate to $X$ the cylinder $X×[0,1]$. Identify the top and bottom of the cylinder with the maps $j_1(x) = (x, 1)$ and $j_0(x) = (x, 0)$ respectively. On the differential forms, the induced maps $j_1^*$ and $j_0^*$ are related by a cochain homotopy $K$: $$K d + d K = j_1^* - j_0 ^*$$
@RamanaVenkata I'm not. In general the coset-space G/H is well-defined even when H isn't normal, it just doesn't have a group structure (it does come equipped with a natuarl G-action though, left multiplication, and indeed all orbits of actions arise in this way, as stabilizer coset spaces, up to isomorphism)
04:12
I am not familiar with group actions
you have two maps $ j_0, j_1:X\to X\times[0,1]$
they induce maps on forms
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Aha.
@RamanaVenkata then you can ignore my parenthetical, it is not necessary to understand the rest
there is also a map K on forms, lowering the degree by one, and that relation you quoted holds
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez But, what is $K$? It would be $I\omega$ in my case, right?
$I$ sends $k$ forms to $k-1$ forms.
well, that only clams that K exists
you can construct it in many ways
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez So really the messy part is producing such $K$, =P?
there are several ways of doing it
giving different resultts, even
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez What do you mean?
04:15
the only importnt thing is that some K exists
I mean precisely what I wrote :-)
the construction of the I you mentioned give one homotopy K
there are other constructions, which give different homotopies
the only important thing is that a set of maps K exists which satisfies the relation above
one never, ever uses the specific form of K for anything
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I mean, "different results", but what do you mean by different? Different versions of the lemma?
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Oh, OK. And we know this $K$ exists because $X$ is "contractible"?
no, constructions that give different K's
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Oh, OK.
yes, but going that route is actually waaaaay too long
it requires that you rpove homotopy invariance of de Rham cohomology, and doing that before proving Poincaré's lemma is either absurdly convoluted or circular
Bott and Tu in their book on differential forms give a recursive construction of (a slightly different) K
which is very cute
but, as I said, this is not important at all
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I won't worry too much then. =)
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez I have this problem from Polya and Szego I couldn't solve. Maybe I should give more thinking to it. I showed it to Fava today.
Suppose $t_n$ is a bounded (Fava noted unboundedness provides counterexamples) sequence of reals such that $$t_{n+1}>t_n-\varepsilon_n$$ for some $\varepsilon_n\to 0$ of nonnegative entries.
Then $t_n$ is everywhere dense between its limsup and liminf.
04:26
an increasing sequence satisfies that hypothesis
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Maybe it must be $<$?
Let me check.
wellm a decreasing sequence satisfies the condition with $<$
Right. The book says that exactly.
They say it is related to this problem (two before)
"If the general term of a series which is neither convergent nor properly divergent tends to $0$, the partial sums are everywhere dense between their highest and lowest limit points".
ah, well
if the sequece converges then its limit sup and inf are equal
and a creative interprettion of the sequence being dense between them make sthe statement true :-)
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez Heh, right.
The solution to that last problem is given by Fejér.
04:40
yup, that's a very classical result
 
2 hours later…
07:02
Greetings
chris
I just received an amazing calculus question.
Too beautiful to be true.
wut
let me see
@Ethan ok
Let $b_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $b_0=1$ and
$$b_n=2+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}-2 \sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}$$
Compute
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n 2^n$$
hm
solution?
07:14
@Ethan I wasn't able to imagine more than a solution.
you don't have the solution?
@Ethan well, I have one.
ehh, im to tired for this sort of thing =/
chris
@Ethan it's late there at you?
Here it's 10:16
like 12 am, but I have alot of work to do
sorta
chris, how old are you?
07:16
@Ethan ok
@Ethan I'm older than you, but young.
in school?
@Ethan I gave up many good universities, (like 3)
what do you mean you gave up many?
@Ethan I dropped out.
mind if I ask which one/ones?
07:20
@Ethan they are from my country. I'm afraid you don't know them.
oh
where are you from?
Greetings greatest minds...
@cyberskull hellooooo!!!!!!!!!!!!! :-)
@Ethan Romania
how long have you been studying mathematics?
@Chris'ssis How are you?
07:22
@cyberskull In a very goo shape! Thanks! :-) How about you?
@Ethan I'm mainly self-educated. There are some years.
@Chris'ssis Fine thanks :D
yea me too, about three
(removed)
@Ethan your questions are really interesting! I liked many of them.
lol
why did you start anyway
studying mathematics*
07:25
@Ethan at all universities I needed mathematics ... (I finished a 4th university on the first place in my graduating year)
This is less important ... (who cares?)
me
I have to write personal statements/ essays
@Ethan above there is a mistake
@Ethan $b_0=2$
@Ethan Wanna read my reasons?
@cyberskull Hello!
Let $b_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers such that $b_0=1$ and
$$b_n=2+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}-2 \sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}$$
Compute
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n 2^n$$
@Ethan still, it's $b_0=1$!!!. It's ok my first statement!
@Ethan I just computed it again and this is the right value.
hmmm, I should create a pack with such questions ... (very nice these ones)
08:01
You know, some questions just make you feel absolutely fulfilled after you see their beauty! :-)
08:20
@GustavoBandeira Hi, how are you?
@cyberskull I'm fine. Look: youtube.com/watch?v=4RldHTtd3O8
There's a question here. That asks if Pi contains all possible number combinations.
I guess this is the source
@GustavoBandeira nice...thanks for sharing :-)
@cyberskull This scene is weird. If the teacher answered that, they would say: "Who cares?" and start laughing.
Everybody just got quiet. That's pure fiction!
true dat
Stupid people are never amazed by the beauty of ideas.
08:26
how may such beautiful things exist? Really? I don't know ... but I'm glad they are around me! :-) - 1d ago by Chris's sis ▼
@Ethan I'm preparing to write the 2nd solution to the problem mentioned above. Actually I've largely outlined the main ideas and now try to see on paper if everything matches there.
(however I miss some justifications in my 2nd proof - - hope to improve that)
brb
09:20
@GustavoBandeira thanks again :D
09:37
13
Q: Representing the multiplication of two numbers on the real line

temoThere is a simple way to graphically represent positive numbers $x$ and $y$ multiplied using only a ruler and a compass: Just draw the rectangle with height $y$ in top of it side $x$ (or vice versa), like this But is there a way to draw the number $xy$ directly on the real line (i.e. not as an...

10:33
the key seems to be
$$
\begin{align}
b_n
&=2+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}-2 \sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}\\
&=(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}-1)^2\\
1+\sqrt{b_n}
&=\sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}
\end{align}
$$
@robjohn definitely yes.
So $1+\sqrt{b_n}=2^{1/2^n}$
11:08
$$
\begin{align}
b_n
&=2+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}-2 \sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}\\
&=(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}-1)^2\\
1+\sqrt{b_n}
&=\sqrt{1+\sqrt{b_{n-1}}}
\end{align}
$$
So
$$
\begin{align}
1+\sqrt{b_n}&=2^{1/2^n}\\
b_n&=2^{1/2^{n-1}}-2\cdot2^{1/2^n}+1
\end{align}
$$
Thus,
$$
\begin{align}
\sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n2^n
&=\lim_{m\to\infty}\sum_{n=1}^m(2^{1/2^{n-1}}-2\cdot2^{1/2^n}+1)2^n\\
&=\lim_{m\to\infty}\left(2\sum_{n=0}^{m-1}2^{1/2^n}2^n-2\sum_{n=1}^m2^{1/2^n}2^n+\sum_{n=1}^m2^n\right)\\
&=\lim_{m\to\infty}\left(4-2^{1/2^m}2^{m+1}+2^{m+1}-2\right)\\
@robjohn here you're done in one line.
@robjohn all gets reduced to computing one simple limit. (since some sums above telescope)
That is $2-2\log(2)$
@Chris'ssis Yeah, I got messed up for a while thinking that the $n=0$ term was $2$ instead of $4$
Getting a negative answer, that I knew was wrong
@robjohn ah, I see.
Little question, is the integral of a complex function real ?
Or can it be also omplex ?
@Kasper It is most likely complex, but it can be real
11:18
Hm.. okay
I'm trying to prove that for two random complex functions $f,g$ this hold:

$$\int_{a}^{b} f(t) \overline {g(t)} dt = \overline {\int_{a}^{b} g(t) \overline {f(t)} dt }$$
@Kasper conjugation distributes over summation (integration)
aah, ok
thanks
12:08
$\{$
I just wanted to remind this one-month old meta post: Do we need a tag for Books?
2
The suggestion to create tag has +7/-2 at the moment. That probably is not enough upvotes to consider it community consensus.
Why is it different from (reference-request) on a site like MSE?
I think it would be useful to keep and separate.
For example MO has a separate tag called textbook-recommendation.
If the tags are separated, I would imagine that reference-request would be used for question like: Where can I find a proof of this fact?
Yes, that is true.
I see. For me till now, reference-request always provided me with books, rather than such questions, so I was not sure it is used actually to find a reference that much as much as it is used to find books.
book-recommendation would be good for: What is good introductory text if I want to learn more about locally compact topological groups?
There is a tag synonym between (books) and (reference-request). I am not sure whether they were used as separate tags in the past.
12:27
It was merged on june 9, 2011 By Qiaochu if that list is correct.
Qiaochu
Well but I do not know, whether the two tags were used separately for some time and then merged.
Or (reference-request) was used for both purposes since the beginning, and when someone created (books), the two tags were merged.
I just wanted to mention it in chat; perhaps a few users will notice the question and upvote/downvote to show their opinion.
(Someone already did, it is +7/-3 now.)
I understand.
In my opinion, "reference-request" sounds much more general than "book-recommendation."
12:32
Is there any test for irreducibility of polynomials in $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ where $p$ is prime number? At least for $p=2,3$ and $5$.
13:03
I'm trying to solve this:
Let $f$ a complex function defined on $[0,2 \pi]$. Let $f_m:[a,b] → ℂ$ be the function with $f_m(x) = e^{imx}$. Solve
$$ \tfrac {1}{2 \pi } \sum_{m=-n}^{n} \left [ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} f(t) e^{-imt} dt f_m \right ]$$
13:14
Why are there so many reopen votes in the review queue?
@Kasper What does "solve" mean there? It's just an expression. What is the task?
@kasper do you mean 'evaluate' ?
Hello. I have a question on group theory
@DanielFischer The actual question was, calculate $P_{W_n}$ the orthogonal projection of a function $f$ on the space ${f_{-m},...,f_0,...,f_m}$. After evaluating I get this expression.
if two groups have the same order, are they necessarily isomorphic ?
13:18
@Jean-FrancoisRossignol No, consider $S_3$ and $\mathbb{Z}_6$.
A classmate of my asked this question here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/487719/…
@Kasper Yes, that's the orthogonal projection of $f$ to that space.
@DanielFischer But couldn't I simplify it more or somthing ? It feels like the job isn't finished yet.
@Kasper You could write it as the convolution with the Dirichlet kernel if you want to irritate your teach(er/ing assistant).
13:26
@MartinSleziak Thanks, that pretty much solves it
i guess the new algorithm is retroactively flagging questions to be reopened
i think out of the 20 i voted, all were 'keep closed' except one
13:53
@DanielRust Hey
I am getting really annoyed ....
Is this the correct?

$(-1)^{i} = e^{i \log(-1)} \cdot e^{-2\pi n i}
= e^{-\pi} \cdot e^{-2\pi n}
= e^{-\pi (1 + 2n)}
$
Any hints for this one ?
Kasper, cases
@Kasper Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality
also think of $\sum a_n$ in relation to $\sum a_n^2$ and yeah use the CS Inequality
14:07
hmm... let me think for a second
@Eric Aah I see, what you mean.. a little bit, but I only know cauchy schwarz for finite dimensional
does it also work for infinite ?
or should I prove that ?
@user38268 Why are you getting annoyed?
user87637
14:46
@DanielRust Don't bother. People here get annoyed all the time over the smallest things.
@Jasper haha. I was just a little confused as to why he said he was annoyed right after saying hi to me.
15:35
hiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
16:18
prove cauchy schwartz for finite-dimensional spaces.
then prove convergence for the limit by convergence of the cauchy schwartz upper bound
@Chris'ssis Was that your problem for the day?
@robjohn I attended like 20 problems so far, but that one was "the queen of the day" :-)
@robjohn I hope you liked it! :-)
@Chris'ssis It was a cute telescoping limit.
@robjohn yeah! It wasn't created by me, but I received it from a friend.
@robjohn I'm sure I can create some like that.
@Kasper Unless you are working in $\mathbb{R}^n$ i dont think you should need to prove the infinite dimensional case
16:31
I'll be back a bit later.
 
2 hours later…
18:29
@MartinSleziak i agree with this
18:52
6 hours ago, by cyberskull
In my opinion, "reference-request" sounds much more general than "book-recommendation."
@MartinSleziak
@AlexanderGruber Well, then there's a post on meta where you can vote for it.
19:04
If you have two vector spaces $V_1,V_2$.
And you look at the set of linear maps $L:V_1 \to V_2$. Is this always also a vector space ?
19:39
@Kasper Yes, it is. (I assume that both spaces are over the same field.) Try to google for vector space "L(V,W)" or vector space "Hom(V,W)" to find some basic information about this space.
@MartinSleziak Ah thans for the information :)
19:52
hi
20:52
Greetings
21:09
I challenged myself this evening with the following question:
Let $x_1=2, x_2=4, x_{n+2}=\sqrt{x_{n+1}\cdot x_{n}}$. Compute $\lim_{n\to\infty} (x_n/l)^n$ where $l=\lim_{n\to\infty} x_n$
00:00 - 22:0022:00 - 23:00

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