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00:00 - 19:0019:00 - 00:00

00:29
how can I learn philosophic french?
00:54
what is philosophic french?
01:12
@anon " Ceci n'est pas une pipe"
01:23
@PeterTamaroff XD
@leo Missed you in chat today, sorry.
@GustavoBandeira =)
I lost so much rep due to capping yesterday! And the day before too!
@PeterTamaroff boo-hoo... ;-)
@amWhy Cannot one find out how much rep one lost? I think I saw a code in SO some time ago.
Yes, @Peter, I think so. I remember Brian M. Scott posting a link once in chat to a ranked list of users by total rep, including points lost to capping.
@PeterTamaroff So I imagine one can check it for total rep one would have had without a limit/cap, for any given day/week/month/all-time. You could then simply track down the corresponding "rep that counted" and subtract.
@amWhy Aha.
01:39
@Peter Wouldn't it be a fun feature to have a "save for a rainy day" option...where, like, once day per month or so, one could cushion one's rep (that day) with accumulated rep that exceeded a daily cap, up to that (rainy) day's limit?
Now that all sounds awkward. Hopefully, you get the gist ;-)
@amWhy Heh, I like the ludic spirit.
 
1 hour later…
02:46
such a sleepy chat... Sleepy Hello ;-)
@amWhy I capped +60 day before yesterday, then got just the 60 yesterday :-)
@robjohn Hello! Don't you just hate that! ;-)
03:22
@amWhy Look
+1, +1 Now spread the love ;-)
@amWhy ;) \meleaves
03:51
@PeterTamaroff bye bye Peter.
@PeterTamaroff nicely explained.
 
3 hours later…
06:43
@robjohn ;O...zzzZZZzzz...
 
5 hours later…
11:14
I plotted this today:
$$\frac{1}{4} \left(1-\frac{1}{\exp ^{-1+(s+i r)^4}(4)}\right)$$
Reminds me of Paul Nylanders Newton Raphson fractals but I am not sure it is the same.
12:09
I notice now that this simpler expression gives a similar plot:
$$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^4}}$$
12:59
The plots above are plots of the following expressions:
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^2}}$
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^3}}$
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^4}}$
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^5}}$
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^6}}$
$1-\frac{1}{2^{(s+i r)^7}}$
respectively.
13:35
@skull hi...
:?
13:51
@MatsGranvik Oh! Pretty graphs!
14:07
Hello
I want to prove that $x+y>\sqrt{xy}/2$
oops
@saadtaame Start with $$(\sqrt x-\sqrt y)^2\geq 0$$
What should we talk about?
Unwrap that and see what happens.
14:10
@PeterTamaroff Thanks, I have a solution I just need somebody to check. I wrote: $$((x+y)-\sqrt{xy})^2 \lt (x+y)^2$$ and this gives result exactly. Right?
@saadtaame How so?
(x+y)^2 - 2(x+y)sqrt(xy) +xy < (x+y)2
simplify and you will get the required result
Ah, yes. That is a way.
@PeterTamaroff
Did you try what I gave?
You get $x-2\sqrt{xy}+y\geq 0$ after expanding.
14:15
@pe
That is $$\frac{x+y}{2}\geq \sqrt{xy}$$ as desired.
@PeterTamaroff Yes. Much better solution
@saadtaame Note that if $x=y$ we have equality.
@PeterTamaroff Is MathJax disabled?
@saadtaame Guess you don't have it enabled.
14:17
@PeterTamaroff Thanks.
@PeterTamaroff It works on the forums but not here. How do I enable it?
@PeterTamaroff Thanks. I have a slow computer...I'd better leave it as is
Do you guys have mathematician idols?
robjohn is mine
14:28
robjohn is a user of this network I assume. So why is it that he is your idol?
because he is an ideal mathematician
Would you care to give more details. I mean, what makes him the man?
ask him a question and find out
@robjohn What is math for you?
Hello everyone!
14:36
hi
@awllower Hello!
Any topologists over here?
@Charlie What's that palm on your profile image?
@saadtaame have you ever been to India, where they paint there palms?
@skullpatrol No.
@skullpatrol What is that?
Is that you?
@PeterTamaroff Henna. It's not permanent though; it vanishes in days
@saadtaame Ah, they use it for tattoos in the beaches here.
@skullpatrol It's used a lot in north Africa in wedding ceremonies and the like.
14:53
hmmm...interesting
I've never really read the wikipedia article on it.
@skullpatrol How did you imbed that image?
There should be an "upload..." rectangle beside the "send."
Insert an image

from my computer from the web


click browse to choose an image from your computer
Right.
15:25
What is the sweetest way of proving $$\sum_{(k,n)=1\;;\;1\leq k\leq n}k\equiv 0\mod n$$
@Ethan maybe?
Ah, I think I know.
@PeterTamaroff What does $(k,n)=1$ mean?
@saadtaame That $k$ and $n$ are comprime.
@PeterTamaroff $gcd(k,n)=1$, is this a new notation?
@saadtaame It is shorter, that is all.
(Also, the result is true for $n=4,5,\ldots$.
15:42
Ah, nope.
Maybe show that $$\Sum_{(k,n)\neq 1} k \equiv n(n+1)/2 \mod n$$
Maybe show that $$\sum_{(k,n)\neq 1} k \equiv n(n+1)/2 \mod n$$
Ah, we should pair numbers up with their unique inverse.
Note that we can write them like this $$\eqalign{
& \left\{ {1, - 1} \right\} \cr
& \left\{ {1, - 1} \right\} \cr
& \left\{ {1,2, - 2, - 1} \right\} \cr
& \left\{ {1, - 1} \right\} \cr
& \left\{ {1,2,3, - 3, - 2, - 1} \right\} \cr} $$ where I'm writing things $\mod n$.
And note that this works because $\phi(n)$ is even for $n\geq 3$.
16:04
@PeterTamaroff How goes it?
@JayeshBadwaik Good.
@JayeshBadwaik =)
What are you up to?
@PeterTamaroff =) I have started my graduate school, we have a refresher course in first 15 days. Kind of bring upto speed stuff in undergrad math. Solving a real analysis assignment currently.
@JayeshBadwaik Nice!
And...?
16:09
Courses start from 1st aug.
And? ?
good luck :-)
@JayeshBadwaik What is the assignment?
@PeterTamaroff A host of problems from all over analysis, sequence, integrals, uniform convergence. some 15 problems in total.
@JayeshBadwaik Ah! Any trouble?
16:11
Not really too hard. Basic ones.
@PeterTamaroff Not really. :-)
@JayeshBadwaik Heh, not surprised.
We are also doing the proof of the fact the there exists a ordered field with least upper bound property, and that it is unique upto isomorphism and dedekind cut is one construction of it. I think the proof is very basic, but we are doing everything from set theory. That part is kind of a refresher in mathematical communication. So, it is kind of long.
@PeterTamaroff I did not understand your solution
@saadtaame Well, the sum is actually $$\frac{n\phi(n)}2$$
The proof can go as follows.
What is $\phi (n)$?
16:18
As I said, $\phi(n)=2m$ when $n\geq 3$.
@saadtaame Euler's Totient.
Do anyone know the problem with measure the amount of liquid in a barrel?
Eg drop a stick into semi full barrel, to measure its volume.
It is quite a well known problem, but I can not seem to find the solution to the problem.
16:36
@N3buchadnezzar You see how much the water level rises, brahw.
You can not see into the barrel
@skullpatrol but I am an analyst, I don't do ideals ;-)
@N3buchadnezzar Why not?
Are you blind?
@saadtaame to me, math is fun. It is the opportunity to push myself and help others to do the same.
2
@PeterTamaroff The barrel is closed..
16:47
@robjohn when you teach first year calculus students that infinity is not a number, how would you logically present to them -infinity < x < +infinity?
@skullpatrol $x$ is a real number.
@robjohn Yes.
I'll show you a real number...!
@skullpatrol As I said, $+\infty$ is a point in the topological two point compactification of $\mathbb{R}$. The reason we use a two point compactification for $\mathbb{R}$ and a one point compactification for $\mathbb{C}$, is that we can use $\lt$ and $\gt$ to describe subsets of the two point compactification of $\mathbb{R}$. Since there is no order on $\mathbb{C}$, we use the one point compactification.
16:53
@AntonioVargas Platon would turn in his grave
@skullpatrol Therefore, $-\infty\lt x\lt+\infty$ describes the standard reals as a subset of the two point compactification of $\mathbb{R}$.
@robjohn Thank you, I did not know that the reason was the use of < and > to describe subsets.
@robjohn Any first year highschool student would totally understand and accept this answer ;)
@skullpatrol well, that is my take on it, at least. Others may have differing opinions.
@N3buchadnezzar Yeah, but they listen to proof by intimidation, so it's cool...
17:02
"Why I study mathematics? Well at highschool, my teacher robjohn threatened to beat me if I did not accept his proofs. That was when I really started appreciating abstract mathematics"
3
:p
Proof by intimidation (or argumentum verbosium) is a jocular phrase used mainly in mathematics to refer to a style of presenting a purported mathematical proof by giving an argument loaded with jargon and appeal to obscure results, so that the audience is simply obliged to accept it, lest they have to admit their ignorance and lack of understanding. The phrase is also used when the author is an authority in his field presenting his proof to people who respect a priori his insistence that the proof is valid or when the author claims that his statement is true because it is trivial or becau...
Anyone familiar with Fourier Integral Representation ?
@LittleChild Explain, please.
I am attempting to solve a question and I am confused with the notation
@LittleChild OK, keep it coming.
17:14
0
Q: Learning Fourier Integral

Little ChildI am learning Fourier Integral for real numbers. I downloaded a presentation of some university. I am summing up what I know and hopefully someone will correct me where I am wrong. Fourier integral can be calculated only for functions that are decaying (what ever that means) and non-periodic ...

$\lambda$ is ?? 0,1,2,3.... right ?
So, here is the problem I am solving:
$f(x)$ is $x$ when -1 < x < 2 and 0 elsewhere. Calculate Fourier Integral Representation @PeterTamaroff
What is $A,B$ in that question?
-1 and 2
oh sorry that
$A= \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)Cos(\lambda x)dx$
B is the same. Cos becomes Sin @PeterTamaroff
I am unable to evaluate the integral after calculating it
brb
what is the difference between evaluating and calculating?
@robjohn - Are you good in Calculus?
Had you seen that variance appear in taylor's expansion?
@PeterTamaroff: I have added a Motivation section to my answer that might help explain why I chose the approach I used.
@Victor pardon? what variance, where?
17:27
equation (5.5) in i.sstatic.net/j0dyh.png
@Victor Is that some actuarial text? The terminology is hard for me to understand.
@robjohn - Yes, however, how come variance could appear in some taylor's expansion?
@robjohn by that I mean .. substituting in the values :)
@PeterTamaroff were you able to get the answer ?
@Victor well, given a probability distribution $\phi(x)$, the variance is $$\int (x-x_0)^2\phi(x)\,\mathrm{d}x$$
@Victor where $x_0=\int x\phi(x)\,\mathrm{d}x$
@LittleChild Sorry, I don't know about Fourier.
17:37
@Victor If you take the fourier transform of $f$, the variance becomes the second derivative of the fourier transform of $f$
@robjohn Ah, Laplace's method, aye?
@PeterTamaroff ok :)
@Victor and the second derivative is part of the Taylor expansion. This is actually the basic idea behind some proofs of the Central Limit Theorem
@PeterTamaroff $\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-1}^{2}x.Cos(nx)dx$
@LittleChild integrate by parts
17:42
@robjohn Did.
@LittleChild I think you want $\cos(\pi nx)$.
I dont know if the formula is right (ref. the question I linked to)
The formula just says Cos(nx)
@PeterTamaroff Then they wouldn't need the $\frac1\pi$... it is weird
@robjohn - Thank you, May you answer more completely on my put on hold question
-1
Q: How to derive the variance premium formula

VictorHow to derive formula (5.5) with Taylor's expansion in the following link? https://i.sstatic.net/j0dyh.png

17:45
@robjohn But, what period does the function have?
@Victor As I said, I don't know most of the terminology used there. I will look and see if I can say anything intelligent.
Fourier Integral Representation is for non-periodic function, I guess
@PeterTamaroff as I said, it is weird.
The formula is wrong? @robjohn
@robjohn Please pin chat rules. :-) Thanks
17:47
@LittleChild well, in general, as Peter says, you want to integrate over a whole period of the sin and cos...
@PeterTamaroff How do you type the little o notation in $\LaTeX$?
@JayeshBadwaik Just write o(x)
Alternatively, use \omicron.
17:49
Now, that's what I needed. :-)
@robjohn if I made the PDF I am using as reference available, will you explain to me what is going on ? :)
$o(x)$ vs $\omicron(x)$ hmmm
@robjohn There must be a difference!
They look identical in STIX fonts
@anon $$\prod_{\zeta \in \Bbb G_n^{\times}}\zeta=(-1)^{\varphi(n)}$$ yes?
17:52
@robjohn ??
@LittleChild is this a book or class notes?
Looks more like someone made a slide show, converted it into PDF and uploaded it
There r examples n graphs too
@PeterTamaroff That is $-1$ only for powers of two, right?
@PeterTamaroff if that means over prim roots of unity then yes
I think $\varphi(n)$ is odd only for powers of two
17:55
@anon Yes.
@robjohn Nope, just for $2$.
$\varphi(n)$ is even for $n\geq 3$.
@PeterTamaroff ah, of course
@anon What is the good notation?
there is the $(p-1)p^{e-1}$
I'd use $\langle\zeta\rangle=\mu_n$ probably.
@anon What is that?
17:57
$\mu_n$ is notation for $n$th roots of unity
@LittleChild where is it uploaded?
Putting it on mediafire. Wait
Do you guys use cloud storage ??
You can store clouds? :D
Just put it somewhere easily and commonly accessible
18:00
@Arkamis oh hello there, astronaut
Why am I an astronaut?
just saying. You said you were into aeronautics.
Most of my interests stay below LEO.
@Arkamis How about putting it in the patriot's super bowl trophy case, that is easily accessible to the giants :D
@skullpatrol yes, but it's quite nebulous how to access it...
18:02
@Arkamis
Well... use copy.com for cloud storage.
you start with 15gb. You refer people and get 5gb more
:)
So if you get all your friends n family to use it, you can get a lot if free space
@robjohn See the link
@skullpatrol >:(
@PeterTamaroff I am not a fan of all the letters
@PeterTamaroff the integral is over all $\mathbb{R}$ but the function is $0$ off that interval $[-1,2]$
@skullpatrol Of course you can store the clouds. I keep them in a jar. Their molecular formula is $H_2O$
Atomic mass is like.... (2X1 + 1x16) = 18
Angstrom!
@LittleChild But how do you count the number of clouds?
18:08
@anon I am going to use that exact phrase whenever I come across any article or opinion I don't like.
@LittleChild see what I said to Peter
The weight of water is 1gm / 1cm^3. You can estimate it. Get the weight in grams.
Darn, the links take you to the transcript even if the reference is still on the screen. >8(
@Arkamis u here ?
@robjohn It is best to use the "drag-down" option then.
18:11
Yes
so .. I am attempting to solve the first example..
and I cant
What are you having trouble with?
The final answer .. of $A(\lambda)$
Well, that's not the final answer, but an intermediate step
wait.. let me calculate.
I will show you where I am stuck.
18:14
Just integrate by parts
Remember, in computing $A(\lambda)$ you're integrating over $x$, so $\lambda$ is constant
ok, here is what I get.. without plugging the upper and lower limit
$\frac{1}{\pi}[\frac{xSin(\lambda x)}{\lambda} + \frac{1}{\lambda^2}Cos(\lambda x)]$
@Arkamis
That's not right.
err... ?
18:22
Or, maybe it is, hang on
woohoo !! got the answer !!
It is right !!
Yeah, I missed a sign
Yeah that's right
Now plug in the limits
did. Got the answers
$$
\begin{align}
\frac1\pi\int_{-1}^2x\cos(x)\,\mathrm{d}x
&=\left.\frac1\pi x\sin(x)\right]_{-1}^2-\frac1\pi\int_{-1}^2\sin(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\\
&=\left.\frac1\pi x\sin(x)+\frac1\pi\cos(x)\right]_{-1}^2\\
&=\frac1\pi(2\sin(2)-\sin(1)+\cos(2)-\cos(1))
\end{align}
$$
After 15 years, I still miss the damn negative sign when integrating by parts.
18:28
@Arkamis chill, bro. Math is wicked
I calculated both. A and B
now just substitute the values in integral formula ?
Yeah
then do it all over again
DO. IT. ALL. OVER. AGAIN. ???
You know, lots of fun integrals
@LittleChild Yay! Computations be tough. Bitches be crazy.
We all love integrals
18:30
@PeterTamaroff tough*
:p
@LittleChild I salute you.
Naw, though. Be was an active verb!
It's deep philosophical chat here today.
2
"Computations be."
woah
Let computations be. Leave them alone.
You can't not be on a boat.
18:33
@LittleChild HAHAHAHAHA
I apply rigorous standards at home. I see no reason why they should not be applied at workplace
@LittleChild I prefer this
Note how I used [TEXT](link)
oh ok :)
Inglorious Basterds
@Arkamis Still here ?
Nope
18:44
then who is ?
Someone must be.
$\frac{Sin\lambda}{\pi\lambda^2}[\lambda-1] + \frac{Cos 2 \lambda}{\pi \lambda^2}[1-2\lambda]-\frac{Cos\lambda}{\pi \lambda^2}[\lambda + 1] + \frac{Sin 2 \lambda}{\lambda^2 \pi}[2\pi + 1]$
@Arkamis Now, I must integrate that
Looks like a chore.
These are all constants so all I need to do is add an $x$ right ?
18:47
why ?
Now you're integrating by $\lambda$
awwwh ok.
Maybe I am not required to integrate that in exam :)
@Arkamis How old r u ?? : )
Integrating it should not be a problem.
Actually, it's basically the same result as what you've found previously
@Arkamis what do u mean ?
$\int y \cos ky\ dy$
Or $\int y\sin ky\ dy$
18:49
so I must leave it at that ?
In the first case, you integrated with respect to $x$
Now you're integrating with respect to $\lambda$
So in the first case, you had $y = x$, now you have $y = \lambda$. Basically, you'll be doing the same basic integral a few different times.
Try it and see.
$y$ is just a dummy variable I made up to illustrate the point
Just do the integrals out and see what happens
It's easy, just tedious.
The $\frac{1}{\pi}$ comes out
$\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{Sin\lambda}{\lambda^2}[\lambda - 1]$
@Arkamis correct ?
Yeah
Actually, I forgot about that $1/\lambda$
So it's not the same integral, but it's similar enough.
18:54
It is going to be 8 different integrals
@Arkamis $\int\frac{Sin\lambda}{\lambda}d\lambda$ How do I proceed ? Integrate By Parts ?
I don't know. Maybe. Look it up in an integral table. I find very little actual value in memorizing the forms of antiderivatives.
00:00 - 19:0019:00 - 00:00

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