Putabam Latine esse "recte dicis."

I think that's possible, but I think rem dico/loquor is perhaps the most idiomatic.

Hmm. I find 11 examples of "recte dicis" in the corpus and none of "rem dicis." latin.packhum.org/search?q=recte+dicis

(Plautus and Cicero.)

Hmm indeed.

Perhaps you're right, then, that recte dicere is more common.

I always found res an extremely difficult word to wrap my head around

And as for latin.stackexchange.com/questions/771/…, I give up

@brianpck Ahh that's hilarious.

I do understand now why he uses the weird order, for the sake of referencing.

But then he should just use A, B, C or something.

Or remove the numbers from the quotations.

And it doesn't explain \.

Perhaps because that interrupts SE's auto-numbering?

quomodo dici potest latine "I can't even"

"immittere manum nec volo nec queo"

@brianpck Ne...quidem?

Non...etiam?

You might want to look at these words:

immo anglice "I can't even" idioma est

recentior usu est (non decem abhinc annis exortum)--sibi vult aliquid simile huic: "I don't even want to try"

Oh, you meant "I can't even" as a full sentence, yes.

That's different, I ignored the context.

Incipere nequeo.

It doesn't have the flavor of the original, but I have no idea how to keep that.

Vel fortasse "conari nequeo."

"Moliri nequeo."

The Language Log had a great term for why its so effective: "stylized verbal incoherence mirroring emotional incoherence"

so maybe it's best just to preserve the incompleteness of the original and just say: "nequeo quidem"

OOOH!

*Nequeo quidem*—it's brilliant!

It's the best coining I've seen since vemortis .

(Undead.)

So I just came across the following sentence in the Octavius: "Et Demosthenes, quod sciret responsa simulata, philippizein Pythiam querebatur"

(written early 3rd c. AD)

I have no idea what "philippizein" means, but it certainly looks like a Greek infinitive, taken from a name and transposed as-is into Latin

@brianpck Interesting! Do you want to post that as an answer to the question about deriving verbs from names? It's not a complete answer, sure, but it's an interesting observation worth bringing up.

Any clue what it means, before I do

?

not sure what Philip this is referring to, nor what he is so famous for that he inspired a verb

@brianpck I have never heard of it before nor do I know the context but a Google search gave me this: merriam-webster.com/dictionary/philippize

perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/…

Hmm... I wonder if the English meaning would be applicable. It sure sounds like it comes from some ancient context, not a new one.

Definition of philippize: to speak in support of a cause under the influence of a bribe.

Origin of philippize: Greek Philippizein to be on Philip's side, from Philippos Philip (of Macedon) + -izein -ize

en.wiktionary.org/wiki/philippize#English says "to write or speak in the style of a philippic

"

And a Philippic is defined (by extension) as "Any tirade or declamation full of bitter condemnation"

ah, but wait: Demosthenes was the one who delivered the Philippic orations

Perhaps something like that would go well with "responsa simulata".

English translation: " And Demosthenes, because he knew that the answers were feigned, complained that the Pythia philippized"

which isn't terribly helpful

Not helpful at all.

The definitions we found do make some sense here (being influenced by bribes or feelings), but I don't know what was intended.

Perhaps someone else could be able to help if the finding was made visible. It's ok to say that the answer is incomplete and requires help for interpretation.

Well, ultimately the Octavius is quoting Æschines (ostensibly) quoting Demosthenes. Æschines and Demosthenes had a terrible rivalry in 4th-century-B.C.E. Athens, centering around Athens' position on Philip of Macedon. Æschines was pro-Philip and Demosthenes very anti (hence the Demosthenian Philippics and our word Philippic, meaning a bitter speech full of invective).

In Æschines' "Against Ctesiphon," he refers to Demosthenes' accusation that the Delphic Oracle, in saying (if I remember correctly) that the Athenians should trust Philip, was essentially a Philippizer—a collaborator—a sympathizer.

Peter Hunt, in War, Peace, and Alliance in Demosthenes' Athens, suggests that "this was a derogatory word constructed on the model of Medizein, the term applied to Greek states who aided the Medes [Persians] during the Persian invasion."

wow...that's really helpful

So Minucius Felix in the Octavius, in his explanation to what's-his-name the pagan of why oracles are baloney, is referring to a several-centuries-old Greek story about what a Greek guy said in Greek.

So I'm not really sure it could be considered an affirmative answer to the question about making Latin verbs from names.

same here...it's more a translitteration of a foreign term

...albeit which the whole audience probably understood

I think most Romans at that time would have spoken Greek as a second (first?) language

Right. At most a borrowing from a foreign language that everybody understood. Like croissant.