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6:00 PM
How do you write a point on the line through $\vec A$ with direction vector $\vec v$?
@noballpoint The point is that you might have a greater variety of routes from one point to another. Think about how a circle is different from a line.
 
yes, $\vec{r}=\vec{A}+\lambda \vec{v}$
 
No, your arguing has been totally vague and hand-wavey. I said immediately that you need to write down a function to which to apply the intermediate value theorem. @noballpoint
 
@TedShifrin yes, $\vec{r}=\vec{A}+\lambda \vec{v}$
 
I thought you just said "apply IVT more concretely".
 
OK, @Unknownx. So let's call $\vec r$ instead $\vec p$, with $p$ a fixed point. Then if it lies on every tangent line, that means that for every $s$, $\vec p = \vec\alpha(s) + \lambda(s)\vec T(s)$ for some scalar $\lambda$. In other words, we have to say what the tangent line at a point of the curve means.
OK, maybe I said that. "Concrete" means ... let's actually apply the theorem. For that you need a function. Come on.
It's quite ironic, @noballpoint. Rudin is the most pedantic choice possible of a text on real analysis. You cannot function with that book unless you are precise and say everything precisely.
 
6:07 PM
So since you mentioned it I have to show that $\sqrt{x^2+1}$ is not a contraction mapping?
 
Look at its derivative. Why does that not make it a contraction mapping?
 
@TedShifrin here, in this case we got the result by taking $\vec{p}=\vec{0}$. Right?
 
Right.
 
Now I understood :)
Thank you very much
 
You're welcome :)
 
6:09 PM
<3
 
I am stuck on a paragraph in my lecture notes concerning uniform continuity. Here's an extract "...since $f$ is uniformly continuous in $X\times Y$, we can, for every $\epsilon>0$, find a positive constant $\delta=\delta(\epsilon)>0$ such that $|f(x,y)-f(u,v)|<\epsilon$ when $(x,y),(u,v)\in X\times Y$ and $|x-u|+|y-v|<\delta$."
 
I did take the derivative and did show that $|f'(x)| < 1$
 
I do not understand the part $|x-u|+|y-v|<\delta$. Suppose a function of two variables is uniformly continuous, isn't then the requirement that the Euclidean distance between $(x,y)$ and $(u,v)$ is less than $\delta$, i.e. $\sqrt{(x-u)^2+(y-v)^2}<\delta$. Why write $|x-u|+|y-v|<\delta$?
 
It does not have to be the Euclidean distance. Does that even make sense on $X\times Y$? They're using a different norm on $X\times Y$.
 
Ok.
 
6:12 PM
But you have to see why the uniform continuity does not depend on the choice of norm.
 
Well, I suspect the lecture notes are using this norm from the outset.
 
It does make sense of $p$-norm on $X\times Y$ i.e. $\|(x, y)\|_p = (\|x\|_X^p+\|y\|_Y^p)^{1/p}$ for $1\leq p < \infty$, however
and they should be all equivalent
 
I didn't think in the direction of making up another function :)
Well, then this is a lesson to stay precise and not to play with shaky arguments! I was in the mood of making my writing clearer, since your critique. That's why I asked if the writing was not rigorous. I hope my solutions back from ch.1 and ch.2 were strict to the definitions...
Was it uncommon for your undergrad students to hand you hand-wavey arguments?
 
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4713933/crank-nicolson-method-with-an-inverse-matrix
could you say this question involves crankery?
 
When they were starting off. Rudin is closer to the end of the undergraduate journey.
 
6:22 PM
Just heard about the Canadian wildfire smoke, I hope everyone is fine.
 
Apparently it's all over the northeastern USA, too.
 
From what I have already present in the chat since my first coming here, do you think I am functioning? Besides my slow progress, but you can comment on this separately, if you wish.
 
functioning?
 
The pictures are very much frightening.
 
like, studying functions?
 
6:29 PM
No. Studying sufficiently good with Rudin. Or math overall, but I asked about analysis only here.
 
If a curve lies in a plane $\mathscr P$. Then span of $\vec{T(s)}$ and $\vec{N}(s)$ is same$\mathscr P$. right?
 
@Unknown Provided the plane passes through the origin.
@noballpoint I talk to hundreds of people here. I am not in general going to pass judgment.
 
Mad
Are moderators here also have power in academia?
@Mad Some 80 years ago, in Germany, many people were enthusiastically reporting others, basing their reports on their understanding of "morality". Think twice about the validity of your morality concepts, before inflicting problems on others. — Michael_1812 3 hours ago
This guy literally just mentioned nazi crimes as comparision to my post
 
Mad
unbelievable
 
6:34 PM
@TedShifrin what happened if plane doesn't passes through the origin?
Let us consider a circle in the plane $z=1$. It is planar. The normal and tangent vectors are in the plane $z=1$.
 
No, they are NOT in that plane.
They are in the plane $z=0$.
The tail of the vector always is at the origin. This is why we had to translate the direction vector of the line earlier.
 
@Mad that guy is an idiot don't worry
 
Well, his statement is correct, and there are people in today's US (not to mention Russia, etc.) acting the same way. But what does this have to with MSE?
@shin You act very much like an idiot a lot of the time.
 
Mad
I am not even going to discuss why this is wrong on so many levels.
 
I have no idea what you said that occasioned that, so I'm not going to discuss it further, either. But on face value he's right.
 
6:39 PM
@TedShifrin i don't pretend otherwise heheh
 
Mad
0
Q: Should one (if possible) report Professors for plagiarism

MadIt has come to my attention, that some of the professors I studied with as an undergraduate, plagiarized their lectures. In some cases, it was word for word. In fact, they did not even explain it any better or add anything, merely translating or in some cases just copying the original text. The b...

And this would be the last i am saying to this subject, you might be infamiliar with this since you are in the USA. But this is a very big topic in germany, and to have such comparision draw, is beyond appauling. It is disgusting, i reported his post
 
It is not about morality. It is about ethics and professional integrity.
 
And plenty of professors copy the textbook onto their paper and then copy the paper onto the blackboard. This is not a secret. I do not consider them good professors, but they do it.
@Unknown That is wrong. It is a convenient picture, but the vectors have their tails at the origin. I already said that. We draw these pictures, but they are just pictures, not facts.
Such pictures come from physics, where people move vectors freely. And mathematicians do it, too, but you have to remember that when we write a vector in terms of components, we are always putting its tail at the origin.
 
Mad
this is not issue, just translate the vector
 
6:45 PM
I got caught up doing something, but I wanted to ask Ted. Since I had shown $|f(x)| < 1$ for all $x$, wouldn't this actually establish that it is a contraction mapping, since .......................Oh!!..........it is not a contraction mapping because the $c$ is going to be dependent on my value of $x$.
stream of conciousness pouring into the chat
 
okay. Now I got it when i translated to parametric form $\vec{r}=[cos(t),sin(t),1]$ tangent vector is $[-sin(t), cos(t),0]$ and normal is $[cos(t),-sin(t),0]$. Am i correct?
Thank you for clarifying misconceptions.
 
Mad
You can verify this, the tanget vector should be perpendicular to your vector r.
Take the scalarproduct, you will see its zero
 
@TedShifrin one of my teachers did that, but he was open to discussion so I didn't mind that
very openly too
 
if normal and tangent are in the $xy$ plane. why it is called as normal and tangent vectors?@TedShifrin
 
@Unknownx yes
 
6:48 PM
it is just directions. right?
 
You need to go back and learn what vectors are.
How will you denote a vector with its tail at $P$ rather than at the origin?
 
Mad
A normal vector is a vector that is perpendicular (or orthogonal) to a given object or surface at a specific point.
a tangent vector is a vector that "touches" or is tangent to a curve or surface at a specific point.
 
But that’s not true. That’s the whole confusion.
The translate of the tangent vector from the origin to the point in question looks as you describe it.
 
@TedShifrin it is the translation. right?
 
We draw the picture of the translated vector, yes, for intuition.
 
6:53 PM
@TedShifrin okay. Thank you
 
Pedantic people define vectors as equivalence classes of directed line segments.
 
Thank you.
 
@Mad No. You have to contact the moderators there. You will have to look up to see if any are not striking, or wait until the strike is over.
 
I wonder how many people ended up signing that petition.
 
993
 
7:02 PM
I was just about to say 993, so far
Now 994
 
Not huge numbers. I guess I’m in the anti-ChatGPT minority.
 
It’s all over the news. Vice had a piece about it recently
(about? on)
 
Robjohn, you know about such stuff.
 
including 105 moderators
 
@onepotatotwopotato That has sociological explanations (historical lack equal education, equal opportunity, …). But if you zoomed in to some specified field the picture might change. Symplectic geometry is dominated by female mathematicians, for example.
 
7:09 PM
Cuz of Dusa leading the way.
 
Indeed.
 
And probably a ton of Chinese geometers generations past because of Chern.
 
@Jakobian I'm surprised so few people have signed....... I signed immediately after I read it
 
I signed as soon as I found it in the starboard.
 
sign what
 
7:16 PM
as an ai language model, i can't sign petitions, but i can offer several reasons why everything is fine. first, everything. second, is. third, fine.
 
@s.harp everything, sign everything
 
when I was in school there was a kid that would crawl on the floor and sign people's shoes with a marker
 
@leslie @robjohn Any Fourier intuition on this question? It’s not something I know offhand.
 
@BalarkaSen Similar pattern can be seen in chess, many famous chess players (like Kasparov or Short) used to think that women are inferior than men.
 
The world is full of narrow-minded male chauvinists, yes. More from certain cultures than others.
 
7:21 PM
@TedShifrin can I ask you something about the normal curvature? So it's about the definition and intuition behind it
 
Yes?
 
ted: yeah, i think it needs more information. lots of ways to measure convergence (and even 'fourier series,' if you have a specific function in hand where you can compute everything, you might be able to collect fourier coefficients in an order that would be better than the sequence 'the nth partial sum'...)
there is some possibility that the source of the problem did not provide this kind of information or expect anything precise, which leaves the asker in a bad place.
 
But I was assuming they wanted decay rate of coefficients depending on the extension. So obviously the smoother the better.
 
@TedShifrin Here in India, almost everyone is either misogynist, or casteist, or elitist.
 
ted: well, yeah, but i would almost assume that if they wanted that they would have asked a clearer question in the first instance.
 
7:23 PM
@SoumikMukherjee Reminds me of the joke: Those damn savages from instert coutnry here are a bunch of intolerant racists
 
Even in the US girls are not typically encouraged to do math/science in primary and secondary schools.
Leslie: That’s why I complained about the title, for starters.
 
@SoumikMukherjee India has 1400 milliards people, which I suppose to have a great diversity.
 
The simplest question would be as follows: Choose a period L>1 and an extension of f to [0,L] so that the Fourier series converges uniformly on [0,1] and has significantly better (ie better tail behaviouour) convergence than the 1-periodic extension.
I would have no idea how to proceed with that, are there standard methods?
 
@Yai0Phah Diversity is fine, discrimination is not.
 
We have defined the normal curvature $K_n(s)$ at $\gamma(s)$ and the geodesic curvature $K_g(s)$ at $\gamma(s)$ the be scalars s.t. $\gamma''(s)=K_n(s)n_{\gamma(s)}+K_g(s)(n_{\gamma(s)}\times \gamma'(s))$ where $n_{\gamma(s)}$ is the normal vector at $\gamma(s)$. But this definition does not help me much. Then we have also seen that if $\gamma$ has unit speed we know more, because we know that $K_n=L (u')^2+2Mu'v'+N (v')^2$ where
$L,M,N$ are the coeff. of the second fundamental form and $u,v$ are s.t. $\gamma(s)=\sigma(u(s),v(s))$. But can one think about this geometrically?
 
7:29 PM
@s.harp :(
 
@user123234 When you paste this in, it does not typeset the math …
 
I have not pastet it in, I don't know why this looks so strange
 
@user123234 Think of it like this: Curves in a surface can be as curved as you like (just imagine something really wiggly). But they cannot be as "uncurved" as you like, since the surface itself forces the curve to have some curvature. The normal curvature measures this "minimal" amount of curvature coming from the surface itself.
the geodesic curvature tells you something about the curve, if its zero then you have a curve thats as close to "uncurved" as you can get in this particular surface
 
Hmm … Anyhow, have you looked at my diff geo text? The normal curvature is the curvature of the normal slice in the same direction. It does not depend on the actual curve.
 
curves with geodesic curvature = 0 are the "straight" lines in the surface
 
7:32 PM
hi everyone, I have a question
My goal is to find the eigenvalues of a square matrix using rank's notion. Let $A\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}, x\in\mathbb{R}^n$, the objective is to find nontrivial solutions for the following homogenous system
$$
(\lambda I - A) x =0.
$$
As a result of the following incomplete row reducted echolen form, we get
$$
\begin{bmatrix}
(\lambda -1) & 0 \\ 0 & (\lambda+1)(\lambda-5)
\end{bmatrix}
$$

This is where the problem arises. I must first assume $\lambda \neq 1$ and multiply $(\lambda+1)(\lambda-5)$ by -1 to avoid having $\lambda=-1$ degenerates the rank, henc
 
@s.harp but wouldn't the principal curvatures $K_1:=\max_{\theta\in [0,2\pi]} K_n(\theta)$ and $K_2:=\min_{\theta\in [0,2\pi]} K_n(\theta)$ would measure this minimal resp. maximal amount of curvature
 
@user123234 the normal curvature always is in [K_1, K_2], but it also depends on the direction of the curve (ie how much the surface curves in that direction)
 
@TedShifrin No I haven't but I have now seen it, do you know maybe on which page I should start? Because I have no time to read the whole text
@s.harp Yes this makes sense, but the normal curvature does not measure the minimal amount of curvature does it?
 
Anyhow, you do want to project $\kappa N$ onto the surface normal and onto the tangent plane. The two pieces tell you $\kappa_n$ and $\kappa_g$.
Section 2 and section 4 of chapter 2. The whole sections are not needed.
Yes, it does, because you take a geodesic in that direction.
 
@user123234 let p in S, v in T_pS a unit vector, the normal curvature in direction v measures the minimal amount of curvature that a curve with speed v can have
 
7:37 PM
@TedShifrin But then why do I need my $K_2$?
@TedShifrin Thanks!
 
I’ve never explained it that way. It comes from $\kappa^2 = \kappa_n^2 + \kappa_g^2$.
 
There is no unital ring homomorphism $\phi:\mathbb Q \to \mathbb Z$.

Proof: Suppose $\phi$ is such a unital ring homomorphism. Let $z, z' \in \mathbb Z$. Notice $\phi(z) = z \phi(1) = z$ because $1_{\mathbb Q} \mapsto 1_{\mathbb Z}$. But then $\phi(z) = \phi(z')\phi(\frac{z}{z'})= z$, and therefore $\phi(z') = z'$ is a factor of $z$ in $\mathbb Z$. Since $z'$ was arbitrary, $0$ is a factor of $z$, and therefore $z = 0$. But the map does not have $1_{\mathbb Q} \mapsto 1_{\mathbb Z}$, a contradiction.
 
You’re talking about normal curvatures depending on direction. We’re fixing a direction and asking what normal curv in that direction is.
 
does anyone believe me
 
Just tell me where $1/2$ goes.
 
7:42 PM
 
hm
 
If I have this picture,can I think about the normal curvature here?
 
@TedShifrin do you mean to tell me 1/2 is not an integer? Have I been lied to?
 
hm, we have $\phi(2)\phi(1/2) = 1$, so we're forced to make $\phi(1/2) = 1$
 
Look at addition, silly.
 
7:45 PM
sorry my question was missing some info. This is the modified version. My goal is to find the eigenvalues of a square matrix using rank's notion. Let $𝐴\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n},x\in\mathbb{R}^n$, the objective is to find nontrivial solutions for the following homogenous system $(\lambda 𝐼−𝐴)x=0$ which occurs if and only if $(\lambda 𝐼−𝐴)$ singular. I can use the determinant for this purpose but I need to use the rank. For example, let $A=\begin{bmatrix}1&2\\4&3 \end{bmatrix}$ As a result of the following incomplete row reducted echolen form, we get
 
You need to slice the surface with a normal plane containing $v$.
Your computation is wrong, Croco.
 
$1 = \phi(1) = \phi(1/2) + \phi(1/2)$, and since $\phi(1/2)$ is an integer, we have $1=0$. thanks ted
 
@TedShifrin $R_2 \rightarrow R_2 + \frac{4}{(\lambda -1)}R_1$.
where $\lambda \neq 1$
Having double checked my calculations by hand, I am sure they are accurate, hopefully.
 
I have no idea where you’re getting this. You can’t do random manipulations over the polynomial ring.
 
4 hours ago, by Shaun
Hi :) I have an idea I'm not sure how to articulate into mathematics. It requires analysis I haven't studied in a while.
 
7:52 PM
@TedShifrin so like this?
 
No, the vector has to be tangent to the curve. Look at my text.
there are pictures
 
Suppose you have an $n$-dimensional surface coloured in different shades of the same colour, that vary continuously.

Suppose further that the surface is of a shape that is "closed", the same way a finite three dimensional shape is; I think I just mean "finite" here . . .

Can you always find a nontrivial, continuous path on that surface with all the same shade?
 
@TedShifrin which vector are talking?
 
You need the plane spanned by the normal and the tangent vector to the curve.
 
Because in your text you wrote that the plane is spanned by the normal vector $n(P)$ and a unit vector $v$ in $T_pM$ but I mean $v$ is in my tangent space and also the normal vector is orthogonal to the tangent space
 
7:57 PM
You're talking about the normal curvature of the curve.
 
ah because I was reading on page 45 of your text
so I'm on the wrong page
 
@Shaun $M$ be your '$n$-dimensional surface (really, a manifold). The color code can be treated as a coordinate on the real line $\Bbb R$. A "color gradient" on $M$ is then a continuous function $f : M \to \Bbb R$. Level sets of this function $f^{-1}(c)$ consist of points in $M$ with color $c$. You want to find a path which lies entirely in $f^{-1}(c)$.
 
Look on p. 51.
OK, I'm out of here for now.
 
I don't know what a nontrivial path would mean. A path which is not the constant path? This can be done by Sard's theorem: there exists a "regular value" $c$ such that $f^{-1}(c) \subset M$ is a submanifold of dimension $n - 1$.
 
okey thanks
 
7:59 PM
If $n \geq 2$, this will be a non-discrete manifold, so will contain nontrivial paths
Basically, Sard's theorem tells you that given a generically chosen color $c$, there will be $(n-1)$-dimensional monochromatic subsurfaces of $M$ with color $c$
 
@TedShifrin They are not random. Let me clarify my calculations.
$$
(\lambda I - A) = \begin{bmatrix} (\lambda -1) & -2\\-4 &(\lambda-3) \end{bmatrix}
$$
The first step I did $R_2\rightarrow R_2 - \frac{4}{(\lambda-1)}R_1, \lambda\neq 1$, we get
$$
\begin{bmatrix} (\lambda -1) & -2\\0 &(\lambda-3)+\frac{4}{(\lambda-1)}(-2) \end{bmatrix} \rightarrow
\begin{bmatrix} (\lambda -1) & -2\\0 &\frac{(\lambda-3)(\lambda-1)-8}{(\lambda-1)} \end{bmatrix}
$$
The second operation is $R_1 \rightarrow R_1 + \frac{2}{(\lambda-3)(\lambda-1)-8} R_2, \lambda\neq 5,-1$, we get
 
That's interesting, @BalarkaSen. Thank you!
 
No problem. How's your health?
 
@TedShifrin Do I make sense? :). I'm just trying to exploit the rank's notion. I may be wrong though.
or there is something absurd about the whole idea
 
@BalarkaSen Getting better. I'm regaining my strength. I lost a surprising amount of weight for just ten days (since the last time I weighed myself); it worried me this morning, but my GP thinks it's fine.
I wasn't eating much. My throat was too sore for most food.
 
8:18 PM
Nice, I hope you recover completely soon.
 
seems like there is some sort of divide between remainders of Stone-Cech compactifications of pseudocompact and non-pseudocompact spaces
 
@BalarkaSen Thank you :)
 
8:33 PM
is there a version of morse theory for holomorphic maps?
 
@TedShifrin did I understand this correctly: We have a surface $S$. Now at a given point $P=\sigma(u(t_0),v(t_0))$ on the surface we can compute it's normal vector, and we can consider a unit vector $v$ which lies in the tangent plane $T_PS$. Then we can consider a plane which is spanned by $v$ and $N_P$, lets call it $N$. This plane intersects the surface and we denote this intersection to be the curve $\gamma_v$. Then if we compute the curvature of $\gamma_v$ at $P$ we get the normal curvature in direction $v$, i.e. $K_n^P(v)$. But now if we want to find out in which direction the surfac
 
@s.harp Depends on what you want. There's Picard-Lefschetz theory, which is a holomorphic map $f : X \to \Bbb{CP}^1$ from a compact complex manifold $X$ to the Riemann sphere. Around the nondegenerate critical points $f$ can be written in the form $f(z_1, \cdots, z_n) = \sum_i z_i^2$.
And instead of picking up topology while crossing the critical values, you will pick up topology while spinning around them -- you have monodromy
Model case: $f : \Bbb C^2 \to \Bbb C, f(z, w) = z^2 + w^2$. Throw away the origin and its fiber, then $f$ becomes an annulus bundle over $\Bbb C^*$.
The monodromy around the origin is a positive Dehn twist of the annulus (hold an annulus in your hand and then rotate the top boundary component once in the counterclockwise direction while fixing the bottom)
The reason for this difference is that the complex analogue of $\pi_0(\Bbb R^*) \neq 0$ is $\pi_1(\Bbb C^*) \neq 0$, of course.
 
9:28 PM
@BalarkaSen Have never thought about this actually, interesting point
 
9:48 PM
@user123234 Yes, this looks right. But it's still not talking about normal curvature and geodesic curvature of a curve on the surface. This is what your original question was.
@CroCo I do not understand why you are not just looking at the actual determinant of the original matrix $\lambda I - A$ and setting it equal to $0$. The kind of thing you're doing normally shows up only if you're trying to compute Jordan canonical form or similar things. But when you do operations on the matrix $\lambda I-A$ you have to do row/column operations over the polynomial ring $\Bbb R[\lambda]$; you can't just pretend you're working with a matrix of numbers.
 
10:03 PM
Hi :) Maybe it's the COVID talking, but I've been looking through all three Linear Algebraic Groups books and, despite being in my 8th month of this attempt at a PhD, I feel as if I've learnt next to nothing about the area.
It's both scary and excited.
I mean: I knew it would be like this but I was hoping to be more along by now.
I keep forgetting basic definitions.
My topology wasn't strong when I started, but my supervisor said the topology needed is often so far removed from undergraduate stuff, it doesn't matter!
Still: I had to look up "dense" a couple of times recently.
Dense!
*exciting
(Autocorrect . . . )
 
At least, you know how to approach higher math and solve problems in it. And already must be very knowledgeable. How many years have you been doing mathS (as you say it in UK :)?
 
Learn examples more than definitions.
2
 
I started my A Levels in 2008. I consider that my beginning.
 
Density is a very different concept the setting of linear algebraic groups than in usual topology, I'll give you that. I never really understood it until I realized $\Bbb Z^n \subset \Bbb R^n$ is Zariski dense.
And $\Bbb Z^m \subset \Bbb R^n$, $m < n$ isn't.
 
@BalarkaSen That's good advice!
 
10:12 PM
What is A Levels? Undergraduate education after high school?
 
In some sense, Zariski dense just means the subgroup sort of exists in every direction.
A lattice trapped in a closed subgroup is not Zariski-dense in the bigger group.
 
@noballpointpen Yes. They're typically done for a couple of years after GCSE, before university. I did Mathematics, Further Mathematics, Psychology, and Sociology.
 
I will add to Balarka's suggestion. When you encounter a new definition, try to give examples and non-examples of it.
3
 
10:29 PM
@BalarkaSen That's a helpful way to view it. Thank you!
 
@Astyx Whence lots of cohomology with local (twisted) coefficients.
 
Call a mapping of $X$ into $Y$ open if $f(V)$ is an open set in $Y$ whenever $V$ is an open set in $X$. Prove that every continuous open mapping of $R^1$ into $R^1$ is monotonic.
Proof. Assume $f$ is not monotonic. We have points $s_1<t_1$ with $f(s_1) < f(t_1)$ and points $s_2<t_2$ with $f(s_2) > f(t_2)$. Choose $s=\min(s_1,s_2)$ and $t=\max(t_1,t_2)$. The set $f([s,t])$ has a maximum and minimum value. If $f(s)$ and $f(t)$ do not both attain minimum and maximum values of $f$, then the points for which $f$ attains it lie in $(s,t)$, thus $f((s,t))$ fails to be open.
Otherwise, we know that the segment $(s_i, t_i)$ ($1\leq i \leq 2)$ lies in $(s,t)$. Then the same reasoning applies to $(s_i, t)$ or $(s,t_i)$.
Is this rigorous?
 
10:52 PM
found answer
 
11:04 PM
totatitatitotives.
totient.
tatotatives.
 
I have a manifold $M$ of dimension $n$ and a (not necessarily closed) submanifold $\Sigma \subset M \times \Bbb R$ of dimension $n$. Call such a submanifold "nonvertical" if the tangent planes of $\Sigma$ do not contain the lines $\mathrm{pt} \times \Bbb R$.
Assume $\Sigma$ is nonvertical, and $D \hookrightarrow M \times \Bbb R$ is an embedded disk intersecting $\Sigma$ transversely. I would like to ambiently isotope $M \times \Bbb R$ so that $D$ becomes everywhere vertical (i.e., all the tangent planes contain the lines $\mathrm{pt} \times \Bbb R$) while $\Sigma$ stays nonvertical
Is this possible
Nonverticality means under the projection $M \times \Bbb R \to M$, $\Sigma$ maps as as an immersion.
I guess the critical case is this: Under $M \times \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$, $D$ does not map submersively.
Take $M = \Bbb R^2$, $\Sigma = B^2 \times \{0\} \subset M \times \Bbb R$ and $D = S^2 \setminus B_{\varepsilon}(\rm{south pole})$, where $S^2$ is the unit sphere. This sounds impossible in this case.
*$\Sigma = B^2_2((0,0))\times \{0\}$, open ball of radius $2$ around origin.
 
11:22 PM
Hey, Balarka, may I ask you to comment on my proof? :) You was ambitious yesterday to do so, so maybe you could do it now, too.
 
I will defer it to someone else today, @noballpointpen.
 
Ok. No problem.
 
Suppose $D \cap \Sigma$ is contractible: an arc on $D$ between two points on the boundary of $D$. Then it should be possible.
$\Sigma$ is nonvertical, and $D$ intersects $\Sigma$ transversely, so a little tubular nbhd of $D\cap \Sigma$ in $D$ must be "almost vertical". By an ambient isotopy melt $D$ into this tubular neighborhood. Then isotopy to make almost vertical into vertical.
This is all I need, so I am happy
 
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