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Jam
10:08 PM
i think i get Teds confusion since $ u$ must be zero when the last variable is zero .Cant translate the problem at one variable.
i would need a function that is zero at the end points of an interval kinda
nvm im confused haha
 
well, there are not that many harmonic one variable functions.
 
Jam
yes i know. but reflecting a line also does not make it a C^2 function
 
the point was that harmonic was something crucial that you mentioned late.
not that one variable digressions are interesting.
 
Jam
yes its necessary as you mentioned
to use a mean value property i would need that my $v$ is $C^2$
 
hi all, given a group $G$, why is the set of elements of $G$ of order $p$ (for some prime $p$) a subgroup of $G$?
 
10:19 PM
what is the order of the identity?
 
mm, we need more hypotheses? f(x) = -x and g(x) = 1-x have order 2 in the group of bijections from Z to Z. but f(g(x)) = -(1-x) = x-1 has infinite order.
even in finite groups, e.g. S_3, (12)(23) doesn't have order 2.
 
yes, the claim is false
the lazy counterexample is the universal counterexample given by the presentation $\langle x,y\mid x^p,y^p\rangle$
 
i was being all socratic and the like
 
(though it's not entirely trivial this actually is a counterexample)
 
Jam
Z2xZ2 ?
 
10:25 PM
that's odd. i'm reading that the set $\{x \in G : x^p = 1\}$ is a characteristic subgroup of $G$
 
to copper hat's point, that's order dividing p, not strictly order p
 
$1^p = 1$ but the order of $1$ is $1$.
i'm full of gems today
 
still not a subgroup without more hypotheses.
 
there's probably something about $G$ that you know that we don't
 
the subgroup generated by the elements of order dividing p would be a characteristic subgroup, i guess. if G is finite abelian this is just the set of elements having order some power of p (including 0).
i think? maybe i'm missing something.
 
10:28 PM
a lot of undercurrents today. sort of a maths cold war
 
what is G really?
 
that hits the spot
 
@leslietownes Are you talking about the G-spot?! ;P
 
yes, in fact, it's something much stronger known as a verbal subgroup
 
hold on, my repressed ex-cathlic self can';t handle that
 
Jam
10:29 PM
hahahahaha what is happening
 
verbal subgroups are not only characteristic, but fully characteristic
 
the possibilities here have suddenly become infinite
 
also the elements whose p-th power themselves are of course characteristic (fully characteristic even) if they are a subgroup, but they needn't be in general
being abelian is an easy sufficient condition for them constituting a subgroup
 
@copper.hat ;D
 
:-)
 
10:32 PM
i'm trying to show that a minimal normal subgroup of a finite solvable group is an elementary abelian $p$-group. to my understanding, this is a group of the form $\{x \in G : x^p = 1\}$ (i.e. all nonidentity elements having order $p$) that is abelian
 
having order that divides $p$...
i love ambiguities in poetry, not so much in maths
 
i'm confused then, how can such a group have an element that divides $p$ if $p$ is prime? (other than the identity)
 
Jam
aahh i remember that excercise
its a classic
 
every group has an identity. the order of the identity is one
 
it seems like the order of implications is the wrong way round here
 
10:37 PM
hmm, and i'm not even drinking yet
 
being an elementary abelian p-group means that every element has order dividing p, not that it is the set of all elements having order dividing p
 
i can't delete something after 42 milliseconds
where's a mod when you need one...
 
@Thorgott I assume you mean "order divided by p"
 
no, this is an instance where I actually meant it that way
 
so order 1 or p?
ok I should have read before bothering
 
10:41 PM
ye, either order p or the identity, coppers favorite element
 
then perhaps i'm looking at the wrong subgroup (let's call it S)? i know i need to use the minimality of a minimum normal subgroup $M$ to show that $M = 1$ or $M = S$. which thus calls for showing that $S$ is normal in $M$
 
Jam
yes take the commutator subgroup of S
 
copper's already an element
fades away shamefully
 
i'm having an identity crisis.
 
i used the commutator and minimality to show that $M$ was abelian. but what about the elementary $p$-group part?
 
10:48 PM
@Jam did you resolve your harmonic problem?
 
Jam
nope im thinking if N normal in H and H normal in G is N normal in G?
 
gosh, i'm reeling in the points today. looking forward to my mse swag private jet. i think i will go for the global 7500 so i can back to ireland without stopping.
 
Jam
how would i show it is C^2? copper?
 
the condition $u(x',0) = 0$ is a very strong condition
 
Jam
nothing im stuck :D
i can show it is continuous
 
10:52 PM
it means ${\partial^2 u(x',0) \over \partial x_k^2} = 0$ for $k=1,..,n-1$ and so for $n$.
 
Jam
so i need to prove all partials at x_n=0 are zero
ohh ok
 
the only points of contention are the behaviour at $(x',0)$.
 
Jam
so i can just say all partials x_n=0 are zero since the function is constant there
and hence c^2
and for all other points is C^2 cause u is C^2
so the only step i need to prove is $u(x',0)=0 => $ all partials are zero
 
well, since things are $C^2$ on either side of the boundary you just need to show that the (1st & 2nd) partials of $v$ are continuous at that boundary. then you can conclude that $v$ is $C^2$.
then since $u,v$ are harmonic and agree on an open set you can conclude more..
 
Jam
11:14 PM
thanks copper. Ill try to prove that being constant results the partials are zero tommorow
@copper.hat im beat.
 
good luck!
 
Jam
ill just tkae the limit i guess and the numerator will always be zero
 
hold on, if $u(x',0) = 0$ then you can evaluate the partials wrt to $x_k, k=0,..,n-1$ easiliy.
 
Jam
$\partial \frac{u}{x_i}=\frac{u(...,x_i+h,...,0)}{h}$ as h goes to zero
 
what is the derivative of a constant function
 
Jam
11:18 PM
zero ofc
 
and since $u$ is harmonic what can you conclude about ${ \partial^2 u(x',0) \over \partial x_n^2}$?
 
Jam
ohh right
nice
but saying u is constant so the derivative is zero is fine?
is like saying f(x)=x is 1 at 1 so the derivative at 1 is zero
ohh nevermind
the numerator of the limit of the partial derivative is zero always
obviously
for every $h$
yeye got it thanks
 
you just need $u$ and the 1st & 2nd (continuous) partials to match at the boundary.
 
Jam
damnn it was easy . I just dont have the mind for these kind of math :P
 
sometimes you just need to step back a little :-).
 
Jam
11:23 PM
im not used to mult calculus and pde's not my fav course
well i got a lill better today ^^
 
that's the way life goes :-)
 
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