Hmm ok well that is kind of good. Just confused because this book I am reading says:
"Consider the map $\overline{x} : Z_f(\overline{k}) \to \overline{k}$ with $(a,b) \mapsto a$ and assume $f(x,y)$ not a linear polynomial in $x$. It follows from our assumption on $f(x,y)$ that $\overline{x}^{-1}(a)$ is a finite set for any $a \in \overline{k}$"