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5:33 AM
What's the right notation to convey $A \vdash B$ but under intuitionistic predicate logic, not classical logic?
 
$A \vdash_{\text{intuitionistic}} B$
 
 
2 hours later…
8:03 AM
just a test please ignore
$\tiny{\LaTeX}$
$\scriptsize{\LaTeX}$
$\small{\LaTeX}$
$\normalsize{\LaTeX}$
$\large{\LaTeX}$
$\Large{\LaTeX}$
$\LARGE{\LaTeX}$
$\huge{\LaTeX}$
$\Huge{\LaTeX}$
6
 
 
3 hours later…
11:04 AM
Hi all!
I have a question. I am dealing with "divergenceless" vector fields $v$: $\nabla\cdot v = 0$
The question is how to call that property in English (an German).
We had started with "divergence-free" and "divergence free" then went to "divergence-less" and "divergenceless"
and at some stage I have used "fullfilling the continuity equation" (its time-independen cases).
And in the haste of writing I ended up with "continuous" which is now obviously plain wrong (right?).
Happy for suggestions and comments!
 
I would go with "divergence free" ("divergenzfrei") and I think in the case of fluids they're called "incompressible" ("inkompressibel"), but I'm no expert
 
 
2 hours later…
1:17 PM
Is it possible to have a field that has both elements of finite order and elements of infinite order?
I feel like I might know that the answer is "no," but I'm unsure
 
Hint: characteristic
 
Yeah, I seem to recall that all elements of a field have to have the same order, and if that order is finite, then it has to be prime, but again, a proof doesn't immediately leap to mind
Wait, use the order of the identity. Got it.
 
Right. If you want a somewhat more abstract argument for every ring $R$ there is a unique ring hom $\Bbb Z\to R$ ("$\Bbb Z$ is the initial object of $\mathsf{Ring}$") and it has kernel $n\Bbb Z$ for some $n$. That $n$ is the characteristic of $R$, from which you quickly get what you want by properties of homomorphisms
 
1:38 PM
this is true for order as elements of the additive group, the multiplicative group can have both elements of finite and of infinite order
 
Like $i$ versus $2$
 
Sure, the multiplicative group of $\Bbb C$ contains elements of any prime order
 
of any order was correct
 
All of which, if they are of finite order, sit on a single circle
 
for each natural $n$, $\mathbb{C}^{\times}$ contains exactly one subgroup of order $n$ and it is cyclic
 
1:43 PM
Every finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is cyclic
 
Fields are almost disappointing in that sense. You have all these interesting things in more abstract constructs. Once you get to fields, everything becomes roughly uniform
 
Algebraically closed ones are even more boring, they're completely classified by characteristic and cardinality if they are uncountable
 
I mean, this is true for integral domains too
 
Yeah, integral domains are still fun for other things, though. There are a lot of weird things with Krull dimension and rings of formal power series
 
You can still say some really interesting (and arguably surprising) things about algebraically closed fields, like Artin-Schreier
What's true though is that fields are a pretty badly behaved category
 
1:58 PM
I'm a little confused. Let $\Omega\subseteq \Bbb R^n$ be as nice as you wish (open, bounded, smooth boundary, whatever). Of the inclusions $C^\infty_c(\Omega)\subseteq W^{1,p}_0(\Omega)\subseteq W^{1,p}(\Omega)\subseteq L^p(\Omega)$ which are dense? I'm interested especially in the case $p=2$
 
Isn't $C_c^{\infty}(\Omega)\subseteq L^p(\Omega)$ dense already?
 
Hmm maybe you're right (and that would make sense, from a result I'm reading it does seem like they should all be dense)
 
I think $C_c^{\infty}$ is dense in $C_c$ by mollifying and $C_c$ is dense in $L^p$ by some tedious approximation arguments, but take this with multiple grains of salt
 
I agree with the first part and I think I read about the second one a long time ago
 
2:14 PM
I can sketch an argument for the second part in a couple minutes if needed. Not sure how much niceness is needed on $\Omega$ for both parts to go through, but I feel like openness should work.
 
2:33 PM
Thorgott what's up
What's stronger than a diffeomorphism?
 
@Thorgott Nah I can believe it
I guess it's in Brezis if I really want to see the ugly details
 
I think that the problem with your question is that "diffeomorphism" is too weak a notion to be relevant to general relativity (GR). In GR a "spacetime" is a Lorentzian manifold, that is, a differentiable manifold equipped with some additional structure. You are pondering what transformations you can apply to a spacetime without destroying all this structure. Now, a diffeomorphism is not enough; it does preserve the differentiable structure, but it needs not preserve the Lorentzian one.
The "right" notion you are after is that of a conformal mapping of Lorentzian manifolds.
 
3:31 PM
@Alessandro mollifying $L^p$ functions is not more tedious than mollifying $C_c$ functions actually. If you take the convolution of a locally integrable function and a $C_c^\infty$ function, then the result is $C^\infty$, so if you take an approximate identity you get that $C^\infty \cap L^p$ is dense in $L^p$ without more difficulty than showing that $C_c^\infty$ is dense in $C_c$.
If you actually want to $C_c^\infty$, you need to multiply by suitable cut-off functions, but that's not really that tedious: Write $\Omega = \bigcup U_i$ where the union is directed and all $U_i$ are open and b
 
@LukasHeger did you see my message?
 
no
which one?
 
@LukasHeger show that Q has no Z-basis, using the most high-powered way possible
 
hmm
 
haha
most high powered way :)
 
3:41 PM
upon taking Pontryagin duals wrt discrete topologies, this is equivalent to showing that $\Bbb A_{\Bbb Q}/\Bbb Q$ is not isomorphic to some product of $S^1$s
 
ah, I forgot about Pontryagin dual
 
Pontryagin duality?
 
I see, that's a good point.
 
Can you convolute the differential structure of
a real analytic man-fold
 
and we know that $\Bbb A_\Bbb Q = \Bbb Q \times \widehat{\Bbb Z} \times \Bbb R$? wait that isn't right
 
3:44 PM
depends on how fat the man is!!
 
what's the decomposition? @LukasHeger
 
uhm, I don't think there's a decomposition like that for the additive adele group
 
ok
 
but I might be wrong
 
but we can embed $\widehat{Z}$ inside right
 
3:47 PM
decomposition in what adele class?
 
@LeakyNun yes
 
@LeakyNun Can you compute Ext^1(Q,Z) without knowing that Q isn't free Abelian?
(this is essentially the same thing as Lukas product of circles thing but on the other side of the duality to be fair)
 
0 -> Hom(Q,Z) -> Hom(Q,Q) -> Hom(Q,Q/Z) -> Ext(Q,Z) -> Ext(Q,Q) -> Ext(Q,Q/Z) -> 0
how does Ext work again
 
ah Hom(Q,Z)....
 
@LeakyNun I never remember lol
 
3:52 PM
hey alessandro
 
looks like Ext(Q,Q) = 0
 
You only need that Ext to be nonzero, you don't care what exactly it is here
 
Off topic w.r.t. the conversation atm but, can one convolute the conformal structure of a smooth and bounded lorentzian submanifold
 
The point is showing that Q is not projective as a Z-module
 
3:54 PM
so we want to show that Hom(Q,Q) -> Hom(Q,Q/Z) is not surjective
Hom(Q,Q/Z) = Hom(injlim (1/n)Z,Q/Z) = projlim Hom((1/n)Z,Q/Z) = projlim nQ/Z = ???
 
4:29 PM
@LeakyNun take any diagram of abelian groups, so that for any arrow f in this diagram, there is another arrow g with gf = 0, and furthermore every object has a morphism-out. then the colimit of the diagram is zero, because the map from each object of the diagram to the colimit is forced to be 0
there seems to be an issue with this argument lol
oh I see, none of the composites are actually 0 as I demanded
 
@MikeMiller do you have a minute?
 
4:48 PM
well, if you feel like editing or answering feel free :) math.stackexchange.com/questions/3562412/…
 
 
2 hours later…
ABC
6:43 PM
Guys I need to prove this equality. z is a complex variable. o(..) is Peano notation.
someone can help me?
I need to use Taylor expansion, true?
expansion is in 0
 
No, @ABC. You just need to use (the first few terms of) the geometric series $\dfrac 1{1-u} = 1+u+u^2+\dots = 1+u+o(u)$.
 
ABC
Perfect, thanks!!
 
You're welcome.
 
7:14 PM
If an elliptic curve has rank 1 and torsion of order 3, then how does that mean that the rational points can be written as $p,p^2...$?
 
8:09 PM
Hi, might anyone be able to answer a super basic question about figuring out concavity for an MLE?
 
9:00 PM
@PortMadeleineCrumpet: It can't be super basic if I don't know what an MLE is !! :)
 
@TedShifrin Hello!
I was able to solve the problem but my wifi turned off! My apologies for not replying
The sequence isn't cauchy, but i'm not sure why that implies it has no convergent subsequences
that isn't true though as well
Its bounded, non cauchy and thus non-convergent
 
10:04 PM
@topologicalmagician Any bounded sequence in $\Bbb R$ has a convergent subsequence (probably more than one).
 
@TedShifrin yes, thats bolzano weirstrass
 
Yes, that's one way to do it.
But you're not in $\Bbb R$.
The question you linked to already has a solution.
Indeed, you gave it.
What is your proof that the sequence doesn't converge?
 
@TedShifrin yes, but i'm not sure how to prove that the sequence I have provided has no convergent subsequences
$d(x_n,x_m)=1$ for $n\neq m$
not cauchy, thus not convergent
 
just wonder, how do i cite my or someone message in chat room
 
Hey everyone!
 
10:07 PM
Hi, Demonark.
@topologicalmagician: So now doesn't that same argument work for any subsequence?
Cite it where, @Simple? In here?
 
@TedShifrin what about the subsequence $(0,0,0.....0)$
?
 
We're talking about the sequence of $e_i$'s, @topologicalmagician, so I have no idea what you just wrote.
 
OH @TedShifrin a sequence in $L^\infty$ is a sequence of vectors
 
yes here, want to know how to quote/ cite. i have seen people quote a message from a different chat rooms and messages that posted couple days before
 
Right click on the left of the message, @Simple. And select Copy Link Address.
@topologicalmagician: I thought our sequence was the sequence of $e_i$ to start with. You know what each of those is.
Or else how did you make your argument?
 
10:13 PM
oh, thanks ted
 
10:26 PM
By the way, @topologicalmagician, it's not good form to delete a question on which people have given input (comments, answers, etc.) just because you finally figure it out.
 
@TedShifrin I just undeleted
 
LOL ... OK.
You can post your own answer once you're confident you have it.
 
Yeah, I misunderstood notation, but now the answer is apparent
 
Yeah, from what you typed here ($d(x_n,x_m)$) I figured you were not understanding what things meant.
 
10:42 PM
LOL, good name, @Descartes.
 
Thank you :) @TedShifrin
A question: does anyone know if Ramanujan ever studied functions $f(x)$ for which $\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty f(n) = \int_{\mathbf{R}}f(x) dx$?
I swear I read a paper which mentioned that he did, but would rather not drudge through his notebooks hoping to stumble across where he does.
 
Aside from obvious step functions, you mean? Do you want $f$ to be continuous?
 
I do not know much of anything about what Ramanujan did or didn't do.
 
Differentiable everywhere, preferably.
The classic function e^{-x^2} almost qualifies, though there is a tiny difference between the sum and integral.
 
10:46 PM
You could cook up smooth functions by using by using bump functions.
 
I'm sorry--what are those?
 
All you need to do is cook up a function on the interval $[n-1/2,n+1/2]$ that is smoothly $0$ at the endpoints and has integral equal to $f(n)$. Lots of ways to do that.
 
Could you shoot me a reference
 
They're used all through analysis and differential geometry. They're built out of $e^{-1/x^2}$ so that you can glue local smooth functions together to make global functions.
 
Ah I see
thank you
 
10:48 PM
Without worrying about smoothness, just multiply by a function like an upside-down parabola.
 
If I have a linear scalar differential equation $y^{(n)}=a_0(t)y+\cdots +a_{n-1}(t)+b(t)$ and $(y_1, \dots,y_n)$ is a basis for set of homogenous solutions, and we denote by $W(t)$ the matrix$(y_j^{i-1}(t))$. Can you check this formula for the general solution? $$y(t)=c_1y_1(t)+\dots+c_ny_n(t)+\int_{t_0}^t[W(t)W^{-1}(s)]_{1,n}b(s)ds$$Where $c_1,\dots c_n$ are scalars and $[M]_{1,n}$ is the coefficient in line $1$ and column $n$ of $M$.
 
But all I need to do is cook up a weird function on the unit interval whose value at the midpoint is its integral. And there are zillions of solutions to that.
 
(assuming all the usual conditions on the functions $a_i$ etc)
 
What do you mean, @Fuzzy? Why don't you check?
You typed the ODE wrong.
 
Well I did, but when I tried solving an equation with it, I couldn't find the right solution
 
10:51 PM
The easiest way to do this is look at the system where the new variable is a vector $(y,y',y'', \dots, y^{(n-1)})$.
 
That's what I did, it's the first-order system
 
Then write the matrix equation for the associated differential equation.
OK. I'm a little surprised that $W^{-1}$ is on the right instead of the left.
Maybe that's your problem.
 
11:05 PM
Does the following statement make sense: Show that the completness of $\mathbb{R}$ is equivalent to the squeeze theorem?
 
I suppose it depends on what "the squeeze theorem" is.
 
Ok so if we write $Y=(y,y',\dots,y^{(n-1)})$ and $Y'=A(t)Y+B(t)$ with well-ch0sen $A$ and $B$. Then $Y(t)=W(t)W^{-1}(t_0)Y_0+\int_{t_0}^t W(t)W^{-1}(s)B(s)ds$. In fact $$Y'(t)=A(t)W(t)W^{-1}(t_0)Y_0+A(t)\int_{t_0}^t W(t)W^{-1}(s)B(s)ds+W(t)W^{-1}(t)B(t)=A(t)Y(t)+B(t)$$ Using $W'(t)=A(t)W(t)$. Then we take the first component of $Y$. Is that correct?
 
@TedShifrin I presume the sandwiching of sequences between two convergwent sequences
 
Now you're being inconsistent with the $(t)$'s, after all that fuss.
 
Well, It's my least concern now
 
11:07 PM
Ah, ok, @topologicalmagician. Although, how would you state the hypotheses if the limit of the controlling sequences weren't in the space?
I haven't thought about Wronskians in about 44 years, @Fuzzy, so it's hard for me to participate.
 
No worries, I'm not being very clear, I know.
 
I still am puzzled how it ends up on the right.
But, yes, of course, you're going to read off the first component when you're done, because that's where $y$ is.
 
@TedShifrin thats what i'm not sure of. Does the question mean Show that $\mathbb{R}$ is complete if and only if the sandwich principle holds?
sandwich principle = squeeze theorem
 
I didn't write the question, @topologicalmagician, so you should ask the person who did! But my complaint stands. If it makes sense to say that $\lim a_n = \lim c_n = L$ and we know that $a_n\le b_n\le c_n$, then saying that the squeeze principle holds tells us that $\lim b_n = L$, but if $L$ isn't in my domain, then the hypothesis makes no sense.
 
@TedShifrin yeah, i suppose ill ask the person who wrote it
Anyways, I got to go. Have a wonderful day, @TedShifrin
 
11:19 PM
Let me know tomorrow (or next week) what it means.
 
Alright, @TedShifrin. I'll send an email soon.
 

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