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12:02 AM
I believe Fuzzy knows only standard Riemann integration. There's a problem with the domination at $1$, though, right?
 
12:18 AM
I haven't thought it through, but I think $\lvert t^{x-1}\sum_{n=0}^k(-1)^nt^n\rvert\le\frac{t^{x-1}}{1+t}+t^x$ works
 
12:53 AM
@TedShifrin I want to write a code on mathematica for the Miller Rabin test
I have everything but I dont know how to code it in mathematica
 
1:17 AM
Mathematica has all sorts of tutorials and samples. I wrote a brief primer on Mathematica for my differential geometry students. It includes a number of the basics and some nontrivial little programs. If you send me an email (address in my profile), I can send you the Mathematica notebook. @JackOhara
 
@TedShifrin I shall thanks
But for my particular case
Do you know such code? I searched and found just nonsense codes
they wrote that they work on mathematica but failed all of them
 
2:05 AM
@JackOhara: Nah, I don't even know the test or what you'd want to code.
 
@TedShifrin Okay,I sent you email !
I can check if I can use your pdf, either way It must be useful in general
 
2:35 AM
Does anyone know a good example of a simultaneous-move perfect information extensive form game? i.e. like chess or go but with simultaneous rather than sequential moves.
 
Every closed subset of an n-manifold is an n-manifold?
It is easy to show for open subsets
but what about closed?
 
@TedShifrin Thanks a million Prof ! :D
 
@topologicalmagician: Absolutely not.
Open is way different from closed.
Sure, @JackOhara.
 
@TedShifrin why?
 
What is an example of something that is not a manifold?
 
2:41 AM
@TedShifrin union of x axis and y axis
 
But that's sitting inside $\Bbb R^2$ as a closed subset.
 
aha, I see.
anyways, I need to go now. I'm exhausted. Have an amazing day
 
2:58 AM
Suppose $(X,\mathcal{S},\mu)$ is a measure space and $f_1,f_2,\dots,$ are $\mathcal{S}$-measurable functions from $X$ to $\mathbb{R}$ such that $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int|f_k|d\mu<\infty$. Prove that there exists $E\in\mathcal{S}$ such that $\mu(X\setminus\,E)=0$ and $\lim_{k\to\infty}f_k(x)=0$ for every $x\in\,E$.
can someone give me hint to start this problem
 
3:13 AM
Can you say something about $\lim_{k\rightarrow\infty}\int|f_k|\mathrm{d}\mu$?
 
since $\sum\int|f_k|<\infty$, $\lim\int|f_k|$ converges
 
converges to?
 
It converges to nothing
math is bs
@Ultradark
hey
:D
I should say math like everything else other than good food is bs :>
 
it converges to $f$
 
?
There is no $f$
 
3:22 AM
sorry, should be a finite number
 
yes, but which one
 
zero, I guess. cause we are looking for a set $E$ such that $\lim f_k=0$
 
Why does it converge to zero?
This has nothing to do with the measure theory side of things, for the record
 
I don't know
 
 
1 hour later…
4:33 AM
@Thorgott I still didn't come up anything that gives zero
 
5:28 AM
@Simple: Surely you know this. If $\sum a_n$ converges, what is $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} a_n$?
@Simple: Surely you know this. If $\sum a_n$ converges, what is $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} a_n$?
 
@TedShifrin oh my god, I totally didn't recall this
@TedShifrin oh my god, I totally didn't recall this
 
Hey chat
How do I prove that $\mathbb Q$, as a $\mathbb Z$-module with usual product, has no basis?
Without deep module theory arguments
Oops, linear dependence.
 
 
2 hours later…
7:46 AM
A binary relation that is antisymmetric and reflexive only has no name
 
7:57 AM
Can anyone recommend an introductory text on graph theory with emphasis on having plenty of exercises to do?
 
 
1 hour later…
9:24 AM
Anyone here, @LeakyNun?
 
 
2 hours later…
10:55 AM
I hate when I solve a problem that says "find $Y$," I proceed to find what I believe to be $Y$, then next question says "Now perform these calculations with $Y$," which I also do without issue. But then, the next question says "Now perform those same calculations with $X$," but $X$ is exactly the same thing as I found for $Y$.
There is a strong sensation of "uh oh"
(At the same time, I'm nearly 100% certain that I did my math correctly. I feel that this is a question designed to try and trip you up)
 
11:38 AM
@LukasHeger this is the best I can do: if $\Bbb Q$ has a $\Bbb Z$-basis then $\Bbb Q = \Bbb Z^{\oplus I}$, but $\Bbb Q \otimes (\Bbb Q/\Bbb Z) = 0$ instead of $(\Bbb Q/\Bbb Z)^{\oplus I}$.
 
Every two elements x = m/n and y= p/q of Q are linearly dependent. Here we have (np)x + (mq)y = 0. So if Q has a Z-basis, it must be one element. But Q is not cyclic: for any element x you think might be a generator, x/2 is also in Q, and is not of the form nx for some integer n.
And you meant the other Lucas
 
12:09 PM
Is there an introduction to category theory which specifies along the way what the morphisms, objects, functors etc. are in ordinary mathematics
I'm not even sure what all of those are supposed to be for natural number objects so it's a bit tough
 
12:45 PM
@LukasHeger bist du hier?
@Slereah I think every introduction does that
 
So... I was doing some worldbuilding stuff with some community, and we end up building a weird "pre-topological" structure
Basically, there is a set S, which has some nets $\phi$ and some open sets $U$ but in general, all 3 axioms of topology fails, thus not all union and intersection of open sets always guarantee to be an open set
Circles are open sets, arrows are nets
 
1:03 PM
@LeakyNun Kind of, but not usually for long
 
1:15 PM
In topology, a coherent topology is a topology that is uniquely determined by a family of subspaces. Loosely speaking, a topological space is coherent with a family of subspaces if it is a topological union of those subspaces. It is also sometimes called the weak topology generated by the family of subspaces, a notion that is quite different from the notion of a weak topology generated by a set of maps. == Definition == Let X be a topological space and let C = {Cα : α ∈ A} be a family of topological spaces, as subsets of X (typically C will be a cover of X). Then X is said to be coherent with C...
this sounds like it
 
 
1 hour later…
2:44 PM
@BananaCatsAuthor hey
 
Hello
What is the difference between series and progression?
 
 
2 hours later…
4:48 PM
I could use some help with a stats problem
I'm trying to show that if $S^2$ and $\overline{X}$ are the sample variance and sample mean for a sample of Poisson random variables, that $E[S^2\mid\overline{X}]=\overline{X}$. But I can't wrap my head around a good approach
 
5:03 PM
@Rithaniel: Dredging out of memory, if you have a Poisson random variable, it depends on a parameter $\lambda$, and the mean turns out to be $\lambda$. So does the variance. This must have something to do with your question.
 
Suppose I have a coordinate system $T_{x, y, \theta}$ represented by $x$, $y$ and an angle $\theta$. Then I convert some points $p_1, p_2, \dots, p_N$ to this coordinate system, i.e. $p_i^T$. Then I compute the distances between each $p_i^T$ and other coordinates represented as tuples $c_i=(x_i, y_i)$. I do this for different sets of points $p_i$, but $c_i$ are always fixed. $T_{x, y, \theta}$ can change.
My question is: what distance are we exactly computing when computing the distance between $p_i^T$ and all fixed $c_i$?
We're computing a relative distance, which depends on $T_{x, y, \theta}$
 
5:19 PM
Yeah, I think I managed to get it, Ted. You actually did point me in the right direction. It's stuff with unbiased estimators and one-to-one functions of complete and sufficient statistics giving you an UMVUE
 
What I don't understand is whether $c_i$ is represented in the coordinate system of $T_{x, y, \theta}$ or not. $c_i$s are like $(0, 50)$, $(50, 50)$, etc. They are always fixed
 
5:53 PM
The eigenspace of A and A^k would be same right?
Because the same set of x's satisfying Ax = lambda x will satisfy A^x = lambda^k x
Could someone please verify?
 
Well, what's true is that if $x$ is an Eigenvector of $A$ with Eigenvalue $\lambda$, then $x$ is also an Eigenvector of $A^k$ with Eigenvalue $\lambda^k$.
And so, if $V_{\lambda,A}$ denotes the $\lambda$-Eigenspace of $A$, we have $V_{\lambda,A}\subseteq V_{\lambda^k,A^k}$, but the second one can be strictly larger.
 
@Thorgott when can it be larger?
 
Hey there chat
I was looking up some info about groups (def. of subgroup generated by a set, generating set of a subgroup)
And this question appeared
18
Q: Subgroup generated by a set

wmnorthA subgroup generated by a set is defined as (from Wikipedia): More generally, if S is a subset of a group G, then , the subgroup generated by S, is the smallest subgroup of G containing every element of S, meaning the intersection over all subgroups containing the elements of S; equival...

Specifically, if $S = \emptyset$, those two definitions are not equivalent, right?
 
one thing that can happen is that you have two Eigenvalues $\lambda_1,\lambda_2$ with $\lambda_1\neq\lambda_2$, but $\lambda_1^k=\lambda_2^k$
another thing that can happen is nilpotency
you can put the matrix in JNF and then you just have to observe what taking powers does to the individual blocks
@Lucas they are equivalent
 
6:09 PM
But the set of the union of finite products would be $\emptyset$
 
you're forgetting the empty product
 
Ugh, that's unfair
:p
Thanks, @Thorgott.
 
lol, np
 
Who wants to help search a prime factor of ( 512! ) ^ 512 + 1 ? We only need to check the primes of the form 1024k+1 , but I nevertheless did not find a factor yet.
 
6:41 PM
@Lucas @Thorgott: YUCK.
 
6:55 PM
I don't want to search for primes numbers Peter^^
 
Hey Ted
 
I will however, help you find someone who does :)
just kidding.
What is a decomposition operator in the spectral theorem sense
 
Hi, Thorgott :)
 
does it basically decompose something into spectra in the form of eigenvalues or something?
hi @ted are you ready for super tuesday?
 
Already mailed in my ballot.
 
7:01 PM
nice lol. I'm voting this year actually
I can't wait for the debate between the nominee and Trump
the older I get the more interesting politics gets
 
If I have a set of matrices and their rref are identical (linearly dependent), does that imply that the original matrices must therefore be linearly dependent?
 
No, @Hopper.
 
Do you have a counter example? @TedShifrin
 
Yes. Write down the simplest matrix with 2 rows that has rank 1 and write another row-equivalent version.
 
Hi, anyone here?
 
7:14 PM
No, no one.
 
perfect
 
perf
 
Regarding equations like $k ≡ ( k \mod 2^n ) + ⌊ k / 2^n ⌋ ( \mod 2^n − 1 ) $ what is the difference between the two $mod$? Is the first a binary operator where the second is saying the equation is congruent?
 
This doesn't even make any sense.
 
7:18 PM
This is computer notation, not mathematics. The first mod means take the remainder when you divide by $2^n$. The second one means that we work mod $2^n-1$ and then $k$ is equivalent to its remainder when you divide by $2^n$ added to the floor of $k/2^n$. No math person would write stuff like this.
 
I had asked a question here but haven't yet got a response to my comment math.stackexchange.com/questions/3559467/…
 
So, let's see. Take $n=3$ and $k=28$. Then $\mod 7$ they're noting that $28\equiv 4+\lfloor 28/8\rfloor = 4+3$.
Repeated division by 2 is used a lot for effective computation.
 
Would the $mod 2^n-1$ at the end ever make a difference to the calculation? That's more saying that it's a congruency, right?
 
Yes, look at the example I wrote down.
Do your own examples.
 
@geocalc33 are you UltraDark?
 
7:30 PM
@TedShifrin ok thanks I think I get it
 
why yes!
@BananaCatsAuthor
 
You can change your name but your character shines through regardless. :D
 
geocalc was my original name on this site and I wanted to take a break and turn a new leaf at
@TedShifrin
you don't know me. lol
 
Yeah, I remembered geocalc.
 
I'm pretty nice actually
 
7:32 PM
I never said you weren't nice.
 
this is one of my faults. I extrapolate things poorly
sometimes I reactly rashly online
but not in person.
like when I miss translated leaky nun's french and yelled at him and got banned for an hour
 
Luckily for me, I missed that — I can translate French just fine :P
 
When talking about an ODE of the form $$y'=a(t)(y)+b(t)$$, is it just abuse of notation not to write it $y'(t)=a(t)(y(t))+b(t)$?
It really messes with my brain to write the $t$ for $a$ and $b$ but not $y$
 
8:15 PM
@Fuzzy: I agree with you (except for your extra parentheses around $y$ and $y(t)$). I complained to my diff geo students when they did inconsistent stuff like this in their homework.
 
 
1 hour later…
9:23 PM
You guys ever get a student who is clearly not trying, maybe just putting math-like symbols on a page? I don't know how to grade that, cause my instinct is to point out where a student went wrong.
 
if there's no other option, you can always put a question mark
 
Yeah, that's my default. But I wish I could help them
 
See them after class
 
I'm a grader. My only contact with them is what I write on the paper
 
9:40 PM
Write a note and tell the student to go to the professor's office hours (or to other help rooms) for help. It's not your responsibility to offer free tutoring to the class.
 
Hello
Let $X=$ $\{$ $f\in C[0,1]$ $:$ $f(1)=0$ $\}$. Let $A=$ $\{$ $f\in X$ $:$ $sup_{x\in [0,1]}|f(x)|$ $\leq 1$ $\}$. Show that this set is closed with the $d_1$ metric. What I have done is take a sequence $(f_n)_n$ in $A$ that converges to some f with $f(1)=0$ . So now I must show $sup_x|f(x)| \leq 1$ . My idea consists of taking $x\in X$ and $\epsilon>0$ and show $|f(x)| \leq 1 + \epsilon$. Are there other ways>
 
10:00 PM
looks like the preimage of a closed set under a continuous map
 
@Thorgott I'm trying to do it with inequalities. So, let $x\in [0,1]$ let $\epsilon>0$ . Since $f_n\rightarrow f$ converges to $f\in X$, there exists $N$ such that $n\geq N$ implies $\int_0^1|f_n-f|<\epsilon$. So $|f(x)| \leq |f_N(x)-f(x)|+1$. But not sure what to do next
Taking the integral doesn't do much
unless there's an inequality between $|f_N(x)-f(x)|$ and the integral
 
10:54 PM
for $x \in [0,1]$, you can write $$|f(x)| \le |f(x)-f_n(x)|+|f_n(x)| \le d_1(f_n,f)+1 \to 1 \text{ when } n \to \infty$$ Hence $\sup_{[0,1]}f \le1$
I don't think integrating can help
@topologicalmagician
 
What is the $d_1$ metric?
 
@FuzzyPixelz you're confusing $d_{\infty}$ with $d_1$
$d_1$ is $\int_0^1|f-g|$
 
You should have put that in your question.
The $L^1$ metric on $C[0,1]$.
 
@TedShifrin I thought it was clear, my apologies
 
Nope, not remotely clear.
Also, note that because the functions are continuous on a compact set, the sup in the definition is actually the max.
 
11:05 PM
That's weird, my text calls $d_{\infty}$ $d_1$ and $d_2$ the integral one
 
No, that would be $L^2$.
He's not integrating $|f|^2$.
 
@TedShifrin I'm aware that the sup is the max in this case. But, I'm still not sure how to finish off the problem
 
So if the max of $f$ is actually greater than $1$, this max occurs at some point $c\in [0,1)$. What happens to the integral of $|f_n-f|$ in a neighborhood of $c$?
Hey there, DogAteMy.
 
@TedShifrin not sure
attains its max there?
 
Does it go to $0$ as $n\to\infty$?
 
11:18 PM
@TedShifrin yes
 
Nope.
Are you drawing a picture?
 

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