« first day (3482 days earlier)      last day (1537 days later) » 
00:00 - 23:0023:00 - 00:00

11:00 PM
Blah @ windows.
 
11:18 PM
@LukasHeger Hi Lukas, can you give an algebraic explanation to why the CRT works the way it works? ie breaking the equation to many others ?
I suppose what I mean is , solving the congruence mod ( m) is same as the factors of m ( prime factors)
 
@Jacksoja do you know the ring-theoretic version of CRT?
 
I have seen something similar to this for groups
 
Hi @Lukas!
 
No I don't !
 
Hi @Ted
 
11:20 PM
@TedShifrin Hola Ted
I know this much, Z/ pqZ is isomorphic to Z/p x Z/q
I suppose the isomorphism is the trivial one , reduction modulo each prime
 
@Jacksoja: The crucial thing to understand is that if $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime, then $x\cong 0\pmod{mn}$ is equivalent to $x\cong 0\pmod m$ and $\x\cong 0\pmod n$. After that you can see that what's going on is solving two simultaneous congruences and using linearity.
 
@Jacksoja let's just do it for two ideals for simplicity, you can generalize it inductively in a straightforward manner from there. If $R$ is a ring and $I$ and $J$ are ideals, then we always have a map $R \to R/I \times R/J$, $r \mapsto (r+I,r+J)$. The kernel of that is $I \cap J$, so we get an injective map $R/I \cap J \to R/I \times R/J$. If $I+J=R$, then this maps is surjective, so an isomorphism
and furthermore if $R$ is commutative, then $I+J=R$ implies $I \cap J=IJ$
 
I see
so it is just a direct consequence of those theorems
isomorphims*
 
so if you apply that to $R=\Bbb Z$ and $I=(n)$ and $J=(m)$ for two coprime integers $n$ and $m$, we get an isomorphism $\Bbb Z/(nm) \cong \Bbb Z/n \times \Bbb Z/m$
 
I like the concrete understanding before the fancy ring/module approach :P
 
11:25 PM
he was asking explicitly for an algebraic explanation
 
Yes I see thanks ! :)
 
Does the homomorphism defined this way have a name? "Let $\psi$ be the function that sends each element of $A$ to the identity expect elements of the subgroup $B$, upon which it acts as the identity function."
 
Yes Ted haha , for something new I ask for concrete
but this CRT i used it alot before
I just was curious from where it stems algebraically
Thanks @TedShifrin @LukasHeger
 
@Rithaniel I highly doubt that will be a homomorphism in general
 
OK, then the quotient ring construction is good to understand.
 
11:27 PM
Really? Where might it break down?
 
expect = except :P
 
Ah, yeah
 
Multiply something in $A-B$ by something in $B$?
 
@Rithaniel take for example $A=S_3, B=A_3$ and look what your function does to $(12)$ and $(23)$ and their product
 
Ah, I see.
Well, I have this claim that $\psi f\neq\phi f$ unless $\psi=\phi$ (where $\psi,\phi,f$ are homomorphisms) and I'm trying to make the claim that this means $f$ must be onto.
My thought was to explicitly construct homomorphism which don't agree on the entire domain, but do agree on $\text{Im}(f)$
 
11:36 PM
@Rithaniel that's a tricky exercise
 
Well, I don't have to go down the explicit construction route, but it was the only option I could think of
 
the easiest solution to this I know probably involves some construction you haven't seen
unless you've studied algebraic topology
do you know amalgamated free products?
 
Did you ask Lukas about the divisibility problem?
 
Nope and nope on those topics. Also, I managed to get an answer I was happy with on the divisibility one, but I could post my proof to get some pointers on it
 
If you know amalgamated products this is easy
 
11:41 PM
Oh, right, you had an alternative argument for splitting.
 
suppose $f:G \to H$ is a homomorphism that is not surjective, then consider $H *_{f(G)} H$ and take $\psi$ and $\phi$ be the inclusions into the two components
then by construction $\psi \circ f= \phi \circ f$, but $\psi \neq \phi$
 
How is the amalgamated product defined?
 
@LukasHeger that's a neat argument
 
it's the easiest to do in terms of presentations. Do you know group presentations?
 
Hmmm, nope :]
I can google stuff, not to worry
 
11:44 PM
sorry for needing so many concepts
 
It's perfectly alright. You gotta learn stuff to know stuff
 
there might be a more elementary argument
but it's probably not as short
and I'm not seeing it right now
 
(Lukas is going to ask if you know what a pushout is soon)
 
lol
do you know what a Kan extension is?
jk
 
@LukasHeger ncatlab.org/nlab/show/epimorphisms+of+groups+are+surjective not really elementary, but it's a different argument
 
11:50 PM
@Alessandro I like the argument with the amalgamated free product better
 
Okay, so if $G$ and $H$ are two subgroups of a parent group, the amalgamated free group is effectively $\langle G, H\vert G\cap H\rangle$?
Ah, wait, I'm off
(I think)
 
no, not quite
the situation is this: you have a group $C$ that is simultanously a subgroup of $A$ and $B$
then if $A=\langle S_A \mid R_A\rangle$ is a presentation and the same notation for $B$, then the amalgamated free product is $\langle S_A \cup S_B \mid R_A \cup R_B \cup C\rangle$
 
Alright. I believe I understand
 
00:00 - 23:0023:00 - 00:00

« first day (3482 days earlier)      last day (1537 days later) »