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5:17 PM
This is not the usual definition of $2$-transitivity as far as I can tell. We usually require $g$ and $g^{\prime}$ to be the same (then $2$-transitivity means acting transitively on pairs of points). A $2$-transitive action as you defined it is still transitive though; take $y=y^{\prime}$ and then $g^{\prime}=e_G$ will always work.
 
@Sha, I agree with @Thorgott that your definition is fishy.
 
@Thorgott the answer is extremely well written.
something that even a layman like me can kind of get a hold of.
 
@Subhasis Actually, I was being kind of sloppy in the answer by just saying "Borel-measurable" without making clear which Borel-algebra I was referring to at times. I should fix that.
 
Hello, I am doing a problem and I came upon this: if i have the inequality aR<rcos(x)<R where a,r,R>0, what can I do to isolate x? Is cos^-1(aR/r)<x<cos^-1(R/r) correct? I am unsure about it because wolfram alpha says the inequalities cos(x)<1 and x<cos^-1(x) are not the same.
 
The other way around, @codingnight, because $\cos$ is a decreasing function on $[0,\pi]$.
 
5:21 PM
ahh of course, then if I had sin insted of cos my reasoning would be correct? thanks @TedShifrin
 
Yes, that's right.
 
@TedShifrin here the OP wants to know why a domain with Jordan curve boundary has closure actually a manifold. I outlined a proof which works to show that if $U \subset M$ is an open subset of a manifold, whose boundary $\partial U$ is a locally flat manifold (there are charts taking it to $\Bbb R^{n-1} \subset \Bbb R^n$), then $\overline U$ is a manifold with boundary. Do you see a quicker argument? I had to fiddle a bit.
 
Agh. This is the kind of stuff I'm terrible at. :P
 
OK
it's just point-set crap
It surprised me that it took so much work to show this for Jordan domains
 
This is why I stick to the smooth (or complex analytic) category. :P
 
5:32 PM
You'd need to give more or less the same proof in the smooth category
The question is whether regularity of both the interior and the boundary gives regularity of both at the same time
 
Hmm.
That sort of thing seems non-obvious to me.
 
OK, that's basically what I wanted. Then the proof I outline is probably necessary.
(You need to make some assumption to rule out the case of having a closed hypersurface $H \subset M$ and letting your domain be $M \setminus H$, but this is an edge case.)
 
@Thorgott oh oops, sorry, that was my bad
I should have only included one $g$ (and no second $g'$)
 
Hi @Sha. So, yes, it's clear that $2$-transitive implies transitive.
 
Elo Ted
oh hm, let me figure that out for a sec, because for some reason it wasn't clear to me
 
5:41 PM
OK, yell if you don't see it.
 
you are assuming "my" definition right, that $x\neq x'$ and $y\neq y'$, and $\sigma_g(x)=x'$ and $\sigma_g(y)=y'$ for some $g$? @TedShifrin
oh I see it I think
 
Yup, I'm assuming that.
 
also @TedShifrin, are you somewhat familiar with how representation theory is used in physics?
(it's a shot in the dark, I admit that:p)
 
Not really.
One of my best friends at UGA teaches such a graduate course in the physics department, though.
 
hm rights, well if you don't mind, I would like to say why I was asking
ah cools
 
5:48 PM
Hi everyone
 
the thing is, I am graduating this year, and I have to chose a topic that lies at the intersection of mathematics and physics. now I found a professor in mathematics who is into algebra, and I guess in particular in representation theory
and I also found another professor, who came with the idea to explore a certain peculiarity in quantum theory that has to do with entanglement
which sounds cool, and I've already been looking at the paper
however, judging from the paper, I couldn't really see what kind of interesting mathematics I could get out of it (they were just using basic linear algebra, for the most part it seemed)
and while I'll have my appointment with this physics professor soon, I am asking around a bit
 
Personally, of course, I would lobby for more differential geometry. It's all over modern physics.
 
most things people call physics are questionably labeled
of course, i am not arguing against labeling GR that way
 
There's no question that representation theory shows up in QM and elsewhere in physics, but I'm not advanced enough.
 
@TedShifrin yea this was also on my mind for a while
and I think the math professor I have, has also led a project last year that revolved around diffgeo
 
5:52 PM
@MikeM: You're opposed to thinking of E&M as a $U(1)$-bundle? :D
 
but yea, I guess I'm quite clueless when I start seriously thinking about topics, on how to implement an interesting math component
but alright, I'll just await the appointment in any case
 
My favorite elementary example (which I put in my notes) is explaining the Foucault pendulum in terms of parallel translation (which is diff geo), @Sha.
But that's super elementary.
 
reminds me of this image (which I'm sure has been shared here before)
 
@TedShifrin you know what i mean
 
"commutative field theory"?
@MikeM: I never got far enough to understand how the physicists arrived at all the enumerative geometry phenomena that they did.
 
5:54 PM
neither did they
 
LOL ... I mean, I don't know even the physical framework in which they unearthed it.
 
good
 
LOL, bi***y mood today? :D
 
@Thorgott now, is $[a,b]$ is perfect w.r.t the Lebesgue measure, where the sigma algebra is formed by the Lebesgue measurable sets?
rather than Borel sets?
 
Yes, the Lebesgue-algebra only differs from the Borel-algebra by adjoining measure zero sets
 
6:07 PM
@TedShifrin I am sure you'd be able to pick up a quantum physics book and recognize some of the stuff they are doing in terms of the formalization in mathematics.
Like the Clebsch-Gordan coefficients, for example.
 
Yeah, Pauli matrices, etc.
@MikeM: With regard to a post, it seems that Hirsch doesn't prove (easy) Whitney embedding in the non-compact case. Sigh.
 
Bredon does
 
I don't know (nor own) that book. But I've heard good things.
 
First half is quite good
Exposition of cohomology is too formal
Products mainly
 
I guess the whole trick is to find an exhaustion function in the non-compact case.
 
6:12 PM
Something like this.
 
Odd that Hirsch doesn't do it. He would have needed to put partitions of unity into chapter 1, I guess.
 
It surprises me a little yeah
 
I draw a 60 degree angle on the ground. What is the set of points from which, if viewed from that point, it will appear to have 90 degrees in perspective?
We can look at the intersection of that set of points with a sphere
I'm guessing we end up with a circle with diameter equal to the distance between the endpoints of the angle
(on the sphere)
 
That's an interesting question.
 
The conjecture can be thought of as looking at the aperture angle of a cone, from another point on the cone
Hm… now I'm less sure about it
OK let's do some vectors
I have $\angle p0q$
 
6:27 PM
So you're basically saying it's just the phenomenon that the locus of points at which a $90º$ angle is subtended is the arc of a semicircle.
 
viewed from $v$ with $\|v\|=1$
@TedShifrin Yeah but a spherical version
$p$ projected onto a plane perpendicular to $v$ is $p-(p\cdot v)v$, right?
 
If $v$ is a unit vector.
 
Yeah
So I want $90^\circ=\angle(p-(p\cdot v)v),0,(q-(q\cdot v)v)$
which means those vectors are perpendicular
so $\big(p-(p\cdot v)v\big)\cdot\big(q-(q\cdot v)v\big)=0$
 
with a \cdot in there
 
Yeah whoops
So $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$ I think?
 
6:30 PM
that seems wrong
take $v=e_z$
 
what is the degree in perspective
 
then that's $p\cdot q=p_xq_x+p_yq_y +p_zq_z$ whereas $(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v) = p_z q_z$
 
Yeah, I'm puzzling over what the question means. Ordinarily I need a place for the eye, but I still need a viewing plane.
 
oh, never mind, I misread you
 
You forgot cross-terms, @Semiclassic.
 
6:32 PM
what?
 
Draw the plane through your eye and the line, for each line. What is the dihedral angle where the planes intersect?
That's my definition
 
I think it's the same as drawing the plane through the vertex of the angle whose normal points towards your eye, and projecting
Does $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$ have a direct interpretation?
 
I don't understand that sentence.
 
$p$ and $q$ are fixed
@TedShifrin I accidentally a phrase
 
6:33 PM
switching over to p,q as column vectors:
 
There are cross-terms in your dot product.
 
the cross-terms cancel
 
No, they add.
Unless I'm being unusually stoooopid.
 
$$\big(p-(p\cdot v)v\big)\cdot\big(q-(q\cdot v)v\big)=p\cdot q-(p\cdot v)(v\cdot q)-(q\cdot v)(p\cdot v)+(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)(v\cdot v)$$
and $v\cdot v=1$
 
Thus setting to $0$ gives $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$
 
6:35 PM
Oh, I see. The three terms are all the same up to sign. Duh.
 
and I see the geometric interpretation of $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$
 
OK. Ted is stooopid.
Thanks.
 
But there's a simpler way to write this: Let $P_\perp = I_3 - vv^\top$
 
Complete $v$ to an orthonormal basis $\{v,v_1,v_2\}$
 
(so projection onto the orthogonal complement of $v$)
 
6:36 PM
Then this basically says $p_0q_0+p_1q_1+p_2q_2=p_0q_0$
 
Not $I_2$, Semiclassic.
 
so $p_1q_1+p_2q_2=0$, which is what I want
 
OK, so our viewing plane is orthogonal to $v$.
 
Yes
In any case. Given fixed $p$ and $q$, where does $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$ for unit $v$?
 
6:37 PM
then $p-(p\cdot v)v=P_\perp p$ and $q-(q\cdot v)v = P_\perp q$, so we want $(P_\perp p)^\top (P_\perp q) = p^\top P_\perp q=0$
 
So that's a quadric surface on which $v$ lives, intersected with the sphere.
@Semiclassic: So that gives what DogAteMy wanted: orthogonal vectors when projected into that plane.
 
yep
i just like writing things in terms of projections, heh
 
$p^\top q=p^\top vv^\top q$
Is that useful?
${}=v^\top pq^\top v$
 
You have Semiclassic's projection matrix in there.
 
6:39 PM
Except this is projection on $v$.
 
I can't say anything terribly useful about quadric surfaces in 4D space, though
 
Since $v$ is unit, I'm basically solving $v^\top(pq^\top-(p\cdot q)I)v=0$ for $v$ I think
so $v^\top Av=0$ for $A=pq^\top-(p\cdot q)I$
 
oh, so you want it as: Given $p,q$, find $v$ such that blah blah blah
 
DogAteMy: So the algebra of it tells us that you're going to get the intersection of two quadrics (the sphere and the other one). So we'll have a curve, which may have two components. Have to decide the signature of the quadratic form.
You have the additional equation $\|v\|=1$.
 
6:44 PM
I'm given an angle, and I want to view it in such a way that it looks like a right angle @Semiclassical
 
an interesting case would seem to be $p\cdot q=0$, in which case $A=pq^\top $ is rank 1.
so which viewpoints preserve the right angle
and the answer is seemingly "any viewpoint perpendicular to $p$ or $q$?"
 
@Semiclassic: I don't understand that remark. It always has rank 1.
 
$A=pq^\top -(p\cdot q)I$?
 
"In which case $A=pq^\top$, which has rank 1"
 
Oh.
 
6:46 PM
$A$ isn't symmetric, which is weird
 
Let's do a specific example
 
Would a question related to this(👇) one be answerable on this site?
4
Q: How can the angular velocity vector be obtained from angular displacements that are not vectors?

Johan LiebertMy physics book (The Fundamentals of Physics) while explaining vector-ness of angular quantity (formally "Are Angular Quantities Vectors?") states that angular velocity and angular acceleration are vectors. But the turning point comes when it talks about angular displacement and states that this ...

 
If you're doing orthogonal projection, it better be symmetric.
I'm thinking about my two quadrics.
 
$p=(2,-1,-1)$ and $q=(-1,2,-1)$, which has a 60 degree angle
 
WLOG, you can make $p$ and $q$ unit vectors, of course.
The curve on the sphere, as DogAteMy commented an hour ago, passes through the normalized vectors $p$ and $q$ (and their negatives).
Aha, so we have to have a hyperboloid intersecting the sphere.
 
6:50 PM
I think $A=\begin{bmatrix}1&4&-2\\1&1&1\\1&-2&4\end{bmatrix}$ in that case
 
would be nicer if the first two rows were swapped
 
Tell me if this link works
 
Oh, you drew my picture.
So, you're getting a quartic curve with two components.
 
The intersection looks lopsided
@TedShifrin And a cusp at the origin
 
6:54 PM
Lopsided?
 
Oh sorry curve
 
Oh, wait, this shouldn't be homogeneous. It shouldn't go through the origin.
 
@TedShifrin It's not symmetric along the xy plane - but then again neither are p and q
 
Your equation $(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v) = p\cdot q$ is a hyperboloid, not a cone.
You just graphed a cone.
It's not a cusp. It's a cone point at the origin.
 
Yes - I used the assumption $v\cdot v=1$
 
6:56 PM
Well, the intersection with the sphere is the same.
 
OK so how about this question
For what $k$ is $p+q+kp\times q$ a solution
Basically asking, if I stand at their sum, and then move perpendicularly away from the plane generated by them, how far up do I have to go
And again the equation is $p\cdot q=(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$
Oh wait
No that's not the equation unless we know that $v$ is a unit vector
We have $p\cdot q=(2-\|v\|^2)(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)$ in general
Maybe I should've just said $p+q+kr$ for $r$ unit perpendicular to $p$ and $q$, to make it easier
Then the magnitude of that is what, $\|p\|^2+\|q\|^2+k+p\cdot q$
 
Wait. How did $(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)=(p\cdot q)\|v\|^2$ turn into that equation?
 
Oh wait you're right
I took it from an earlier calculation, not realizing that it also had assumed $v$ was unit
$(p\cdot v)(q\cdot v)=(p\cdot q)\|v\|^2$ looks like the right equation
 
7:11 PM
Yeah, that's the equation that arose from my stoooopidity earlier.
 
$(\|p\|^2+p\cdot q)(p\cdot q+\|q\|^2)=(p\cdot q)(\|p\|^2+\|q\|^2+k+p\cdot q)$
$\|p\|^2\|q\|^2=kp\cdot q$
$k=\dfrac{\|p\|^2\|q\|^2}{p\cdot q}$
If $p$ and $q$ are unit, then that's $1/\cos\theta$
So I can stand on their sum and move vertically an amount equal to their secant
 
The quantity you're considering is far from invariant under scaling $p$ and $q$.
 
This is true, but neither is the setup — I'm looking at the solution $p+q+kr$ for unit $r$
 
Why is $r$ unit? If $p$ and $q$ are, $r$ won't be unless it's a 90º angle.
 
That's how I defined it
I was doing that instead of $p\times q$ because that seemed too annoying
 
7:17 PM
Oh, ok.
I'm not really paying detention.
 
This makes no sense actually
Argh
 
I still have my (general) spherical problem which I now have a citation for (but not a genuine proof)
 
Hm - I actually meant $k^2$ there
Still feels off
Oh duh I'm an idiot
$(\|p\|^2+p\cdot q)(p\cdot q+\|q\|^2)=(p\cdot q)(\|p\|^2+\|q\|^2+k^2+2p\cdot q)$
$\|p\|^2\|q\|^2-(p\cdot q)^2=k^2p\cdot q$
 
Let $A,B,C,D$ be points on the sphere and $AB,BC,CD,AD$ be their geodesic distances on the sphere. Then the set of possible such distances is characterized by the following inequalities:
 
$\|p\|^2\|q\|^2(1-\cos^2\theta)=k^2\|p\|\|q\|\cos\theta$
$\|p\|^2\|q\|\sin^2\theta=k^2\cos\theta$
$k=\|p\|\|q\|\tan\theta$
and that, finally, feels like it makes sense!
 
7:30 PM
$$0\leq AB+BC+CD+AD-2\theta \leq \pi, $$ for $\theta=AB,BC,CD,AD$
(i'm writing it in that way to avoid having 8 different inequalities. )
 
Deja vu… I feel like you've asked something like this before
Maybe not
 
yeah. this is the most general version
I'm pretty sure the other cases I've talked about correspond to restrictions of this, where one or more of the distances are equal
now to find a proof that isn't just "It's true because of Theorem X in book Y"
 
No fuck
$k=\sqrt{\|p\|\|q\|}\tan\theta$
OK better
 
I do have at least a partial proof of this, though
 
DogAteMy: You still have an error, unless there's more typo.
Is it $\cos^2\theta$?
 
7:34 PM
First, one should be able to make a triangle inequality argument that $AB+BC+CD\geq AD$
and similarly for the other three cases.
 
I don't think so.
 
…Yes but it corrects itself
What is it with me and typos today
 
should be $\leq 2\pi$, woops
 
I even had trouble typing English earlier
 
to get the other bound, replace B and D with their antipodes. then all angles get replaced by their supplements
so $3\pi -AB-BC -CD\geq \pi -AD\implies AB+BC+CD-AD\leq 2\pi$
 
7:37 PM
@Semiclassical So basically, you're saying that, if you want to get from $A$ to $D$, but make a detour to two stops along the way, at most you walked $\pi$ more than you needed to
 
Is there any connection between en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Derived_set_(mathematics) / proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Set_Derivative and the ordinary derivative from calculus? i.e. can the latter be rephrased as an instance of the former?
 
@AkivaWeinberger $2\pi$, but yes (fixing my typo from earlier)
 
I'm not sure - maybe it's "set of points you can take the derivative at" @user76284
i.e.
 
@user76284: No, not really.
 
if you have a function $f:S\to\mathbb R$
 
7:38 PM
Not really, DogAteMy.
 
then you can't define the derivative of $f$ at an isolated point
but you could define the derivative of $f$ at a limit point because you can take the limit of $h\to0$
 
You can't do it in higher dimensions with only one sequence, either.
 
where I have no idea is if you go from angles $AB,BC,CD,AD$ to all six mutual angles
 
Oh, I was thinking of subsets of $\mathbb R$. You're right
@user76284 So then no, I don't think so
 
I know (from the theorem I alluded to) that things become more restrictive in that case than you'd expect otherwise
but I don't know what inequalities are needed to characterize the set of allowed angles $AB,AC,AD,BC,BD,CD$
 
7:40 PM
Weird - shaking my mouse on my Mac makes the cursor bigger (briefly)
 
I'm wondering if there's a topological definition of the derivative like there is for limits (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Net_(mathematics)#Limits_of_nets).
 
There's a question like that on the main I think
[main]
 
for my upper bound, the better statement is probably proof by contradiction: assume one can pick A,B,C,D which would violate the upper bound, and show that A,-B,C,-D would violate the lower bound
 
I think you mean this one math.stackexchange.com/questions/272278/…? I didn't find the answers very satisfying.
 
Found it:
165
Q: Why can't differentiability be generalized as nicely as continuity?

GPerezThe question: Can we define differentiable functions between (some class of) sets, "without $\Bbb R$"* so that it Reduces to the traditional definition when desired? Has the same use in at least some of the higher contexts where we would use the present differentiable manifolds? Motivation/...

Different one
 
7:44 PM
Thanks, I'll take a look.
Regarding the first question I linked to, my understanding is that there's a purely type-theoretic notion of the derivative, for instance, that doesn't seem to be taken into account by the answers claiming that smoothness (for ordinary notions of "smoothness") is necessary.
 
@AkivaWeinberger as a special case of this, suppose A=D. Then the longest path ABCD possible (following geodesics each time) is the circumference of the sphere.
 
(that is, it collapses to $AB+BC+CA \leq 2\pi$)
 
or arithmetic derivatives.
 
hey how does $\langle v,x\rangle\cdot w$ read? it's from a linear algebra book. they're both scalar product. so why they're both used? confused
 
7:52 PM
I'm also wondering why $\mathbb{R}$ seems to play such a central role in these definitions when one can instead use algebras like $\mathbb{Q}_p$. To me this seems to hint at a more general structure.
 
My guess is that they're using $\cdot$ as multiplication between scalars
e.g. $\langle v,x\rangle =1$ and so $\langle v,x\rangle \cdot w=1\cdot w = w$
i don't really like that but it seems plausible
 
There's also arxiv.org/pdf/1804.00746.pdf which I found interesting.
 
ah, right. after all, using them both scalar is not even type theoretically correct :)
 
@TedShifrin Hey ted!
 
@user76284 I'm not gonna read through that, but I guess it's getting computers to differentiate functions algebraically rather than numerically?
This feels kind of like differential Galois theory
(a field I know nothing about)
 
7:58 PM
It's automatic differentiation for a category of derivative-augmented functions.
Automatic differentiation being different from both symbolic differentiation and numerical differentiation.
 
What's the difference between automatic differentiation and symbolic differentiation?
 

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