« first day (3252 days earlier)      last day (1771 days later) » 

12:00 AM
that sounds like a load of bs
 
what? I didn't have any idea!
Several loads.
 
I'll try my best to help him, but I fear the stubbornness of german bureaucrats
 
do you mean literally stamps or is that code
 
by "stamps" I don't mean the things you pay the mail with, I guess I mean university seal or something
 
Oh, like on a transcript?
 
12:02 AM
what the fuck
 
I think "seal" is the correct English term
yeah
 
oh, the transcript was not sealed?
 
In the US unofficial transcripts aren't usually satisfactory.
 
@TedShifrin for all but one of my applications the unofficial was fine
 
yeah I think that was the problem
 
12:02 AM
now they want it with the seal and everything
 
Suppose we have the complex proposition $\neg[p \vee (q \to r)] \vee \neg q$. Is there any way to delete $q$ from these proposition?
 
Well, that's the situation there, too, I suspect, Ryan.
 
yeah but I don't expect them to kick me out immediately if I miss that deadline
 
That's not a proposition at all, @manooooh. It's just a symbolic expression (not even sentence).
 
which is actually in September
@ÉricoMeloSilva don't forget to do that lol
 
12:04 AM
i already sent them my transcript
 
nice
I just got my diploma today
 
idt im missing anything actually
 
Maybe the department could intervene in @ÍgjøgnumMeg's behalf and give him a second shot.
 
@TedShifrin a proposition is a sentence with a truth value. $p\wedge q$ is a proposition since it can be true or false depending on the values of $p$ and $q$
 
the problem is, they didn't tell him that the seals were missing, they just sent him a rejection letter two weeks after the deadline
 
12:05 AM
wow
 
However, we need to focus on whether we can delete $q$ from that symbolic expression or not
 
Ugh ... I don't think like that at all, @manooooh, and I never use these logical terms, I confess.
 
Stony Brook didn't get my transcript on time because of the Christmas break so they just sent me an email
 
@RyanUnger congrats
 
I come up with $(\neg p\wedge r)\vee\neg q$, but did not be able to delete it
 
12:05 AM
@RyanUnger lol same
 
I told them to wait and they said it was fine
 
Well, rewrite the first part of it without the implication.
 
@skullpetrol it was sent to my parents but I was in NJ for a while
@ÉricoMeloSilva I have scoped out the bars and restaurants
 
rnt there like 3 bars
 
there's a place that has happy hour oysters for 1.50 apiece
 
12:07 AM
i went to one near the big theater thing
 
@TedShifrin my advisor is the head of the board of examiners (not sure if they're responsible, but okay) and I know him quite well, so I'll try to talk to him on monday
 
there's slim pickings
Dinky?
 
@TedShifrin what do you mean? Rewrite $q\to r$ in terms of $\neg q\vee r$?
 
and the oysters are good
 
So what's the negation?
 
12:08 AM
@RyanUnger that might’ve been it
 
@TedShifrin $q\wedge\neg r$
 
I went there many times
It's not the best one
But its a very convenient location
There's one place that has happy hour at 10pm on weekdays
 
So we end up with $(\neg p \wedge q\wedge \neg r)\vee \neg q$, right?
 
and has lots of TVs
we were there for the NBA finals
 
@TedShifrin yup! Is there any way to get rid of the $q$?
 
12:09 AM
i guess i’ll find out come september lol
 
damn raptors -_-
 
skull I know
 
So what happens if $q$ is false? true?
 
I tried but did not achieve nothing
 
the honor of the US is besmirched
 
12:10 AM
@TedShifrin yes... but I mean using logical operations, like distributive, DeMorgan, etc.
 
they only won because of injuries though
I think everyone knows that
 
You can do it formally, but thinking is better first.
 
they refused to go to the white house...
 
All power to them for that, skull.
 
I'm sure the Warriors would have too
 
12:11 AM
I distributed and ended up with $[(\neg p\wedge\neg r)\vee\neg q]\wedge(q\vee\neg q)$, the last part is always true, and true with another thing is that thing, so we end up with $(\neg p\wedge\neg r)\vee\neg q$
 
he's turned it into a hotel and casino
(as expected :)
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva apparently the IAS has a bar
 
@TedShifrin agree. But here I do not know how to continue, we know that if $q$ is false/true then $\neg q$ is true/false
 
@RyanUnger makes sense tbh
 
Yeah, I guess you're right you can't get rid of $q$ entirely. If $q$ is false, the proposition holds no matter what. If $q$ is true, you need $\neg (p\vee r)$ to hold.
So I guess we could rewrite this as an implication, but $q$ is still there.
I'm done.
 
12:15 AM
@ÉricoMeloSilva some other info...it takes a little under 2 hrs to get from Princeton to Columbia
 
this i am aware of
 
@TedShifrin ah! I never understood the meaning of "the proposition holds no matter what" and "$\neg (p\vee r)$ to hold". What do you mean by "hold"? Thanks!
 
I went to see if Brendle was walking around and I could beg to get in
I didn't see him
 
@TedShifrin I'm helping a friend, and he told me that in the textbook, the $q$ disappeared magically. That is why I ask you, although it is very possible that the book is wrong
It is not a famous textbook, it's a local one, don't worry $\ddot\smile$
 
12:18 AM
By "hold" I mean "is true."
 
Ok, learned
 
@Ryan: He knew you were stalking.
 
@RyanUnger is Dyson at the IAS?
 
@manooooh: So when the $q$ disappears, what does the book have?
 
12:20 AM
@skullpetrol the IAS webpage says he's retired
 
thnx
 
@TedShifrin don't have the textbook. If I remember, then I'll tell you how it was (if it is correct, but I don't think so)
 
No, what I just wrote pretty much shows it can't be right.
The moral of the story is: Don't help friends.
3
 
@TedShifrin well, I have never prove that "Show that $p$ can dissapear"
 
@TedShifrin always w the wisdom
 
12:22 AM
@BalarkaSen I have a proof that if $P$ is a closed oriented 3-manifold which fibers over an oriented surface, and $P$ also fibers over a circle with fiber a closed oriented surface of genus $g>1$, then $P$ is isomorphic a product $S^1 \times \Sigma_g$ and the bundles are isomorphic to the projection maps. This is also true for $g=0$ and I suspect for $g=1$ but the proofs don't work.
 
Is it a valid question? I mean, suppose that we have an inifite enumeration of propositions. How to know on how to get rid of a singular symbol?
 
For $g=0$ this is by inspection.
 
@manooooh: It can only happen, pretty much, formally if you have $\vee (q\vee \neg q)$ or $\wedge(q\vee\neg q)$ ... or something similar.
 
Hi @Mike
 
\o @MikeMiller
 
12:23 AM
I sketched for Balarka an argument that characterizes the number of irreducible real reps group-theoretically, in case you're interested
 
rehi @MikeM
 
@Balarka I believe the thing about homomorphisms $\pi_1 \Sigma_g \to F_n$ factoring through $F_g$. But I do not at all know a proof.
Hi.
 
@TedShifrin the point here is that "pretty much" does not cover all the cases of regroup a set of operators and operands, I guess
 
Anyhow, @manooooh, there are more interesting things for you to think about.
 
HI TTED
 
12:25 AM
@TedShifrin that is so rude!! I consider you as a friend, because you are helping me a lot! And I watched you on YT, and you seem to be a good person
 
Hi MMIKE
Hi RRYAN
 
LOL
 
Hi @anakhro
 
hi @anakhro.
 
AANAKHRO*
 
12:25 AM
@TedShifrin so I have the paper copy of Paul Yang's notes
 
why are you screaming
 
@manooooh: Don't forget to have a sense of humo(u)r.
 
@TedShifrin no! I want to know what is the quantity of valid permutations between operators and operands
 
oh cool, @Ryan.
 
I didn't understand a single word of his lectures. Feels bad
 
12:26 AM
@Ryan: Even after you have your Ph.D. and after you have tenure, there will still be lectures where you say that :P
Well, that's presumptuous of me. There have been lectures where I've said that.
 
I might go to a number theory lecture for the fun of it :P
 
yay, NT
 
@TedShifrin if we can count them, then your sentence "It can only happen, pretty much, formally if you have $∨(q∨¬q)$ or $∧(q∨¬q)$... or something similar" is true, but if we cannot count them, I think that your sentence is not true at all. In Logic, we don't like "not true at all" (?)
 
@MatheinBoulomenos is this good for a first course in ANT? registrar.princeton.edu/course-offerings/…
 
It used to annoy me over and over that colloquium talks would start with five/ten minutes reviewing what projective space is. WTF. Can't we assume second-year grad students and faculty know this?
 
12:28 AM
Is ANT the acronym for algebraic or analytic number theory?
Always confuses me.
 
@RyanUnger well, I'd say it's good that it isn't open to first year undergrads
@anakhro sometimes it's ANT, sometimes it's ANT, depends on the context
I'll just assume it's algebraic unless I have reason to believe otherwise, but that's just me being me
 
@TedShifrin Depends on the school
 
@Ryan: Yes, of course. At MIT and Princeton that doesn't happen. But it really shouldn't have at UGA, either. Is every number theory talk going to start by reviewing modular arithmetic? :D
 
@RyanUnger seriously, all I understand is that I know most of those words, and I want to specialize on number theory
 
@TedShifrin Rick Schoen's talks all begin by reviewing very basic stuff, even at Yau's birthday conference
The number of times I've seen someone draw the principal curvatures of a saddle...
 
12:32 AM
Well, basics in PDE/minimal submanifolds are more sophisticated, typically.
Sadly, we can't assume everyone knows basic undergrad diff geo. But every grad student has learned projective space. It sucks, I realize.
 
I don't know basic undergrad diff geo :)
 
And I certainly can't assume everyone knows the structure equations for submanifolds. Hell, most mathematicians die if they see a differential form.
You could read my notes in a few days, @Mathein :P
 
@TedShifrin i die regardless of whether or not i see one tbh :(
 
glares at Eric
 
There was one interesting book that tried to reduce linear algebra down to just understanding projective space.
 
12:35 AM
well maybe if they were useful...(hides)
 
By way of linear manifolds or something.
 
I took a course that was basically smooth manifolds, but when we started with Jacobi fields, I didn't understand much
 
@TedShifrin it's there to boost people's self esteem!
 
Blah.
 
Reinhold Baer's I think?
 
12:36 AM
Doesn't do any good, @loch, if ten minutes later they're mired in spectral sequences.
A lot of projective geometry is linear algebra and vice versa, anakhro.
 
lmao Scholze's talk at the ICM started with the Gauss lemma or some other trivial BS
maybe it was Eisenstein
basically factoring polynomials
 
That's fine. Most people aren't going to remember that unless they've taught algebra recently.
 
but that's too hard so I invented perfectoid spaces
 
Anyhow, I withdraw my remarks.
 
@loch Remake the academy, don't add unnecessary remarks to your talks ;)
 
12:37 AM
the remaining 55 minutes were incomprehensible
 
LOL ... That's sorta my point.
 
Caucher Birkar actually had an informative talk
I came in knowing nothing and came out knowing slightly more than nothing
 
@TedShifrin @RyanUnger any good quick summary/reference that just does all the important definitions and theorems from multivariable/vector calculus, but on general (abstract) manifolds?
 
@MikeMiller hasta la victoria siempre my dude
 
@anakhro I actually really like the appendix in Straumann's general relativity book
compact and he does things for any signature
everything is mathematically rigorous
 
12:39 AM
I will check it out, thanks. Any other rec.s are welcome.
 
he uses differential forms too
 
Eisenstein's criterion seems relevant to things Scholze might talk about, since if a polynomial is $p$-Eisenstein, it is irreducible over $\Bbb Q_p$ and defines a totally ramified extension and conversely, totally ramified extensions always have a primitive element that is $p$-Eisenstein
 
or as he calls them...vielbeins/vielbeine
 
I dunno. I certainly don't do vector calculus on abstract manifolds that much.
 
I think he means like the divergence theorem and stuff
 
12:41 AM
and the totally ramified extensions of $\Bbb Q_p$ are the difficult ones, unramified ones are easy
 
Maybe something like Abraham and Marsden or Abraham, Marsden, and Ratiu?
 
there's a tricky sign in the divergence theorem for mixed signature
it caused me much confusion a while ago
 
I don't mess with mixed signature much.
 
The mechanics one, @TedShifrin?
 
unless you're doing GR I don't think there's really a need
 
12:42 AM
that's the first one, yes.
I stuck to Hermitian geometry.
 
although H^n can be isometrically embedded in (n+1)-Minkowski
which is cool
 
Damn, I hadn't realized Jerry Marsden died in 2010 :(
@RyanUnger Yes, that I presented in my grad diff geo courses.
 
Yeah, his vector calculus book was taken over by some otherpeople?
 
There already was Tromba, anyhow.
 
I wish I knew more diff geo. I think it would help me with the modular curves stuff I'm dealing with right now
 
12:45 AM
maybe some hyperbolic stuff, @Mathein. One grad student overruled his NT adviser and stayed in my grad diff geo course for the year because he thought it might be useful.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos do you know anything about this arithmetic topology stuff
 
@RyanUnger no
 
do you know what I'm talking about?
 
I also still want to know if there's a relation between the Selberg trace formula and the Eichler-Selberg trace formula
is arithmetic topology when you do hyperbolic arithmetic 3-manifolds?
Like $\Bbb H^3$ modulo some arithmetic group?
 
there's a conjectured correspondence between knots and primes
pime numbers, that is
 
12:47 AM
yeah, I heard that
 
I was told it was not fruitful, Ryan
 
I have a friend at Penn who is thinking about doing it
 
by a low dim topologist
 
It's apparently extremely hard
@anakhro Ricci flow was not fruitful for a while too :P
 
And the 3-dimensional Poincaré conjecture, for decades.
 
12:48 AM
there are reasons from étale cohomology to think of $\mathrm{Spec}(\Bbb Z)$ as three-dimensional, namely Artin-Verdier duality
 
Those are very specific results, not an entire subfield. I am not convinced.
I am not convinced in the idea of "fruitful" any way.
Just passing on what I was told, mindlessly.
 
Judgments are often biased ...
 
"Ricci flow, just say no"
 
I don't think they are often biased, but always.
 
Ted might know that quote
 
12:50 AM
Well, in Ryan's defense, Ricci flow is an entire subfield by now.
 
Heh, but only after it proved its usefulness, no?
 
Nope, Ryan, I don't think I do.
 
@anakhro There were maybe 10 people really working on Ricci flow (not Kahler-Ricci flow) before Perelman
then there were a zillion
 
Well, I remember hearing lots of lectures by Hamilton et al. years and years and years before Perelman.
 
Hamilton is of course one of the ten
Yau gives himself some credit in his book for cheering Hamilton on :P
 
12:52 AM
Yau gives himself credit for everything.
 
Ted is Yau's #1 fan.
Yau even said so.
 
clearly
 
Yup, that's for sure. Especially for the way he treated Chern.
 
lol
 
Did he mistreat Chern?
 
12:53 AM
According to Yau, it's more like the way Chern treated him
 
Yup.
 
I don't know what to believe
 
What went down?
 
That's crap, @Ryan, but I'm not doing this in public here.
 
can someone explain to me the Laplace-Beltrami operator and why its spectrum is that important? Apparantly the Selberg trace formula is important for NT, but I never worked with the spectrum of a differential operator before
 
12:55 AM
@Mathein: It starts with hearing the shape of a vibrating drum :)
 
@MatheinBoulomenos you can hear the euler characteristic of a closed surface
 
Sounds like a "kill your father" thing.
 
cleans out his ears
 
holds a plate to his ear and hears "... 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ..."
Darn it's not closed.
emits a final cry before being devoured by geometers.
 
I think the same is only true when you have a boundary if you know that the boundary is totally geodesic
 
12:59 AM
Hmmm, this sounds like a good thing for you to teach us, @Ryan.
 
@TedShifrin are you fond of Eliashberg?
 
right so the basic result is that on a surface $$\sum_{j=0}^\infty e^{-\lambda_jt}=\frac{V(M^2,g)}{4\pi t}+\frac{\chi(M)}{6}+O(t)$$
 
I don't know him personally, nor most of his work.
 
to no-one's surprise, the chi appears because of Gauss-Bonnet
 
what is $V(M^2,g)$?
 
1:01 AM
volume
 
This sounds like classic heat equation stuff for Gauss-Bonnet.
 
yes the thing on the left is the trace of the heat kernel
 
@Mathein: $g$ is the metric and your Laplace-Beltrami is defined dependent upon $g$.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos do you know what the heat kernel is
 
it's the kernel of the heat operator
no, I have no idea
 
1:04 AM
kernel ≠ kernel
 
equality is't reflexive anymore?
 
ok you probably know functional analysis so if we want to solve some abstract problem like $x'(t)=Ax(t)$ where $x(t)$ is a curve in some Banach space and $A$ is a linear operator then we can write $x(t)=e^{At}x_0$, where $x_0$ is the "initial condition"
 
yeah I know functional analysis
 
LOL, that's freshman linear algebra :P
 
to make this rigorous you need some conditions on $A$ of course
 
1:06 AM
@TedShifrin tbh never learned this in linear algebra
 
so we want to study the solutions of $(\partial_t-\Delta)u=0$ (heat equation) on a Riemannian manifold
 
I had to read it in Hirsch & Smale
 
I might call such a $u$ a caloric function
 
should have been in our ODE course, but it is a WASTE.
 
I taught it my linear algebra courses and, of course, it's in my books, @anakhro.
 
1:07 AM
so we want to solve this for $u(x,t)$ where $(x,t)\in M\times[0,\infty)$ and $\Delta$ is taken wrt a fixed metric $g$ on $M$
and we have some initial condition $u_0\in C^\infty(M)$, which means we want $u(\cdot,0)=u_0$
 
@TedShifrin one day I will be like you and write a book I can reference.
 
I hope so, @anakhro.
 
See Anakhro [2].
 
now using the functional calculus we can write $u(t)=e^{t\Delta}u_0$
 
Now, that's more obnoxious than necessary :D
 
1:08 AM
this can be made rigorous because $\Delta$ is essentially self-adjoint on $C^\infty(M)$
the "heat kernel" is the operator $e^{t\Delta}$
 
notes that Ryan is doing a splendid job so far
5
I was expecting a fundamental solution type of kernel, @Ryan.
 
i was going to write an integral kernel in a second
now $e^{t\Delta}:L^2\to L^2$ is actually a trace-class operator for $t>0$
and we have the nice formula $$\mathrm{tr}\,e^{t\Delta}=\sum_{j=0}^\infty e^{-t\lambda_j}$$
now the problem is that actually computing the RHS is kind of impossible from what I just said, so we have to consider another representation of the heat kernel
To fix notation let $\{\phi_j,\lambda_j\}_{j=0}^\infty$ be the spectral resolution for the Laplacian (on a closed Riemannian manifold)
this means that $\Delta \phi_j+\lambda_j\phi_j=0$, $\phi_j\in C^\infty$, $\{\phi_j\}$ is an orthonormal basis for $L^2$, and $0=\lambda_0<\lambda_1\le \lambda_2\le\cdots\to \infty$
 
this means that $\phi_j$ are eigenvectors and $\lambda_j$ are eigenvalues, right?
sniped
 
@TedShifrin If you're familiar with quantum mechanics you'll see that I've taken the following from my QM course
we have the identity $$\sum_{j=0}^\infty\phi_j\otimes \phi_j=id_{L^2}$$
the tensor means the following: if $f,g,h\in L^2$, then $$(f\otimes g)h=(g,h)_{L^2}f$$
 
(using $L^2 \cong (L^2)^*$?)
 
1:17 AM
oh yeah
 
yeah, I assumed as much
 
this all works for a Laplacian on a complex vector bundle in which case one needs to add some transposes and whatnot
here it's simple
ok so we take $u(t)=e^{t\Delta}u_0$ and expand $u_0=\sum a_j\phi_j$
now we can just compute that $e^{t\Delta}\phi_j=e^{-\lambda_jt}\phi_j$
so by "linearity" (this part needs to be checked), $u(t)=\sum e^{-\lambda_jt}a_j\phi_j$
but we can rewrite this as $u(t)=(\sum_{j}e^{-\lambda_jt}\phi_j\otimes\phi_j)u_0$
so, at least formally, $e^{t\Delta}=\sum e^{-\lambda_jt}\phi_j\otimes \phi_j$
good so far?
 
yeah, I'm following
thanks a lot for the great exposition
 
Let's go back to the tensor product. With everything written out we have $$(f\otimes g)h(x)=\int_M f(x)g(y)h(y)\,dy$$
so we can represent the tensor product of two functions as an integral operator
so the key to bringing PDE back into the fold is writing: $$u(x,t)=e^{t\Delta}u_0(x)=\int_MH(x,y,t)u_0(y)\,dy$$
where $$H(x,y,t)=\sum_{j=0}^\infty e^{-\lambda_jt}\phi_j(x)\phi_j(y)$$
 
So is $H(x,y,t)$ the heat kernel?
 
1:27 AM
yeah
it turns out that $H$ is smooth on $M\times M\times (0,\infty)$
and it blows up along the diagonal as $t\searrow 0$
so on R^n we can actually write down the heat kernel explicitly
I know that's not a compact manifold but the same ideas work
The answer is $$e(x,y,t)=(4\pi t)^{-n/2}e^{-|x-y|^2/4t}$$
 
And that's the classic fundamental solution.
If you compute Laplacian of that, you get $\delta_y$.
 
right so this thing satisfies $$(\partial_t-\Delta_x)e(x,y,t)=\delta_y(x)$$
 
So ... think convolution and what Ryan's been doing.
 
where $\delta_y$ is the Dirac mass at $y$
 
this is a weak derivative, right?
 
1:31 AM
er sorry that's slightly wrong
it satisfies the heat equation, i.e. $(\partial_t-\Delta_x)e(x,y,t)$ for $t>0$
and $e(\cdot,y,t)\to \delta_y$ as $t\searrow 0$
 
ah, I see
 
in various senses, let's keeps this informal haha
 
You're doing great.
 
Ted and I both mixed this up with the Laplace equation
 
1:34 AM
well, not with $t$ in there :P
 
@MatheinBoulomenos So the derivatives here are classical ones
 
Yeah, when I said "compute Laplacian" I was an idiot.
 
$e$ is a smooth function for $t>0$
ok so the story continues with Minakshisundaram and Pleijel
 
Wow ... what a name to have to type!
 
I think I did it correctly
 
1:36 AM
I don't know it/him/her.
 
They asked to what extent does $H(x,y,t)$ look like $e(x,y,t)$ as $x\to y$ and $t\searrow 0$
Recall that on a Riemannian manifold we have a distance function $d$. So we consider the "naive heat kernel" $$\mathcal E(x,y,t)=(4\pi t)^{-n/2}e^{-d(x,y)^2/4t}$$
their idea is that we should be able to add correction terms to this and obtain the real heat kernel
since this thing obviously is like $e$ for short distances and times, and if the correction terms are small, then $H$ looks like $e$ too
it turns out the right thing to look at is $$H_k(x,y,t)=\mathcal E(x,y,t)\sum_{j=0}^kt^ju_j(x,y)$$
and we want to compute $u_j$ so that they satisfy $$(\partial_t-\Delta_x)H_k=-\mathcal Et^k\Delta_x u_k$$
I don't have a great reason for why this equation, but it works out in the end
 
This looks like classic perturbation theory, I guess.
 
it's definitely motivated by that
there's probably rules for doing this stuff for ODEs and just just made it work in this setting
so you can compute the $u_j$'s from this, at least in principle.
it gives a recursion relation and you start with $u_0= 0$ on the diagonal
this turns out to be enough to determine all the others, but actually computing them is very hard
it involves the metric determinant in polar coordinates in a neighborhood of the diagonal, kind of nasty
now what is particularly interesting are the numbers $$a_j=\int u_j(x,x)\,dx$$
because these give the coefficients in the $t$-expansion of $$\mathrm{tr}\,e^{t\Delta}=\int H(x,x,t)\,dx$$
it turns out that $u_1(x,x)=R(x)/6$, where $R$ is the scalar curvature
so by the Gauss--Bonnet formula, $$a_1=\frac 46\pi\chi$$ when $n=2$
 
I hate to leave in the middle of this lecture, but I have to cook dinner. I'll catch up later :) Thanks, Ryan.
 
cheers
it's basically done anyway
one can show that for $k$ sufficiently large, $H_k$ approximates $H$ very well and we have $$\sum e^{-\lambda_jt}=(4\pi t)^{-n/2}\left(\sum_{j=0}^k t^j\int u_j(x,x)\,dx\right)+O(t^\alpha),$$
where $\alpha$ is some power
I actually wanted $u_0(x,x)=1$ haha
so the first term gives the volume, always
and when $n=2$ you get the Euler characteristic in the second term
 
1:53 AM
wow, really cool
thanks a lot
 
np
@BalarkaSen there might be something interesting to you above
the heat kernel is one of the main tools in geometric analysis
the relationship to the Poincare conjecture is particularly mysterious
 
@BalarkaSen Let $P$ be a closed oriented 3-manifold, and suppose $p_1: P \to \Sigma$ is an $S^1$ bundle, where $\Sigma$ is an oriented surface, and furthermore $p_2: P \to S^1$ is a fiber bundle with fiber $\Sigma_g$, where $g > 1$.
I claim that the map $p_1 i_2: \Sigma_g \to \Sigma$ has nonzero degree; in fact, it is homotopic to a covering map. For consider the induced map $gf:\pi_1 \Sigma_g \to \pi_1 P \to \pi_1 \Sigma$; I claim this composite is injective and its image is finite index. First observe that $f: \pi_1 \Sigma_g \to \pi_1 P$ is injective, because it's the inclusion map of a fibration whose base is aspherical.
Now consider the short exact sequence $\Bbb Z \to \pi_1 P \to \pi_1 \Sigma$; if $gf$ is not injective, then $\text{ker}(gf)$ is the preimage of $\Bbb Z \subset \pi_1 P$, and in particular is either zero or a normal subgroup isomorphic to $\Bbb Z$.
In the latter case, we have the action $\pi_1 \Sigma_g \looparrowright \Bbb Z$, which comes from a homomorphism $\pi_1 \Sigma_g \to \Bbb Z/2$. Clearly this homomorphism has nonzero kernel; an element of this kernel commutes with $\Bbb Z$, and so we have constructed an embedding $\Bbb Z^2 \to \pi_1 \Sigma_g$. This contradicts the assumption $g>1$ by a hyperbolic geometry argument. So $\text{ker}(gf) = 0$ and $p_1 i_2$ is homotopic to a covering map.
Every noncompact surface has free fundamental group, so it's a finite index covering.
Now $P$ has two special cohomology classes, $S$ and $C$, the pullbacks of the fundamental classes of the Circle and the Surface. Then $S \smile C = \text{deg}(gf)$, by dualizing to intersection products of fibers. But if the circle bundle over $\Sigma$ has Euler class $n$, then $nS = 0$ by the Gysin sequence. Thus the Euler class is zero and the circle bundle is trivial, and hence $P \cong S^1 \times \Sigma$.
I do not know if we have $\Sigma = \Sigma_g$. I guess no. I picture you could cover $\Sigma$ non-trivially as the "$n$th root bundle" of the $U(1)$-bundle.
 
2:33 AM
What type of singularity does the prime zeta function have at the points 1/$k$ for squarefree integers $k$?
 
3:24 AM
Managed to find a nice analytical to this probability problem math.stackexchange.com/questions/3278200/box-of-10-chocolates/… which initially had a flurry of activity by people writing programs to simulate it and eventually guess a closed form.
@user76284 they are simple poles (order 1) by combining formula (10) on this page mathworld.wolfram.com/PrimeZetaFunction.html with the fact that the zeta function pole at $s=1$ is also simple (of order 1).
 
3:49 AM
@pre-kidney But PrimeZetaP[s] + 1/(s - 1/2) doesn't converge at $s=1/2$? I can cancel the logarithmic singularity at $s=1$ by using PrimeZetaP[s] + Log[s - 1].
 
4:07 AM
@user76284 good catch, I forgot about the Log in the formula (10). It actually means that they are all logarithmic singularities
Do you see what I mean? the residue is given by the mobius function
Out of curiosity, what problem are you working on that led to asking this question?
 
4:21 AM
Oh, what would be the right way to cancel them then? PrimeZetaP[z] + Log[z - 1/2] or PrimeZetaP[z] - Log[z - 1/2] doesn't seem to work either.
I want to see what PrimeZetaP "looks like" with its singularities removed, much like one can do with Zeta by removing the pole at $s = 1$.
 
5:03 AM
What do you call this process of drawing things by circles? editor.p5js.org/natureofcode/full/bxog_Xt6O I know that this is related to fourier but I wanted to know the name of this process so I can search and read about it.
 
That looks elegant!
@AjayMishra I think that for one circle this is called phasor diagram, but I am not sure whether the same term is used for Fourier series: google.com/search?tbm=isch&q=fourier+series+phasor
Maybe you can also try to check pictures with similar Fourier series animations to see whether somebody uses specific terminology for this "cumulative" diagram.
Google search also suggest the term harmonic circles. Although I haven't heard that term before.
 
5:58 AM
Anyone know how Mathematica may have gotten this Borel sum for the harmonic series? mathoverflow.net/a/335061/74578 I keep getting something that diverges.
 

« first day (3252 days earlier)      last day (1771 days later) »