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12:00 AM
You can claim that exhaustion made you slow.
 
Ah perfect
 
12:24 AM
@TedShifrin Am I crazy in thinking this is the proper way to calculate $\iota_X\beta$ for $X = (xy - z)\frac{\partial}{\partial y} + (yz - x)\frac{\partial}{\partial z}$ and $\beta = x\,dy\wedge dz$:
$$\iota_X\beta = \iota_X(x(dy\otimes dz - dz\otimes dy)) = x(dy(X)\otimes dz - dz(X)\otimes dy) = x((xy-z)\,dz - (yz-x)\,dy) = \dotsc$$
Because I have a more extensive example calculation I am trying to work out but it's not getting anything remotely close to the right answer.
 
You can't do interior product with a general tensor. Leave it alone with the differential form.
So you'll get $x(xy-z)dz - x(yz-x)dy$.
Yeah, that's what you had.
Why is @Eric here when he's supposed to be dining in splendor?
 
Hmmm. So suppose I then took $d$ of that. I get
$$2xy\,dx\wedge dz + x^2\,dy\wedge dz - (yz-1)\,dx\wedge dy - xy\,dz\wedge dy ?$$
 
What happened to the $z\,dx\wedge dz$?
And where's the $2x\,dx\wedge dy$?
I give up.
 
Ah yes I messed up that.
 
Where did the $+1 dx\wedge dy$ come from?
 
12:35 AM
$\frac{d(xyz-x^2)}{dx}dx\wedge dy$, right. It should have been a $(yz - 2x)$ not $(yz - 1)$.
Maybe I am just doing this part too quickly and need to take my time and make sure I am not making errors like that.
 
OK, that addresses my second complaint, then.
 
The general principle I think I have right, though. So that's good to know. Just sloppy.
I will do it after I make my calzone dough and see if it works out better this time. Thanks @TedShifrin
 
I've spent 45 years using differential forms, so I'm semi-competent.
Send me a calzone.
 
Uncooked, or cooked?
 
Hmmm ... depends how fast the stagecoach will be.
 
12:39 AM
Heh. I am pretty sure it would spoil before it got there in either case.
 
1:18 AM
hola
 
heya @Stan. I seem to recall I answered a ping of yours.
 
Yes that was very helpful
 
Cool.
 
So I tried to read more and from what I understand, a tensor product is a quotient vector space
is that accurate?
 
Yes, but rather than thinking about the construction, you should understand the universal mapping property it has and just use that most of the time.
So, before I disappear to cook dinner, have you any questions to raise tonight?
 
1:30 AM
Yeah that was my first, so I guess I should start by reading about that then?
I learned about like equivalence classes and relations and quotient sets
and feel more comfortable with those now
 
You've never learned modular arithmetic?
 
uh i did but like idk
thinking of it like in these terms
 
Stan, you are more from a physics background, si?
 
with basis vectors
and coorodinate free viewpoint
hasn't come easily to me
 
Hmm ... thinking of $\Bbb Z$ mod $m$ as a ring is all about equivalence relations.
I should send you the appendix from my algebra book.
 
1:31 AM
yeah that made it clear
but then I wasn't sure like, how that relates to the tensor product being an equivalence relation
didn't quite get that far
 
It's not per se.
OK, I'm gonna send you the appendix anyhow. Not sure if I have a separate file for that.
 
@anakhro sort of. I read it on my own but have almost no formal training. I was an econ major
 
Stan just chose to hang around here and get bullied.
 
@TedShifrin hahahahahaha basically
willing to hang in there
@TedShifrin so should I read about this universal property first?
the quotient vector space approach left me still confused how wedge products work.
I just got sick of the psuedo vector concept and want like the full version. None of the cool physics books use psuedo vectors
they all use differential geometry
 
They don't know what diffferential geometry is :P
 
1:35 AM
im gathering
should I watch your lecture on it? you started off with boundaries
so i wasn't sure if that would lead to the tensor product
 
On what?
 
differential forms
 
No, no, I never did tensor product, purposely.
 
Boundaries?
I defined wedge products just by determinants, no fancy stuff.
 
1:36 AM
ok, i'll watch it and come back with questions
 
Do you want the appendix on equivalence relations, or are you cool?
 
yes definitely
thanks ted!
i think i have too many books written by physicists
 
Make sure you do the exercises :)
 
claiming to be mathematicians
hahaha i will and then come here when i inevitably get stuck
 
@StanShunpike for the coordinate free def. of the tensor product $V\otimes W$ as the "free-est" vector space where bilinear maps on $V\times W$ are viewed as linear maps on $V\otimes W$.
 
1:40 AM
Stan: sent.
Of course, this requires double-duality to untangle.
 
Or in other words, the universal property just says that the tensor product factors bilinear maps into linear maps.
 
@TedShifrin you're the best!
 
Yup, anakhro tells the truth (for once).
 
@anakhro so does "free" mean like 'coordinate free'? i saw this notion of a free module, but i didn't really get what "free" meant
 
no, nothing to do with coordinates.
Just means the things have no relations.
 
1:43 AM
is the tensor product in your differential geometry book?
 
Noooo.
I think of tensor product as definitely graduate stuff.
 
oh really? I assumed that was undergrad
wow ok
idk why. its just everywhere
so i assumed you had to know it
 
Well, all sorts of crazy things are undergrad at UC, but not elsewhere.
 
Lmao
 
I did learn tensor product as an undergrad, but it's far from typical.
Well, Demonark stirred to laugh, rather than issue another horrid pun.
 
1:45 AM
and u ended up being a pro differential geometer
 
@StanShunpike take a look at Gauge Fields, Knots and Gravity by Munian & Baez.
It might be more up your alley if you are a physicist.
 
@anakhro oooo sounds very intriguing
 
pg. 169 for tensor products
 
Stan is not a physicist.
 
i will definitely look
 
1:45 AM
Yeah here the honors algebra class talks about tensor products toward the end but regular doesn't
 
I tell jokes and make puns
 
@TedShifrin maybe he wants to be one
 
It does show up in Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds, so fancy honors calculus courses sometimes do it.
 
and drive the Knight Bus
 
Stan, you and Demonark should get together for a drink.
 
1:46 AM
Tensor product is done in the second linear algebra class at my university
The module theory one.
 
Should be soon if we do, I won't be around Chicago much longer
 
Artin's algebra book doesn't do tensor product, for example, and it's damn sophisticated.
 
Does Artin do modules?
 
Good point.
Of course.
 
Weird.
 
1:47 AM
Does he do STFGMPID?
 
But tensor product normally is the purview of commutative algebra, not first algebra.
 
I like Berberian for linear algebra.
 
Yes, of course, Demonark.
I've never heard of it, anakhro.
But lots of people haven't heard of my books, so it's fair.
 
Are tensor products a requirement to understand wedge products?
 
OK, time for me to disappear and go cook dinner. Bye.
 
1:48 AM
Same. I used and liked Hoffman-Kunze though it's fairly old school
 
@TedShifrin ciao
 
@Stan: Of course not. My course/book/videos don't use tensor product to do wedge products.
 
I hear good things about Linear Algebra Done Wrong
 
@TedShifrin yeah i'm gonna try to learn it your way then
 
LOL.
OK, have fun :)
 
1:52 AM
@TedShifrin this is how Berberian does it.
Which roughly follows what my university did, except my university introduces modules in the second course.
When you start doing ring stuff
 
@anakhro that book looks so great
 
Berberian's linear algebra book. @StanShunpike it is quite cheap through Dover if I recall correctly.
 
It feels similar to H-K but more geometric
 
However, the biggest part of math is to not worry too much about books, but more about doing exercises and getting appropriate help when needed.
 
Maybe covers a bit more actually, H-K doesn't really do much tensor products or PIDs
It's the instructor's job to worry about books
 
1:58 AM
I have one professor who always teaches brand new courses and does the lecture notes ad hoc, compiling a usually 100pg textbook at the end.
If I could be as half a good teacher as him, I would be happy, I think.
 
0
Q: Continuity of the improper integral $\int_{0}^{x}y^{-1/2}dy.$

neelkanthThe improper integral $\int_{0}^{x}y^{-1/2}dy$ is $1.$ Continuous on $[0,\infty).$ $2.$ Continuous on $(0,\infty).$ $3.$ Continuous only on $[1/2,\infty)$ It is cleat that option $3$rd is wrong one. I am confused about $1$st and $2$nd option. I tried it as $$\int_{0}^{x}y^{-1/2}dy=2\sqrt{x}$...

How it is continuous at $0$?
in the negative real axis. the function doesn't exist in real.
 
@anakhro so what's ur specialty?
/ area of interest
 
@StanShunpike I like contact and symplectic geometry.
But I am pretty newbie.
I am a masters student, though, if that indicates any level of expertise to you.
 
i still don't understand what symplectic geometry is
mainly because
i still haven't grasped the wedge product
 
Well it's differential geometry, but with a tool for measuring area.
 
2:06 AM
cuz i thought i needed the tensor product for that
OHH
really?
wait how is rimenanian geometry different then?
 
Oversimplified, but basically.
Riemannian geometry measures angles.
Like an inner product space.
 
angles/distances are to Riemannian, as areas/volumes are to symplectic.
 
so why does this topic come up in relation to hamiltonians?
in physics
 
The area/volume idea I highlight is not so impressive with respect to its origins in Hamiltonian mechanics AFAIK.
Do you know anything about Hamiltonian mechanics?
Like the main thing to keep in mind is you want to determine the dynamics from the Hamiltonian (a function on your phase space).
 
2:15 AM
From what i've read
and i don't understand a ton, symplectic geometry is one of the benefits of using hamiltonians vs lagrangians
i have done some simple problesm with hamiltonians in classical mechanics and a few standard ones for quantum
but not a lot of experience beyond that
 
I am not very good at physics, but as far as I know, the benefits of using the Hamiltonian vs. the Lagrangian is based on the symmetries you know about your problem.
Physics effectively is about solving physical problems using symmetries (analogously, math is about studying symmetries, despite no apparent application to physical problems).
So some symmetries are easier to take advantage of when dealing with $H = K + U$ and some are easier to take advantage of when dealing with $L = K - U$.
@StanShunpike the main point is you want to take a Hamiltonian $H$ to a vector field $v$ whose dynamics (the flow lines of $v$) describe the dynamics/physics of your Hamiltonian.
Does that sort of make sense?
 
 
6 hours later…
8:40 AM
I'm having a tough time with improper integrals, I own a copy of Spivak's calculus but he only dedicates a couple of exercises to them.
Is there a textbook that deals with them more comprehensively?
 
8:57 AM
For instance, I see people using tests that I'd use for infinite series, like Abel's or Dirichlet's tests for these improper integrals. I understand it makes sense due to the definition of the integral, but I've never done this myself and I need practice which Spivak doesn't provide.
 
9:27 AM
Does anyone have a reference for how to do the Lucas Probable Prime test? I find the wikipedia page hard to follow en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
 
9:38 AM
This might be a noob-ish question, but I'm trying to understand the following statement: In general, if $q=p^{m}$ where $p$ is prime and $m \geq 2$, the element $p$ would not have a multiplicative inverse, since there exists no $b$ such that $b \times p = 1 mod p^{m}$.
I guess that since multiplying a prime by any number other than 1 means it is no longer prime, that I find it hard to understand why you couldn't get $1$ when modulo'ing the result by $p^{m}$ ...
 
9:59 AM
$bp\equiv1\pmod p^m$ means that there exists some integer $k$ such that $bp=1+kp^m$
Now reduce both sides of that mod $p$
@Micrified
(As a concrete example: what are the multiples of $3\pmod9$?)
 
Let $G$ be a solvable, non-nilpotent group of order $p^2qr$, where $p,q,r$ are distinct primes, and let $F$ be a Fitting subgroup of $G$. Then $F$ and $G/F$ are both non-trivial and $G/F$ acts faithfully on $\bar{F}:=F/\phi(F)$ so that no non-trivial normal subgroup of $G/F$ stabilizes a series through $\bar{F}$.

Can someone please help me to understand how to write the group $G$ using notations , when $|F|=pr$? Is it correct if I say $G \cong (C_p \times C_r) \rtimes (C_p \times C_q)$ or $G \cong C_{pr} \rtimes (C_p \times C_q)$ ?
 
10:23 AM
@AkivaWeinberger If I reduce both sides mod p, I get 0 = 1?
 
10:36 AM
hi all
 
10:48 AM
I got a silly question, if I have two continuous functions defined on open sets, so that they agree on the intersection I can glue them together to get another continuous function
I can do the same thing if htey are defined on closed sets and agree on the intersection
The first property is something I would call "continuous is a local property", or just the "sheaf property"
what would be a name for the second property?
(as an example, differentiability satisfies the sheaf property, but not the second one)
 
Sometimes I hear that some integrals don't have an analytic solution (also don't know a precise definition of this). But really, how they prove it, what's the procedure?
 
11:14 AM
6
Q: Is $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ only prime for $n=23$?

MathphileI searched for primes of the form of $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$, where $n \in \Bbb{N}$, for a range of $n \le 10^4$ on PARI/GP and found $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ is only prime for $n=23$. My PARI code: for(n=1, 10^4, if(ispseudoprime(floor(-bernfrac(2*n)/(2*n)))==1, print([2*n-1, floor(-be...

any thoughts?
 
@Micrified Exactly. So what does that mean?
 
@AkivaWeinberger It means there is no such integer k?
I guess that proves it.
Thanks :)
 
11:48 AM
@ÉricoMeloSilva the bathroom in the dorm we're staying in is absolutely gross
there's a massive fruit fly infestation
 
eeew
 
fruits sound tasty
 
+ flies?
 
12:15 PM
how do we check if the following sum converges
$$\sum_{n=9}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\ln \left( \frac{-B_{2n}}{2n} \right)}$$
$B$ is the Bernoulli number
 
12:27 PM
$B_{2n}$ alternates in sign, so every second term is undefined
 
what about $$\sum_{n=9}^{\infty} \frac {1}{\ln \left( \vert \frac{-B_{2n}}{2n} \vert \right)}$$
@Thorgott
 
12:43 PM
Diverges according to WA.
 
WA wouldn't accept my query
 
Yeah, I don't know whether WA handles Bernoulli numbers, but you can use asymptotics.
 
can you send a link @Thorgott
or the query you used on WA
 
thank you @Thorgott
@Thorgott could you take a look at this question?
2 hours ago, by Mathphile
6
Q: Is $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ only prime for $n=23$?

MathphileI searched for primes of the form of $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$, where $n \in \Bbb{N}$, for a range of $n \le 10^4$ on PARI/GP and found $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ is only prime for $n=23$. My PARI code: for(n=1, 10^4, if(ispseudoprime(floor(-bernfrac(2*n)/(2*n)))==1, print([2*n-1, floor(-be...

 
1:03 PM
I have no clue nor do I see a reason to suspect there is a feasible answer.
 
okay
thanks for having a look
 
1:40 PM
user image
7
 
1:53 PM
chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/50635939#50635939 I meant elementary but not analytic, I guess.
I found this: math.stackexchange.com/a/1625620 It says differential Galois theory
 
2:29 PM
@AbdullahUYU Yeah, "analytic" is not the right word.
A function is elementary if it can be written as a combination of +, -, x, /, exponentiation, logarithms, and trig
 
@AkivaWeinberger we also say "this equation cannot be solved analytically"
 
3:21 PM
Yeah but that would include weird things like Gamma and Bessel functions, no?
 
4 hours ago, by Mathphile
6
Q: Is $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ only prime for $n=23$?

MathphileI searched for primes of the form of $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$, where $n \in \Bbb{N}$, for a range of $n \le 10^4$ on PARI/GP and found $\lfloor \zeta(-n) \rfloor$ is only prime for $n=23$. My PARI code: for(n=1, 10^4, if(ispseudoprime(floor(-bernfrac(2*n)/(2*n)))==1, print([2*n-1, floor(-be...

I have no idea how questions of this category can be answered without brute forcing all integers
 
4:01 PM
>Don't take these axioms too seriously! Math is not about axioms, despite what some people say. Axioms are one way to think precisely, but they are not the only way, and they are certainly not always the best way. Also, there are a number of ways to phrase these axioms, and different books will do this differently, but they are all equivalent (unless the book author was really sloppy).
There’s two parts of that claim, one of which is rather uncontroversial: not every author defined vector spaces in the same ways, so being too wedded to a particular set of vector space axioms isn’t productive.
 
I was gonna say something but then I realized "taking these axioms too seriously" probably meant something different than what I was thinking
 
Well, that’s what I wonder
 
They probably mean, don't write proofs super-formally
 
The narrow meaning I gave—different axioms can define the same object—is easy enough to accept
But he seems to be asserting something stronger that that
Thought it was interesting to see that attitude anyways
Especially since, judging from the html, that’s a Terry Tao page
 
Does Tao teach?
 
4:09 PM
What is the alternate to an axiomatic system in defining a mathematical system?
Even categories and HoTT follow the axioms of categories and functors
 
@AkivaWeinberger think do, yeah
 
By the way
You know how "micron" means "small" and "mega" means "big"
and how there are two letters in the Greek alphabet that make the /o/ sound
Οο, Ωω
 
@Secret I think it’s a matter of mathematical practice. Ie, do you prove stuff by manipulating at the axioms until you get what you want
 
that's why the plural of omega is omegala
megas has irregular declination
 
It's what now
I mean I guess I don't even know how to pluralize Greek words when they're regular
 
4:13 PM
I should rather say the pedantic plural of omega is omegala
 
Or do you allow yourself more mental freedom, eg intuition etc
There are certainly areas of math where thinking about axioms alone is the right approach
 
@MatheinBoulomenos That's kinda like saying more than one aleph is alephim
 
But I don’t think it’s always the right approach. If I’m trying to think of a good algorithm to solve a problem, for instance, I don’t think axioms will help you much
 
@AkivaWeinberger d'accord
there exist some Hebrew plurals like seraphim, so why not with aleph?
 
We are the alphema and the omegala
 
4:18 PM
Japanese doesn't have plurals, so one katana, two katana?
(red katana blue katana)
 
Red—damn
 
Or tsunami
 
I see, I often use intuition in geometric problems and some algebraic problems, and axioms when I need to prove something from first principles
 
You english speakers have superplurals!
I wonder if there are other languages with superplurals
like "peoples"
 
@AkivaWeinberger one sushi, two sushi, so why not?
 
4:20 PM
Hm
Sheep is borrowed from Japanese confirmed
 
Bir adam, iki adamlar
Turkish plural!
 
I had an awkward, Google translate-mediated conversation with some Russian speakers earlier
trying to figure out how to get to the train station
 
English sometimes borrows plurals from Latin or Greek and very rarely Hebrew. German even borrows some complete declinations for all cases from Latin (e.g. for Jesus, which itself has irregular declination, being the latinized version of the hellenized version of a Hebrew name)
 
(they were)
I've definitely heard both "siddurim" and "siddurs"
but that's within a community of people who know (at least some) Hebrew
 
I asked this earlier: do you guys have a suggestion for a textbook which goes into detail about the convergence (or divergence) of improper integrals?
 
4:27 PM
I'd say seraphim and cherubim are established even among the Hebrew-ignorant
 
or maybe a link
 
I don't, but I'm pretty sure a lot of the rules from series carry over
like, the comparison rule
 
I saw people using the tests from the series
and I'm familiar with those
but how do you use them when the integral is improper in the sense that the integrand is unbounded?
I see people use Abel's and Dirichlet's tests
 
With something like $\int_0^1\frac1{x^p}dx$, you can find an antiderivative
 
but I need some guided practice
 
4:30 PM
(I think it converges for $p<1$?)
and then you can compare other things to those
 
I don’t think merely being unbounded is enough to ensure divergence
 
yes it does converge for p<1
@Semiclassical It doesn't
the problem is: I'm having a tough time with the comparison test
 
You can prove a version of Dirichlet's test using integration by parts
 
I'll show you the integral that's giving me nightmares:
1 moment
$$\int_1^2 \frac{\sqrt{x-1}}{\abs{\sin(1-x)} \tan(2-x)} dx$$
I turned it into an integral whose limits are 0 and 1
and tried to find a smaller [bigger] function that is divergent [convergent]
but I failed to find one that is also easy to integrate
 
If you want to talk about the version with endpoints at 0,1 then you should probably write it out so we can reference it
 
4:37 PM
So, maybe I need to learn about how to apply the tests for the series
 
Also, where are the absolute value bars supposed to be?
 
@Semiclassical ok
 
My first instinct is to graph it
My second instinct is to replace $\sin x$ with $\frac{\sin x}x\cdot x$
 
yes, I don't remember command for the absolute value
 
There isn’t one
 
4:39 PM
||
 
Just use |
 
ah, just | |?
ok
 
because $\frac{\sin x}x$ is a bounded function that avoids zero for small $x$, and $x$ is a pretty simple function
 
My instinct is to look at where the denominator vanishes
 
Similarly for tan
 
4:40 PM
Which I think is a bit less trivial than it may seem
 
$$\int_0^1 \frac {\sqrt(x)}{\sin x \tan(1-x)} dx$$
 
You’re looking at tan(x) on the range 0 to 1
 
There's a neat notation you can use: $\operatorname{sinc}(x):=\sin(x)/x$
(No good LaTeX code for it)
 
@AkivaWeinberger people occasionally mean sin(pi x)/(pi x) when they write that, lol
 
Hm true
 
4:42 PM
@Simone still need the absolute value bars. Do you see why? (And where?)
 
@Semiclassical I don't think they're needed
 
In any case: $\displaystyle\int_0^1\frac{\sqrt x}{x(1-x)}\frac1{\sin x/x}\frac1{\tan(1-x)/(1-x)}dx$
Note that, for $0\le x\le1$, $0<\sin x/x\le1$
(In fact, $\sin 1\le\sin x/x\le1$)
The point is, there exist positive numbers $C_1$ and $C_2$ (which I can compute later if I want) such that
 
@Simone Yeah, ignore that
Silly mistake on my part
 
@Semiclassical ;P
np
 
$0<C_1\le(\frac{\sin x}x)(\frac{\tan(1-x)}{1-x})\le C_2$
 
4:45 PM
Tho in that case it’s mysterious why they’d include them, other than scaring students
 
for $0\le x\le1$
 
@AkivaWeinberger great, so we're trying with the comparison test
 
Yeah, we're comparing it with $\frac1{C_2}\int_0^1\frac{\sqrt x}{x(1-x)}dx$
and we can ignore the $C_2$ because it doesn't affect convergence
 
clearly
 
Hm
Graphing that
 
4:49 PM
It behaves like 1/(1-x) near x=1
So rip
 
Oh, yeah, $\int\text{your thing}>\frac1{C_1}\int_0^1\frac{\sqrt x}{(1-x)}dx>\frac1{C_1}D_1\int_0^1\frac1{1-x}dx$
where $D_1$ is the minimum value of $\frac{\sqrt x}x$ over $[0,1]$
…which is $1$, actually
Whatever, ignoring the constants
the point is
 
Main point is that the numerator only affects the divergence on the left endpoint, not on the right endpoint
 
$\dfrac{\sqrt{x-1}}{\sin(1-x)\tan(2-x)}$ behaves like $\dfrac{C}{C(2-x)}$ near $x=2$
and that kills your thing
(This is the original integral, not the shifted one)
 
so since $\int_0^1 \frac {1}{1-x} dx$ diverges then so does $\int \text{my thing} dx$
 
In fact, if we saw this at the start we could have done it much quicker:
$\dfrac{\sqrt{x-1}}{\sin(1-x)\tan(2-x)}=\dfrac{\sqrt{x-1}}{\sin(1-x)\frac{\tan(2-x)}{2-x}}\dfrac1{2-x}$
${}=[\text{positive thing}](x)\dfrac1{2-x}$
It's not bounded near 1, hence the edits
 
4:57 PM
by bounded thing you mean any bounded positive function
 
I think what I meant to say was
 
It is bounded below tho
 
it's bounded below by some positive number
It's bigger than $C$ for some $C>0$
 
Also, this is where you need to use absolute values or just write |sin(1-x)|=sin(x-1)
 

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