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5:01 PM
was he right?
 
idk lmao
@ryan u dont know any math
 
no argument here
I paid 11 million to get into Princeton
it's actually not so bad...Dr Dre paid 70 for his daughter to get into USC
 
rofl
my argument was more along the lines of geometric analysis doesn't count as math but that works
 
you're telling me? I go to conferences and make ppl depressed because I tell everyone we should be doing number theory
at Yau's bday I was working on a project with someone and we ended up trying to figure out what Hilbert schemes are
black holes are obviously more interesting
 
hahah
 
5:04 PM
but that means we're just brainlets probably
 
@RyanUnger Really? I don't know understand. What's the point in spending that much. She can get educated at a lot less if she wants. Is it just for label?
 
He didn't pay 70 million "for her." He made a 70 million donation some years ago
and then she got into USC recently
Clearly that had nothing to do with it...
 
clearly
 
lol
 
We can give him the benefit of the doubt, he made a funny twitter post about it
he posted some picture of her saying she got in all by herself
then someone reminded him of the donation
I have to believe that he's not completely stupid and didn't himself think it had anything to do with it
Or at least there was no explicit arrangement
BUT ofc having Dr Dre's daughter is a boon for the school anyway
look the point is that 11 wasnt that much
 
5:07 PM
defensive mode
 
all I have to do is show up to womens volleyball once a month and sit on the bench
 
I mean out of all the things she could do with that money she choose to study with that. Hmm
 
@BalarkaSen in keeping with the tradition of not knowing any math
do you know if anyone has studied manifolds which are not locally $B^n$, but are locally $B^n\times(0,1]$?
this might be too strange for anyone to have looked at (any topologists, anyhow)
 
It can't be everywhere locally $B^n \times [0, 1)$, because take any interior point in such a chart, and take a ball
 
Ok my question was phrased poorly. Such a space is not a manifold.
Take "manifold" and replace $B^n$ by $B^n\times(0,1]$
You get things with "partial boundary"
 
user131753
5:14 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti: I think I have figured out an algebraic proof of the problem about which I was talking to you earlier. Are you interested in hearing?
 
Not really, to be honest you're using a pretty bad definition for homology that hides all the geometric intuition
 
@RyanUnger I don't understand. If you allow locally $B^n$ or $B^n \times [0, 1)$ you have a manifold with boundary. You mean every point has a nbhd which is homeomorphic to $B^n \times [0, 1)$? That cannot happen, take any point $x$ and a $U$ around it such that $U \cong B^n \times [0, 1)$ then take $(0, 1/2) \in B^n \times [0, 1)$ and a nbhd $V$ around it which does not intersect $B^n \times \{0\}$ and pull it back to get a nbhd in your original space back again which is homeomorphic to $B^n$
 
user131753
@AlessandroCodenotti Unfortunately it is what we were taught.
 
No point in that nbhd has a nbhd homeomorphic to $B^n \times [0, 1)$...
 
@BalarkaSen Just $B^n\times[0,1)$.
 
5:16 PM
I know, I'm just saying there are much more intuitive approaches in my opinion
 
What do you mean it can't happen?
 
There is no such space
 
Except for, say, $B^n\times(0,1]$ itself.
I don't see the objection
 
Oh, you mean it has an atlas of $B^n \times [0, 1)$'s
 
I want $M$ to be a separable Hausdorff space such that each $x\in M$ has a nbhd homeo to $B^n\times(0,1]$
 
5:18 PM
That's always a manifold with boundary though isn't it
 
No, because the ball $B$ is open
 
Is it? I think $B^n\times\Bbb R$ is also such a space
 
you can get things where the boundary just "ends"
i.e. has a boundary itself
 
Oh maybe ok
 
like take the upper half space
 
user131753
5:19 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Are they also fully rigorous? Honestly I really have a hard time having any geometric intuition.
 
and delte the part of the boundary $x^n>0$
 
So you can delete submanifolds from $\partial M$ in a manifold with boundary $M$
Ya I dunno too weird
 
@user170039 They can be fully rigorous depending on the presentation. Hatcher has a good balance of intuition and rigor
 
user131753
For example, I didn't found Hatcher fully rigorous @AlessandroCodenotti.
2
 
Basically yeah. Now if that's the only thing that can happen, I'd be glad
 
5:21 PM
Tammo Tom Dieck's algebraic topology book is fully rigorous, but I wouldn't really suggest it to get any geometric intuition
 
The estimates I'm working on seem to naturally want this structure. But it'd be easier to say take manifold with boundary and delete part of the boundary
 
Well well well we've got some nerds
 
Hey @Daminark
 
How's everything going?
 
Good, just tired
I have to fix my sleep schedule
woke up at 8 in the evening
 
5:25 PM
Yeah that happened to me last week, things were getting bad. Today I went to bed at 3AM and woke up at 7ish so I might take a short nap at some point but hopefully I'll be in line for now to mostly get to sleep by 3AM
If that happens that'd be pretty nice
 
I always get off on a bad schedule when the summer semester rolls around
 
Good luck man I need to do smth like that as well
 
The convergent sequence of convergent sequences is Cauchy (convergent sequence in arbitrary metric space is Cauchy). Hence,

$\forall \epsilon>0$ ,$\exists k\in \mathbb{N}$, such that $\sup_{n}|x_n^p-x_n^q| < \epsilon/2$, whenever $p, q \geq k$

Again, $(x_n^p)_n$ and $(x_n^q)_n$ being convergent, $\forall \epsilon>0$ we can find $k_p, k_q$ $\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|x_n^p-l_p|< \epsilon/4, \forall n \geq k_p $ and $|x_n^q-l_q|< \epsilon/4, \forall n \geq k_q $


Therefore,

$|-|x_n^p-x_n^q|+|l_q-l_p||\leq|x_n^p-x_n^q-l_p+l_q| < \epsilon/2 \implies |l_p-l_q|<\epsilon$ $\forall p,q \geq
 
Excellent, that's precisely what you need
 
@BalarkaSen , is this correct?
my argument seems like it is going to become circular
 
5:31 PM
people complain about Hatcher but where is the actual issue
I haven't read it closely enough
 
It looks good. This is a key trick in analysis, you get some estimate assuming some bound on $n$ but then by triangle inequality you eliminate $n$ from the scene altogather
There is no $n$ in "$|l_p - l_q| < \epsilon$"
 
@BalarkaSen that's what I am aiming for
kick the $n$ out
 
Well, yes, now you're done if you combine this with your previous result
 
So, finally we have an $l= \lim l_n$
DO NOT ANSWER YET
 
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3233248/functional-data-analysis-how-to-find-the-error-term

Can anyone help me with that question?
 
5:51 PM
After getting such an $l$, $\forall \epsilon>0$, we can find one $\delta$ such that $|l-l_n|<\epsilon$, whenever $ n \geq \delta$. Choose any $m_0 \geq \max \{k, \delta \}$ [$k$ is from the main proof, that depends on $m$ only].

We get a corresponding $k(m_0)$.

Now, finally, $\forall \epsilon>0$, $\exists k(m_0)= \lambda$ such that $|a_n - l|< \epsilon$ whenever $n \geq \lambda$
@bala
@BalarkaSen
 
$2\epsilon$, I think, but it doesn't matter
Good job
 
@BalarkaSen ahh... here we go again
I just want to bash my head against the keyboard rn
@BalarkaSen took me almost 5-6 hours of thinking all in all
see any improvement?
 
@SubhasisBiswas Alternatively, once you've proven $\{l_m\}$ converges to $l$, you can note that $|a_n - l| < |a_n - a_n^m| + |a_n^m - l_m| + |l_m - l|$. For all $m \geq k$, $|a_n - a_n^m| < \epsilon/3$, for all $n \geq k^*(m)$, $|a_n^m - l_m| < \epsilon/3$ and for all $m \geq M$, $|l_m - l| < \epsilon/3$. Combine to get for all $m \geq \max\{M, k\}, n \geq k^*(m)$, $|a_n - l| < \epsilon$. Fix an $m_0 \geq \max\{M, k\}$ once and for all, and let $N = k^*(m_0)$.
Then for all $n \geq N$, $|a_n - l| < \epsilon$.
 
Yes, that's what I need to do at the very beginning at the proof. Make a suitable choice of $\epsilon$
that will do it.
we can shrink $\epsilon$ at our will. So, $2\epsilon$ shouldn't really matter
 
The point I made is not about $2\epsilon$; that's fine - that's what you get by combining your initial result about $|a_n - l_m|$
This is a different way to argue that $a_n$ converges to $l$
Try drawing a picture of this scenario; think of $a^m_n$ as a double sequence arranged in a grid maybe. Each row converges, each column converges uniformly.
@SubhasisBiswas Anyway, great work. This is good, you should keep doing problems like this. Pick up Rudin and go through the problems.
My follow up to this problem would be to show that the space of bounded real sequences with the sup metric is complete (every Cauchy sequence converges). You can think about that later
 
6:06 PM
well, this question is very ridiculous
how long these types of problems used to take to get solved by you?
2-3 minutes?
 
Balarka is one of the smartest ppl alive, don't measure yourself against him
 
I struggle a lot in analysis.
 
well, it definitely took some practise though
 
@RyanUnger why are you dunking on me
dont you have estimates to do
sobolev spaces to embed?
 
I'm not, you're one of the pepople whose existence makes me question why I do math
 
6:09 PM
he might be the smartest in this room. (perhaps he's in the wrong room)
 
@BalarkaSen I have a really hard Sobolev embedding problem you should do
compute the best constant in the MS sobolev inequality explicitly cuhkmath.wordpress.com/2012/11/09/…
in particular, is it related to a flow?
the best constant is conjectured
and one can prove it with 2x the best constant
even doing it for surfaces in 3D might be new
 
Huh
Also lol at "cuhkmath"
 
The logical thing is to min/max a ratio
But the space involved is too large so there's no compactness
The next best thing is to gradient flow the ratio
But you get something awful IIRC
and it's not obviously related to any well-studied flows
see the appendix there
I think the difficulty is related to the fact that there's no flow "associated" to the isoperimetric problem
 
I am vaguely reminded of the fact that there's some length-minimizing flow proof of the isoperimetric inequality (on the plane with embedded curves, I'm a mortal)
Irrelevant maybe
 
No that's right
It doesn't work in higher dimensions for a simple reason
If you take a simple closed smooth curve in the plane and flow it by curve shortening flow, the area enclosed has derivative exactly $-2\pi$
In higher dimensions the volume enclosed does shrink but the formula is $$\frac{d}{dt}\mathrm{vol}=-\int H^2\,d\mu$$
people have leveraged this to kind of prove the isoperimetric inequality with mean curvature flow
I think you need some restrictions though, maybe star-shaped or even convex
 
6:21 PM
That's very interesting.
 
yeah but not math sadly
basically stamp collecting :/
 
Lmao
 
Actually in 3D I think you can prove it for star-shaped guys by using Claus Gerhard's result and the monotonicity of the Hawking mass
Maybe in general using Huisken-Ilmanen
But that's so incredibly overkill
but it lets you prove isoperimetric inequalities in asymptotically flat 3-manifolds
@BalarkaSen Some people are very close to proving Alexander's theorem (about smooth $S^2\subset S^3$) using mean curvature flow.
 
I only "know" the Fourier analytic proof of the isoperimetric inequality on the plane to be honest; it's a corollary of the fact that if $f$ is $C^1$, $\int_0^{2\pi} f = 0$, then $\|f\| \leq \|f'\|$.
 
The full proof uses GMT
 
6:30 PM
@RyanUnger That's cool
Oh I mean for $C^1$ curves let's say
 
Oh sure I mean in n dimensions
Even for C^1 surfaces in R^n you need GMT I think
 
Ah gotcha OK
 
There might be some very classical proof that I don't know about
There's a proof in Federer
 
Oof
 
I haven't even looked at it haha
@BalarkaSen You also need the Poincare inequality right
for periodic functions
I think they call it the Wirtinger inequality
 
6:33 PM
I think this is it, in the $C^1$ context?
 
Hmm yeah. Maybe you need a constant tho
Oh you're doing on 0, 2\pi nvm
 
ya
These are the kind of things Sobolev embeddings are about, right? But for bad Sobolev-regular functions with norms all over the place in different spaces
$C\|f\|_{bad} \leq \|\nabla f\|_{bad} + (bad)$
 
Sobolev inequalities really have two parts...on the one hand they tell you neat things like you can estimate some L^p norm of a smooth function by L^q norms of itself and the gradient
But it also tells you about continuous embeddings of certain nasty function spaces
 
I see
 
in practice you always work with smooth functions
and then you get some inequality like you wrote
but since smooth functions are dense
 
6:36 PM
Yup
 
it extends to the whole function space
now where things get really interesting is when you work with spaces where smooth functions are not dense
if $M^m$ and $N^n$ are smooth Riemannian manifolds, then the closure of smooth maps wrt the $W^{1,p}$ norm ($p<m$) depends on the homotopy type of $N$
the usual example being $W^{1,2}(D^3,S^2)$
 
Dumb question: What's a good proof that $C^\infty$ is dense in $L^2$? Approximate any $f \in L^2$ by continuous functions outside of an open set of arbitrary small measure by Luzin, this is also $L^2$-convergence, then approximate by a $C^\infty$-functions by Bolzano-Weierstrass?
@RyanUnger Oh, weird
 
The way you prove it is via convolution
Oh $L^2$
Yeah use Lusin first to do continuous
then convolve
 
Gotchu
Thanks
 
the proof for Sobolev spaces is tricky
it's the first place in analysis where partitions of unity are really crucial
 
6:43 PM
really? in what sense
 
I mean if you take an analysis sequence from a PDE person, they'll introduce partitions of unity right before doing that proof
the argument is actually subtle
historically it wasn't done until the 60s
for L^p approximation it isn't so bad because you can really just ignore what's very close to the boundary
this is evidenced by the fact that actually $C^\infty_c(\Omega)$ is dense in $L^p(\Omega)$
 
Ah I see. This is not true in the Sobolev context?
 
but the closure of $C_c^\infty(\Omega)$ in $W^{k,p}$ is almost literally never the full thing
it's a closed subspace called $W^{k,p}_0$
 
Strange
 
and there's a very nice theorem called the trace theorem that characterizes these functions as having "zero boundary value"
 
6:47 PM
Because of subtler control of decay that Sobolev norms give maybe
I see
 
you actually get a continuous map $W^{k,p}(\Omega)\to W^{k',p'}(\partial\Omega)$ whose kernel is exactly $W^{k,p}_0(\Omega)$
I don't remember what $k'$ and $p'$ are
 
Cool beans
 
and you need $\Omega$ to be $C^1$ for this, probably
Or at least Lipschitz
oh and that map is the extension of the restriction map for smooth functions
@BalarkaSen Sobolev norms are very strong. All Sobolev functiosn on the line are AC, for instance
This is a characterization of Sobolev functions...they are the ones that are AC on a.e. line segment
 
Yeah I see why that's true for $f \in L^1_1(\Bbb R)$... $f$ is a.e. the integral of it's weak derivative
 
actually it might not be true for p<1
but those spaces are beyond me
 
6:55 PM
I don't even know what L^p for p < 1 means man
but it's ok
I can pretend they don't exist
 
@BalarkaSen they're not even normed vector spaces
the triangle inequality has the wrong inequality
it goes backwards
 
Lmfao
 
it's because where convexity comes into the proof of the Minkowski inequality, you now have concavity
 
yeah makes sense
 
now there's a lot of work on the space with $k$ not an integer
which is of...questionable interest to mortals
I've not yet seen a concrete geometric application of the fractional theory
but apparently it's necessary to properly model elasticity
 
7:02 PM
lmao
is that what you used to do in your engineering days
 
nonlocal bois where u at
 
modelling elasticity using fractional Sobolev spaces
Hey @ÉricoMeloSilva
 
7:16 PM
@BalarkaSen no, I synthesized ceramics and damaged them
I've been told I have two publications from that
experimental papers are like...10 people a pop
 
project time is coming soon
 
if you just want to write papers, get into experimetal physics. those guys have decade-long data backlogs
 
in my SOs field of physics tons of papers come out w like 20+ authors
it's wild
 
oh yeah i have seen some o those
@RyanUnger it's ok i always have statistics as an option
 
so you write a paper, then you put your advisor, your undergrad helpers, the guy who runs the lab, the tech who helped you do the experiment, and maybe some other grad studentin your group who helped with the experiment. That's a 6 person paper already
 
7:20 PM
just get some data and try hard to get level of significance below the journal's preferred choice of it
 
don't get me wrong, the guys in my group were doing really interesting work
their new stuff seems to be related very fundamentally to open problems in multi-body QM
and they observed this experimentally
on samples I made
who knows if I did it correctly
(probably not)
 
lmao
 
@RyanUnger makes me wonder how long the acknowledgements section is
 
@Semiclassical yeah it gets even crazier when you have joint funding
so then there's three departments on a paper
 
7:24 PM
plus a national lab
then you have to thank the NSF, DOE, Trump, Obama, Putin, etc.
mother, father
 
my papers have all been theory and just collaborating with a few people
 
the number of names is directly correlated to the amount of money involved
 
"In 1991, the bilogists Bensimon and Mutz experimentally verified the Willmore conjecture with the aide of a microscope studying the physics of membranes." wot
 
did u just made that up
 
7:28 PM
no it's in the survey paper
 
that seems a rather...charitable interpretation of such an experiment
 
apparently they created membranes with Willmore energy close to 2\pi^2
and they looked like the Clifford torus
 
$\ln(1-x) = x+\dfrac{x^2}2+\dfrac{x^3}3+\dfrac{x^4}4+\dfrac{x^5}5+\cdots$
$\ln(1-i) = i-\dfrac12-\dfrac i3+\dfrac14+\dfrac i5+\cdots$
$\ln(1+i) = -i-\dfrac12+\dfrac i3+\dfrac14-\dfrac i5+\cdots$
$\ln(1-i)-\ln(1+i) = 2i-\dfrac{2i}3+\dfrac{2i}5+\cdots$
$\dfrac{\ln(1-i)-\ln(1+i)}{2i} = 1-\dfrac13+\dfrac15+\cdots$
 
@RyanUnger interestingly, the version of that paper found on Neves' website: wwwf.imperial.ac.uk/~aneves/papers/…
uses a bit weaker phrasing:
"In 1991, the biologists Bensimon and Mutz [47] (see also [41]), gave experimental evidence to the Willmore conjecture with the aide of a microscope while studying the physics of membranes"
 
hah!
I printed off the arXiv version
 
7:36 PM
the joy of preprints, lol
 
$\dfrac{\ln(1-i)-\ln(1+i)}{2i} = \dfrac{-\frac{i\pi}4-\frac{i\pi}4}{2i} = -\frac{\pi}4$
which is correct up to sign error lol
man those sign errors again
oh yeah it's $-\ln(1-x)$ at the very beginning
ok it's $\dfrac\pi4$ then
 
hi all!
 
 
2 hours later…
9:35 PM
help
im writing too many probability answers in main
its unhealthy for me
 
Hello friends
more practice exam question help, please
The first part of the problem is to find the first 3 picard iterations of this ODE, but it's defined piecewise and I'm not sure how to deal with that
$\dot x = \begin{cases} 2t - 2\sqrt x & ; & x \ge 0 \\ 2t & ; & x \le 0 \end{cases}$, initial condition $x(0) =0$
do I do two cases and compare them and hope theyre equal?
 
At what step does it become ambiguous? The zeroth and first steps seem fine.
 
right
at step 2 and 3
 
9:49 PM
lemme do both parts for step 2
We're assuming $t \ge 0$ in general in this class
okay for $x_2$ I get either
uhhh does the integrand become $0$ for $x \ge 0$?
that's weird
so I get $\begin{cases} 0 & : & x \ge 0 \\ \frac 2 3 t^3 & : & x \le 0 \end{cases}$
 
did I mess up
 
I dunno. That does seem goofy tho
 
isn't the integrand $(2s - 2\sqrt{s^2}) \, \mathrm ds$
for the first part of the definition
well let's try again
$x_3 = \begin{cases} t^2 - \frac 4 5 \sqrt{\frac 2 3} t^{5/2} \\ t^2 \end{cases}$
wait I messed up
the second option for the iteration is always going to be $t^2$ because it doesn't depend on $x$
so we want to see if the first part converges to $t^2$
which it doesn't
am I doing it right?
 
Not sure. On mobile right now so I can’t do much
 
10:02 PM
this question someone's working on on Piazza so I guess we'll see who answers it
 
The iteration is $x_{k+1}(t)=\int_0^t f(s,x_k(s))\,ds$, right
 
it's a cool site, allows for collaboration of all the students and the professor
with $x_{k+1}= x_0 + \displaystyle \int_{t_0}^t f(s,x_k(s))\, \mathrm ds$ with $x_0 = x(t_0)$
 
Where f(s,x) is that piecewise function and $x_0=0$
 
yes
 
So $x_1=\int_0^{t} 2s\,ds = t^2$
 
10:04 PM
second part of the problem is show that the equation admits a solution of the form $x = at^2$ for the right choice of $a$. Explain why the picard iteration does not converge to this solution
right, according to both halves
 
$x_2=\int_0^t f(s,s^2)\,ds$
 
$t^2$ is always going to be the second half
 
Right, $s^2\geq 0$, so $f(s,s^2)=2s-2s=0$
So $x_2=0$
Seems as if $x_k=0$ for even k and $t^2$ for odd k?
 
so the first half is always gonna give $(t^2, 0, t^2, 0, t^2, 0, \cdots)$ looks like
and the second half is $(t^2, t^2, t^2, \cdots)$
so the sequences dont have the same limit
 
Doesn’t really seem as if you ever need to look at the case $x\leq 0$ while iterating
 
10:09 PM
right but if you do it just once you immediately see the whole sequence so might as well
 
Hmm. Well, what about the second part?
 
okay, next part is to find the parameter of the solution $x = at^2$
first consider $a > 0$
 
In that case you’d never have negative x
 
then $a = 4$
wait that doesnt seem right
no it gives you a quadratic my bad
okay I get some number
root of a quadratic
meh I'm just gonna wait until someone else answer
 
10:35 PM
I'm afraid periodic systems are gonna trip me up
 
10:45 PM
@Semiclassical let me know if/when you want to help me tonight, I can use your help with this periodic system
would much be appreciated
 
11:09 PM
Is the Extreme Value Theorem, that guarantees that a continuous function defined on a closed interval attains a minimum and maximum value, valid for a continuous function on an open interval?
 
The answer is no, can you think of a counterexample?
Think of an EVT case where the min or max is on an endpoint
 
Right, $y=x$ on any closed interval, but couldn't one express the min and max as one-sided limits?
 
won't help you if the limits land you outside the interval
 
@GFauxPas Right, hehe.
 
is there any function that only generates semi primes?
guys?
 
11:17 PM
Probably not @Mathphile
 
i know that that there is no polynomial that generates only primes
but is this also true with semi primes?
 
Here's the thing with generating only primes and semiprimes
You can probably find a decent function that finds a lot of semiprimes in the first few terms but then it slowly decays in it's success rate until you're left with an average success rate
The implications would be huge if anyone found such a function that generated only semiprimes or only primes
 
oh well
 
Here's an Ultradark anecdote: I found a function that found only primes or semiprimes for the first 10 terms
 
i wonder if we can write a formal proof to show no polynomial exists
 
11:24 PM
then it dropped to 90% after the first 30 terms
then to 82% after 60 terms
 
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