« first day (3191 days earlier)      last day (1829 days later) » 
00:00 - 18:0018:00 - 00:00

12:02 AM
4
Q: Open Sets in the Wedge Sum and a Homeomorphism

user193319I am presently working through example 1.21 in Hatcher's book on wedge sums of topological spaces. He makes a few claims which I am having trouble verifying. First, let me set-up some notation. Let $\{X_i\}_{i \in I}$ be a collection of topological spaces. Then $\amalg_{i \in I} X_i := \cup_{i ...

 
 
1 hour later…
1:30 AM
Hi all, can anyone provide a hint as to solve the following: Suppose $f$ is a complex-valued harmonic function on a domain $D$. That is, both the real and imaginary part of $f$ are harmonic. Show that if $|f|$ is constant on $D$, then $f(z)$ is constant in $D$.
 
Seems like the maximum modulus theorem might sort you out?
 
Perhaps! We weren't introduced to the max-mod theorem for harmonic functions yet in lecture, so I am not sure if this was the intended method of proof.
I'm trying to brute force it using all of the assumptions but it gets awfully messy and I'm getting nowhere... So I shall try the max-mod theorem.
 
You don't need anything fancy. This follows from the Cauchy-Riemann equations quite easily.
Hi @Semiclassic
 
hi @ted
yeah, true
 
Did you type the wrong thing? Oh, $f$ is a complex-valued harmonic function. I missed that.
Yeah, this is a bit less obvious.
 
1:37 AM
for convenience, it's probably best to use $|f(z)|^2=f(z)\overline{f(z)} =u(z)^2+v(z)^2$
 
But all we know is that $u$ and $v$ are totally independent harmonic functions.
 
@TedShifrin, How can I use CR if f is not assumed to be holomorphic?
 
hmm, true
 
@Nicholas: I misread.
 
1:38 AM
that'll also kick my max-mod idea in the teeth
 
Yes, so the modulus squared is constant. So should I take derivatives?
I tried this and got nowhere. I'm probably not seeing the right trick
 
I was thinking that. So $\Delta(u^2) = 2(u\Delta u + \|\nabla u\|^2)$?
Than we get $\|\nabla u\|^2 + \|\nabla v\|^2 = 0$, which kills it.
 
Assuming I didn't do something stoooopid.
 
Upside-down triangle refers to $u_x + u_y$, yes?
 
1:42 AM
No, the gradient. $(u_x,u_y)$.
 
Gotcha. And your norm is simply dot product with itself? Thank you
 
Yup. Better check that I didn't do anything stooopid.
 
$norm squared**
 
Norm squared.
LOL.
 
Yes, I will lol
 
1:44 AM
And "than" = "then" :P
I guess you don't care about that.
 
Haha, as long as the math is clear, its all good 8)
 
OK, I'm leaving for dinner. Bye, all.
 
see ya, thanks for the help
 
 
3 hours later…
4:48 AM
Hello everyone...I have a naive question...and I.e. when is the sum of distances from two given points to a point on a given line minimum?? I thought it to be initially on the intersection of the given line and perpendicular bisector of the two given points...but it turns out that I was wrong. So, yh any help will be appreciated
 
5:05 AM
@Carrick sounds like the geometric median.
 
5:32 AM
@Carrick Let $A$ and $B$ be the two points, and let $\ell$ be the line. Let $C\in\ell$ be a sum-of-distances minimizer. The line $\ell$ is tangent to an ellipse with foci $A$ and $B$ at the point $C$, so the reflection property of ellipses holds. Thus, the angle $AC$ makes with $\ell$ (that doesn't contain the vertex angle of the triangle $ABC$ at $C$) is the same as the angle $BC$ makes with $\ell$. This characterizes $C$.
There has to be an elementary way to find the triangle $ABC$ with this information, but I do not see how to do it.
 
6:08 AM
@anakhro i don't think its geometric median..or even if it is...its a rather simple case
@KarlKronenfeld thank you for your time, I actually found the answer in my notes and its like this: we take the image of B about the given line(lets call it B'). So, obviously CB=CB' and then we know to minimize AC+CB, we can minimize AC+CB', which happens when A,C & B' are collinear.
 
once we move the function's domain to the unit disc we gain radial symmetry...
so again let $\phi = \phi(r)$, so $\nabla^2 \phi = \frac1r (r \phi')' = 0$ implies $\phi = C \log r + D$, and what do you know, $\log r$ vanishes on the unit circle
 
6:26 AM
@Carrick Ah, great.
 
$\dfrac{z-i}{-iz+1} = \dfrac{x+iy-i}{-i(x+iy)+1} = \dfrac{x+i(y-1)}{1+y-ix} = \dfrac{2x+[x^2+y^2-1]i}{(y+1)^2+x^2}$
so $G(x,y;0,1) = C \log \dfrac{4x^2 + (x^2+y^2-1)^2}{((y+1)^2+x^2)^2}$
$=C \log \dfrac{(x^2+1)^2 + 2y^2(x^2+1) + y^4 - 4y^2}{((y+1)^2+x^2)^2} = C\log \dfrac{(x^2+y^2+2y+1)(x^2+y^2-2y+1)}{((y+1)^2+x^2)^2} = C \log \dfrac{x^2+(y-1)^2}{x^2+(y+1)^2}$
omg @Semiclassical I derived your answer
well sort of
now $G(x,y;\xi,\eta) = G\left(\frac{x-\xi}\eta,\frac y\eta;0,1\right) = C \log \dfrac{(x-\xi)^2 + (y-\eta)^2}{(x-\xi)^2 + (y+\eta)^2}$
yes indeed it matches with your answer 100%
now to test what $C$ is, we use a test function $\varphi$ right
we want $\displaystyle \int_{\Bbb R \times (\Bbb R_{\ge0})} \varphi(\xi,\eta) \nabla^2 G(x,y;\xi,\eta) \ \mathrm d\xi \ \mathrm d\eta = \varphi(x,y)$ formally
using Green's identity $\displaystyle \int_M u \nabla^2 v - v \nabla^2 u = \int_{\partial M} uNv-vNu$
the LHS becomes $\displaystyle \int_{\Bbb H} G \nabla^2 \varphi + \int_{-\infty}^\infty \varphi(x,0) G_y(x,0;\xi,\eta) - \varphi_y(x,0) G(x,0;\xi,\eta) \ \mathrm dx$
since $G$ vanishes on the x-axis, the third term becomes zero
well $G_y = C \dfrac{2(y-\eta)}{(x-\xi)^2 + (y-\eta)^2} - C \dfrac{2(y+\eta)}{(x-\xi)^2 + (y+\eta)^2}$
if we let $\varphi = 1$ then $\nabla^2 \varphi = 0$, so the equation becomes
$\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty G_y(x,0;\xi,\eta) \ \mathrm d\xi = 1$
$2C \left[ \arctan\left(\dfrac{\xi-x}{-\eta}\right) - \arctan\left(\dfrac{\xi-x}{\eta}\right) \right]_{-\infty}^\infty = 1$
$2C\left[\left(-\dfrac\pi2 - \dfrac\pi2\right) - \left( \dfrac\pi2 + \dfrac\pi2 \right)\right] = 1$
$C = \dfrac{-1}{4\pi}$
so in conclusion, $G(x,y;\xi,\eta) = \dfrac1{4\pi} \log \dfrac{(x-\xi)^2 + (y+\eta)^2}{(x-\xi)^2 + (y-\eta)^2}$
 
7:41 AM
Hello, I have a (maybe stupid) question. Yesterday I started a bounty on this post, but today I can't find it in the tab of featured questions. Is this normal?
 
@TobiasKildetoft Hi Tobias
 
@Jacksoja Hi
 
@TobiasKildetoft I have a small question about linear algebra
 
in the book linear algebra done right, how can we view the elemnts of F^n
as functions from {1,2,..,n} to F
 
7:51 AM
same way we view them outside that book
An $n$-tuple of elements from the set $X$ is the same as a function from $\{1,2,\dots, n\}$ to $X$
 
I know ^^ my point is , shouldnt the map be from the set of intergerns up to n to F^n ?
 
no
because the elements are $n$-tuples of elements from the field, not from the space
 
but what is the map explictly ?
 
what map? Each elements corresponds to a map
 
because the way i see it, and what i dont understand , is that we do not get an element of a field
we do get a tuple
f : {1,2, ...,n } --> F
we send an n-tuple x in {1,2, ...,n } to what in F ?
 
7:54 AM
$\{1,2,\dots, n\}$ does not contain any tuples
it contains those $n$ numbers
The correspondence sends the $n$-tuple with $x$ at the $i$'th place to the function which sends $i$ to $x$
 
hmm can we do small example ?
like in R^4
 
So $(x_1,\dots, x_n)$ corresponds to the function $f(i) = x_i$
 
the idea that this is a function is not clear to me
 
So let's take the vector $(1,2,5,6)$
this corresponds to the function $f$ with $f(1) = 1$, $f(2) = 2$, $f(3) = 5$ and $f(4) = 6$.
 
okaaaaaaay
I see now thanks !
so this is the same way as we define maps from R--> R
 
7:58 AM
not sure what you mean
 
component wise addition and scalar multip
nothing too important but i get what you said
 
ahh, yes, when we make it a vector space
 
I did not think of defining the map f like that
now i see it clearer when you did it component at the time
 
anyway, I need to go shop some groceries now.
 
okay thanks again !
and good luck !
 
8:20 AM
Are these synonyms?

$$(d/dx) * x^2 = 2x$$
$$(x^2)' = 2x$$
Please, anyone?
 
8:43 AM
@SebastianAlexanderBNielsen yes they are , just different notation
 
I knew it, thanks for confirming
 
9:20 AM
Is there a term for a semigroup of order n which contains a sub-semigroup of order n-1?
For example, the multiplicative structure on a ring is a semigroup. If that ring is an integral domain, then the multiplicative structure on that ring excluding zero is also a semigroup, as I understand it.
 
yes, that is correct
 
So, I assume there's not exactly a name for this property?
 
I have never heard one, but I have never really studied semigroups explicitly
(I have actually studied multisemigroups more)
 
I've never heard of a multisemigroup. (Also, I'm discovering that it's difficult to find terminology if you don't know where to look.)
 
a multisemigroup is a structure $X$ with a map $m: X\times X\to \mathcal{P}(X)$
which is associative once you do the "obvious" extension of $m$ to subsets
 
9:31 AM
Hmmmm, that's interesting.
 
They show up when studying certain types of $2$-categories
and they give a nice way to phrase some properties of positively based algebras
 
Ah, category theory. I still want to get into that.
So, this map can never be bijective, so it only goes in one direction.
 
which map?
 
$m$, from your multisemigroup structure.
 
I suppose it might be possible for it to be bijective if the set is small enough (explicitly $2$ elements), but I have no idea of it could still be associative
 
9:37 AM
I'm used to studying objects with operations which have closure. So this sort of idea seems strange at a glance.
 
A way these show up is the following: Let $A$ be an algebra (say over the reals) with a basis $\{b_1,\dots, b_n\}$ such that whenever we write $b_ib_j = \sum_{k=1}^nc_{i,j}^kb_k$ then all $c_{i,j}^k\geq 0$
We now get a multisemigroup structure on $\{b_1,\dots, b_n\}$ by setting $m(b_i,b_j) = \{b_k\mid c_{i,j}^k > 0\}$
And we also get some partial preorders on that set in a way that works for any multisemigroup, by letting $b_i \geq_L b_j$ if $b_i\in m(b_k,b_j)$ for some $k$
(and extending transitively)
this then gives rise to "cells" consisting of elements that are comparable in both directions using this order, and an example of these are the "famous" Kazhdan-Lusztig cells
 
Heh, yes, those cells.
 
as I said "famous" (assuming you have studied Kazhdan-Lusztig theory of course)
 
This is a little bit out of my depth, I'm feeling. I feel like I'd want to play around with such an algebra to get a sense of how it works.
 
this was not how they were defined originally btw, since the relevant basis was not known to have the positivity property mentioned until fairly recently
There are some nice example: Take a group algebra with the usual basis
Or for that matter (a bit more interesting), a semigroup algebra
Or, for an example of the above KL stuff, take the group algebra for $S_3$ with the basis $1$, $s+1$, $t+1$ where $s$ and $t$ are the transpositions $(12)$ and $(23)$
Sorry, plus the elements $st + s + 1$, $ts + t + 1$ and $sts + st + ts + s + t + 1$
(I think I got those right)
One can also take $S_2$ with basis $1$ and $s+1$ to start smaller
 
9:48 AM
I'm only familiar with one operation on transpositions. This seems to be two operations.
Also, mixing a number with a transposition is new.
 
Ahh, I assume you are not familiar with group algebras then
that makes these examples a lot less of a good starting point.
 
I believe not. (I was expecting this would just be referring to groups)
 
no, we needed algebras, not just groups above.
 
Okay, then what is the definition of an algebra?
Looked up the definition on wikipedia. Now I need to look into bilinearity.
 
bilinearity is just the distributive law on each side
 
10:14 AM
@Rithaniel $(x,y)\mapsto xy$ is not a linear map from $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$
but it is bilinear
(If you hold one of the inputs constant the result is linear)
 
Ah, okay, that makes it easier to understand.
 
10:57 AM
In general, a multilinear map is a tensor
 
@Secret I hate the term "a tensor"
a multilinear map is a linear map from a tensor product with a suitable number of factors.
 
11:10 AM
hi @AkivaWeinberger
In light of this can we say that if restriction of homomorphism on $\Bbb Q[x]$ to $\Bbb Z[x]$ does not change the generator of principal ideal, right?
 
11:41 AM
I am trying to show that $\tilde{H}_n(X \coprod Y) \cong \tilde{H}_n(X) \oplus \tilde{H}_n(Y)$, where $\tilde{H}_n(\cdot)$ denotes the $n$-th reduced homology. By Mayer-Vietoris, I was able to show that $H_n(X \coprod Y) \cong H_n(X) \oplus H_n(Y)$, so for $n > 0$ I get the desired formula.
But when $n=0$, things get a little more complicated: $H_0(X \coprod Y) \cong H_0(X) \oplus H_0(Y)$ becomes $\tilde{H}_0(X \coprod Y) \oplus \Bbb{Z} \cong \tilde{H}_0(X) \oplus \tilde{H}_0(Y) \oplus \Bbb{Z}^2$
I don't see why $\tilde{H}_0(X \coprod Y) \cong \tilde{H}_0(X) \oplus \tilde{H}_0(Y)$ holds.
 
12:01 PM
@LeakyNun lol nice
I should point out, I guess, that my “guesswork” was a little more informed than it may have seemed
If you do classical electrodynamics, then you’ll calculate the electric field and potential of various charge distributions
And some of those cases correspond to the various free Greens functions
For instance, the potential of an infinite line charge, running along the z-axis, is proportional to log(x^2+y^2)
Away from the z-axis, this is a solution to the 3D Laplacian. But the solution isn’t a function of z, so if we restrict that solution to z=0 we get a solution to the 2D Laplacian
So that gives you the free 2D Greens function
The only extra ingredient needed is the so-called method of images
The idea being that, if you take $(\chi, \xi)$ to lie outside the domain
 
does anyone have an idea how to solve $x^2 dy= (x^2 +xy+y^2)dx $ ? (with y(1)=1 so y=0 not a solution)..
i thought maybe playing with $(x+y)^2$ but it didn't work..
 
Then you can add $G(x,y;\chi,\xi)$ to any solution of the 2D Laplacian, and it’ll still be a solution
@user123 the fact that both coefficients are homogeneous of degree 2 suggests a substation like $x=zy$
(You could instead do $y=zx$. Won’t make a particular difference)
 
12:17 PM
@Semiclassical nice.. thank you!
 
12:38 PM
@Semiclassical i get that $tan^{-1}(xy) = ln(|x| ) + C$ is a solution, ain't that problematic?
(i used $v = xy$ )
 
Maybe, but that approach seems basically flawed. The point of the substitution is to express the ODE in terms of y/x, not xy
Your substitution should have made the ODE worse, not better
 
1:23 PM
How does one show that $H_n(X \coprod Y, \{(x,1),(y,2)\}) \cong H_n(X \coprod Y)$, where $x \in X$ and $y \in Y$?
I guess the LHS could also be written as $H_n(X \coprod Y, \{x\} \coprod \{y\})$...not sure if that's helpful.
Perhaps representing the disjoint union as cartesian product might help...
 
1:47 PM
2
Q: Is the set of elementary functions which do not have elementary integrals bigger than set of elementary functions which have elementary integrals?

MathphileIt increasingly seems to me that the functions that have elementary integrals are quite rare in comparison to the ones that don't have them. Even raising an elementary function to a different power may result in it not having an elementary integral. Ex. $(\arctan (x))^{1/2}$ Also many seemingly...

Any ideas?
 
2:09 PM
@Mathphile reminds me a bit of this old question of mine: math.stackexchange.com/q/1017447/137524
 
Hi all!
I got some equation: $$\begin{pmatrix}0 & a & b \\\ -a & 0 & c \\\ -b & -c & 0\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} t_x \\ t_y \\ t_z \end{pmatrix}$$
say $$A x = t$$
 
with $A$ being skew-symmetric
 
Since $\det(A)=0$
I know there is no unique solution. I think its a "line" of points.
What I want is some $A'=V^T A V$ such that $A'$ gets 2x2 (possibly symmetric?)?
Is this possible or am I dreaming?
 
the starting point should presumably be to note that $x=(c,b,-a)^\top \implies Ax=0$
 
I mean something like $$ A'=\begin{pmatrix}0 & 0 & 0 \\\ 0 & q & r \\\ 0 & r & s\end{pmatrix} $$?
@Semiclassical I know that thats e..g. a cross product
of two columns divided by some coefficient
And now V shall rotate A such that x and that get parallel
just want a ... formula ...
 
2:17 PM
Let's proceed more abstractly. Let $v$ be the vector such that $Av=0$.
 
for simplicity, I'll take $v$ to be a unit vector
then the corresponding projection operator onto that direction is $P=vv^\top$
and the projector onto the orthogonal complement is $I-P=I-vv^\top$
 
Why to which?
 
2:19 PM
Suppose I write a given vector as the sum of a part which is in the direction of $v$ and one which is perpendicular to $v$
 
yes
OK
 
So $x=av+bu$ where $u^\top v=0$
 
I understood
 
then $Px = a v$ etc
 
resolution of the identity
 
2:20 PM
yeah
 
(like)
OK!
 
it's of a kind with that, yeah. resolution of identity says that the identity can be written as a sum of projection operators
anyways
 
So I have the two bits from that
 
Hoi @Rudi_Birnbaum !
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Hoi (sorry just leaning here)!
@Semiclassical pls conztinue
 
2:21 PM
:D
 
@Semiclassical from here
 
right. let me label that second projector as $P_\perp= I-vv^\top$
 
ok
I now what to do
3. binomial
?
yeah?
(I-v)(I+v)
 
well, following my nose, I'd note that by construction I've got the resolution of identity $I=P+P_\perp$. So I can write $Ax=AIx = A(P+P_\perp)x$
But $AP=0$ by virtue of $Av=0$
 
2:24 PM
so $Ax = AP_\perp x$
trying to remember what to do next. Should be obvious
 
we need a transpose I guess
 
well, we do know at this point that $P_\perp x$ lies in the orthogonal complement of $v$
 
But that doesn't seem to clarify matters as much as I'd like.
I guess, ideally, we're looking for a rotation which maps $v\to e_1$
 
yes something like that
 
2:32 PM
well. following my nose again: We should have vectors $v_0,v_+,v_-$ such that $Av_0=0,Av_+ = \lambda v_+,Av_- = - \lambda v_-$
 
yes makes sense
well no
$A v_0 = v_0$
 
No. That'd mean $A$ has 1 as eigenvalue
 
right ...
well cant we just diagonalize A ... by guessing?
I mean "diagonalize"
 
I'm more used to diagonalizing symmetric matrices
I think there's some subtleties for skew-symmetric
 
I try to diagoanlize anything that is not up in the trees upon counting to $n \times n$
 
2:38 PM
for instance: $v_+^\top A v_+ = v_+^\top A^\top v_+ =- v_+^\top A v_+ = \lambda v_+^\top v_+$
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg: whats the hight of a $pizza$?
 
which looks all sorts of bad, since the first and third terms imply that that expression should equal zero
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg $a$ since the whole is $\pi z^2 a$ ...
 
so one should have $Ax = t\implies \vec{t} = (-a,b,-c)\times \vec{x}$
 
@Semiclassical Oh wait ...
 
2:42 PM
@Rudi lol nice
@Rudi ich hab ein Stipendium bekommen!
 
Note that $\vec{t}$ must be perpendicular to $(-a,b,-c)$
and therefore should lie in the plane through the origin with normal $(-a,b,-c)$
 
@Semiclassical yes!
Very nice. So the equation corrsponds to an inversion of the corss product ...
But $V$ is still open ...
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Geil Mann! Glückwunsch!!
 
Well, I'd say $x\mapsto Ax$ corresponds to the cross product with $(-a,b,-c)$ (acting from the left)
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Wo was wie?
 
the example $(-a,b,-c)=(1,0,0)$ may clarify things
oh, blah, I didn't transcribe that right
 
2:50 PM
@Rudi danke :) Vom deutschen akademischen Austauschdienst
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Das ist gut!
 
$$\vec{a}=(a_1,a_2,a_3)\implies A=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & -a_3 & a_2 \\ a_3 & 0 & -a_1 \\ -a_2 & a_1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$$
 
Ja voll gut!
 
So that's $\vec{a}=(-c,b,-a)$
Anyways. Taking the example of $\vec{a}=(1,0,0)\implies (a,b,c)=(0,0,-1)$
and therefore $A=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & 1 & 0\end{pmatrix}$
In which case it's of the form you expected
$x\mapsto Ax = (0,-z,y)^\top$ has the following effect: We project $x=(x,y,z)^\top$ to the $yz$-plane, and then rotate it by 90 degrees around the z-axis
Not sure what else one can say there
 
Well some explicit form for $V$ such that $VAV^T$ has that form would be cool.
 
2:57 PM
Agreed.
 
given your $A$.
 
if you glance down to the section on spectral theory in the wiki link
 
Then I know how to transform my space such that I get a problem with a unique solution.
 
you are looking for an orthogonal transformation to get it of the desired form
one thing to note: By the nature of this mapping, you shouldn't expect to get real eigenvectors
 
a special unitary...
yes since antisymmetric matrices have imaginary ones ...
 
2:59 PM
your transformation is (basically) to do a 90 degree rotation of your vectors
 
really 90?
 
yeah. $(-c,b,-a)\times \vec{x}$ is perpendicular to both $(-c,b,-a)$ and $\vec{x}$
if you restrict $\vec{x}$ to the $(-c,b,-a)$ plane, that's just 90 degree rotation
(since then $\sin \theta=1$)
 
but we start with $e_\alpha$ ...
with the unit vectors in the original system
and we must rotate them onto $(c,-b,a)$
 
The upshot, I think, being that you look for perpendicular vectors $v_\pm$ such that $Av_+ = \lambda v_-$ and $Av_- = -\lambda v_+$
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg und wo gehts jetz hin??
 
3:04 PM
Heidelberg!
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Super!! Wann??
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Ich glaub da gibts auch ganz fesche Hasen ;-)
 
@Rudi :D Im Oktober faengt das Sommersemester an
err
Winter*
 
To be a bit more precise about this line of thinking: Note that, if such vectors exist, then $A^2 v_\pm = -\lambda^2 v_\pm $
 
But $A^2 = \left(
\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^2-b^2 & -b c & a c \\
-b c & -a^2-c^2 & -a b \\
a c & -a b & -b^2-c^2 \\
\end{array}
\right)$
which has determinant 0 and trace $-2a^2-2b^2-2c^2$
mathematica moreover says that the eigenvalues are just $0,-a^2-b^2-c^2,-a^2-b^2-c^2$
 
3:09 PM
degenerate
 
and that's pretty easy to believe. Note that $A^2+(a^2+b^2+c^2)I=\begin{pmatrix} c^2 & -b c & ac \\ -bc & b^2 & -ab \\ ac & -ab & a^2\end{pmatrix}$
 
and the eigenvectors there are pretty nice
the eigenvector for 0 is still just $(-c,b,a)$. the orthogonal complement is spanned by $(a,0,c)$ and $(b,c,0)$
Not totally happy with that yet tho
blah. eigenvector for 0 is $(-c,b,-a)$ and the orthogonal complement is spanned by $(a,0,-c),(b,-c,0)$
 
3:26 PM
am away for 1 h.
 
3:55 PM
Is there like an operator in mathematics that swaps the dimensions of a tensor?
For example, say I have the tensor $a \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times m \times h \times k}$. I would like to make $a$ like e.g. this: $a \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times k \times m \times h}$.
I think that, in theory, these are equivalent
However, I would like to know if there is a formalism (an operator) that does this
 
3
Q: Defining tensor transpose without representing them as matrices

FoadIn the comments of this post there was a discussion about why I hesitate to use the conventional tensor notation. There I briefly mentioned that I find it illogical and inconsistent. One of my main issues is the transpose of a tensor and what it entails. As far as I have understood tensors, in t...

 
4:10 PM
@Semiclassical isn't that what we want:
I suppose the "$H$" in $$A=U\Sigma U^H$$ is a typo?
That means we have $\Sigma$ (since we have the eigenvalue).
And now we 'just' need to solve it for the $U$ ..
or does it mean conjugate?
 
@Secret Isn't what I asked related to tensor transpose?
 
well if you are swapping the dimensions of a tensor, it is a transpose in some form
 
Is it true that $\text{supp } (f+g) \subseteq \text{supp }(f) \cup \text{supp }(g)$?
 
I just found this paper: Tensor Transpose and Its Properties
It defines a transpose of a tensor using a permutation
But I am still trying to understand if it generalises my example or it is something completely unrelated
 
4:26 PM
@Rudi_Birnbaum probably H means hermitian conjugate, though I can’t see why it’s at all necessary here
But yes, that’s what we’re looking for
 
well skew symmetric matrices are in general only diagonizable over $\Bbb C$.
take:
$$ \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \\ 0 & -1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$$
 
yeah, you wouldn't expect a matrix that does 90-degree rotations to have three real eigenvalues
 
right
 
4:43 PM
that paper looks pretty junk and that "journal"
And the author seemed to be dealing with multidimensional arrays, which are not necessary tensors
 
What is the difference between multi-dimensional arrays and tensors?
From a theoretical point of view
Also, why do you say it looks like junk?
 
tensors need to be linear maps from a tensor product to some field. Multidimensional arrays need not to obey the rules of linearity and other vector space rules
 
What would be an example of a multi-dim array that is not a tensor?
 
The paper looks junk because the journal's publisher iaeng is listed in the beall'st list as a predatory journal, meaning that the paper is not peer reviewed
those that are used in programming, there isn't necessary a multiplication structure, nor notions of contra or covariance defined on them
 
In my case, I am actually dealing with "tensors" that e.g. you can find in frameworks like TensorFlow
They call them tensors. So, you say that they might not actually be tensors, in a mathematical sense?
 
4:51 PM
Is G\H always a coset for a subgroup H of a finite group G?
 
No, G\H will be the collection of cosets.
@topologicalmagician G\H itself isn't a coset.
 
I don't get this website: beallslist.weebly.com. In which sense would a journal be "predatory"?
Maybe predatory isn't the most appropriate adjective
 
why are the cosets of the alternating group in the symmetric group A_n and Sym(n)\A_n?
 
a predatory journal is one who try to lure young researchers to go to basically nonexistent conferences by paying a sum of money to join said conference. Other predatory journals will publish any paper as long researchers pay money. It is a business and there is no peer review, meaning any junk can end up in there
 
@topologicalmagician I don't understand your question.
 
4:55 PM
Also the data structure used in tensorflow are indeed only multidimensional arrays, they are not tensors/multilinear maps in the mathematical sense
 
@user193319 The alternating group has 2 different cosets in the symmetric group
because $|S_n : A_n |$ $=$ 2
one of them is $A_n$
what is the other one?
 
Hello!!
I want to show that $$\bar y\land (x\lor z)\land (\bar x \lor \bar y) = \bar y\land (x\lor z)$$

I have done the following: \begin{align*}\bar y\land (x\lor z)\land (\bar x \lor \bar y) &=\bar y\land \left [(x\lor z)\land (\bar x \lor \bar y)\right ]\\ & =\bar y\land \left [\left ((x\lor z)\land \bar x\right )\lor \left ((x\lor z)\land \bar y\right )\right ] \\ & = \bar y\land \left [\left (\left (x\land \bar x\right )\lor \left (z\land \bar x\right )\right )\lor \left (\left ( x\land \bar y\right )\lor \left (z\land \bar y\right )\right )\right ] \\ & = \bar y\land \left [\left (0\lor \l
 
Given a deck of card, are the two outcomes "drawing a heart" and "drawing a king" independent of each other?
Is it correct to assume there is independence if you have to return the card to the deck after drawing it, and that there is independence if you don't return the card?
 
@Secret I see. Thanks for this info! I wonder how can people be lured in this way. Has anyone ever gone to a non-existing conference? You must be pretty stupid to do such a thing
 
Can there exists a bounded analytic function in the portion of the plane $\{x+iy:x\ge 0 \wedge y\ge 0\}$
 
5:39 PM
Aaand back in Israel
(until June)
and, you know what, I've had a lot of fun here over the past year
but New York is better
This being a math chat, I should probably say something about math
For what values $(n,m)\in\Bbb Z^2$ is $\cos(nx+my)$ a polynomial in terms of $\cos x$ and $\cos y$?
 
00:00 - 18:0018:00 - 00:00

« first day (3191 days earlier)      last day (1829 days later) »