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12:06 AM
Problem: Let $f \in F[X]$, where $F$ is a field of characteristic $0$. Let $d(X) = gcd(f,f')$. Show that $g(X) = f(X)d(X)^{-1}$ has the same roots as $f(X)$, and these are all the simple roots of $g(X)$...Doesn't writing $d(X)^{-1}$ presuppose that $d(X)$ is an invertible element in $F[X]$? If so, wouldn't that imply that $d(X)$ is a nonzero constant in $F$? Doesn't that trivialize the problem?
 
12:21 AM
@user193319 You're right $d(X)^{-1} \not \in F[X]$ in general, but $f(X)/d(X)$ is, since $d(X)$ divides $f(X)$
 
Ah, okay. Does it make sense to take the formal derivative of $f(X)/d(X)$? Does the quotient rule still hold?
Also, if $f(a)/d(a) = 0$ for some $a \in F$, may I conclude that $f(a) = 0$?
 
12:42 AM
@Rithaniel Near-ring with inverses?
 
 
2 hours later…
3:07 AM
@user193319 (x-1)^2/(x-1), x=1
@user193319 you can obtain the quotient rule by taking the derivative of both sides of f=gh
 
4:00 AM
@Semiclassical I think I'm starting to get Green's function
 
$f: \Bbb{Q} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$ by $f(0)=0$ and $f(r) = \frac{p}{10^q}$ where $r = \frac{p}{q}$ with $p \in Z, q \in N$ and gcd($p,q$) =1
I was thinking whether $f$ is one-one, onto?
I thought of taking
$p=2,q=3$
giving $0.002$ same as $\frac{20}{10^4}$
 
gcd(20,4) is not 1
 
but we cant take that due to the condition
yes
looke dup and seems to be 10 dyadic
 
however you can make it ?/10^7
20000/10^7
 
no perhaps
as $q \in \Bbb{N}$
 
4:05 AM
$7 \in \Bbb N$
 
oh ok
so its not one one
how to think of onto?
 
well the outputs are all rational
 
yes
mapping of ratonals to rationals
 
but the codomain is $\Bbb R$
 
cool
not onto either
 
4:25 AM
@LeakyNun Did you manage to get the Green's function for the problem you were working on?
 
@Semiclassical I'm working on another Green's function problem; I'll return to the one yesterday later
 
mmkay
 
is it okay if my function is discontinuous at s=1... lol
 
4:45 AM
Does this make sense to anyone?
I do not understand the $\nabla I ^\bot_p$
So if I calculate the gradient, how do i calculate the "orthogonal" part?
 
 
5 hours later…
9:47 AM
@BAYMAX $f$ is not onto. since $\pi$ does not have pre-image.
But it is one-one
 
10:00 AM
It not one-one
since $\frac{10}{3}$ and $\frac{1}{2}$ gives the same image.
 
10:40 AM
I have this q/a: Let $A$ be $n\times n$ lower-triangular matrix, with all diagonal entries $0$. Prove $A^n$ is a zero matrix. The solution given is : Eigen value of A is $\lambda=0$, so $\lambda^n=0\implies A^n$ is zero matrix.
I can't understand $\lambda^n=0\implies A^n$ is zero matrix.
 
They used Cayley Hamilton theorem
characteristic polynomial is uniques
characteristic polynomial of $A$ is $\lamda^n.(-1)^n=0$
so, By C.H theorem
follows
 
Ok!! Thank you very much.
@N.Maneesh So, you mean that by plugging $A^n\cdot(-1)^n=0$ gives $A^n$ is zero matrix, right?
 
yes
it is obvious that characteristic polynomial is (-1)^n \lambda^n
 
yes, i see the char polynomial. thanks
 
11:36 AM
@LeakyNun Just so that we are on the same page, are you taking $f,g,h$ to be polynomials in $F[X]$, where $F$ is any field?
 
 
1 hour later…
12:57 PM
@user193319 yes
 
How does one show that there is no $c > $ such that $||f||_{max} \le c ||f||_1$ for every $f \in C[a,b]$? The only way I think of proving this is using the fact that $C[a,b]$ is dense in $L^1[a,b]$. But there should be a concrete $f \in C[a,b]$ which breaks the inequality...I just can't find it...
Thanks @LeakyNun
 
1:12 PM
@user193319 just show explicitly that for every $c$ there is $f$ such that $\|f\|_\infty > c \|f\|_1$
 
Yeah, that's what I've been trying to do...
 
1:34 PM
@LeakyNun Any hints?
 
what would that function look like?
can you describe the requirement in words?
 
Well, since the function is continuous and Leb. Int. = Rie. Int. for continuous functions, the MVT tells me $||f|_1 = |f(z)|$ for some $z \in (0,1)$ (let's just assume $a=0$ and $b=1$). So, I need to find an $f$ such that its maximum value is at least $cf(x)$ for every $x \in [0,1]$ (I'm assuming that we can choose $f \ge 0$).
 
be less technical
 
Hmm...I
I'm not sure I follow you.
 
$\|f\|_1$ is the area under the graph of $f$
what is $\|f\|_\infty$?
which one do you maximize? which one do you minimize?
 
1:42 PM
Oh, maximize height of function, minimize its area.
So, $f$ show look like a spike?
 
bingo
 
Sweet! Thanks! Now to work out the nitty-gritty details.
 
good luck
 
2:03 PM
I'm having trouble understanding this answer - math.stackexchange.com/a/1312534/257828 ; specifically, the author shows the isomorphism using the first isomorphism theorem, but how is $(I, x)$ the kernel of the map $R[x] \to R/I$ ?
 
2:31 PM
@Mathphile Sorry for the very late reply. I was completely bogged down with all my calculations gone wrong at the same time today and only managed to fix the load all. So to start with, besides all the points mentioned by anakhro and Semiclassical:
saying $\ln (\pi)$ is rational is the same as claming $\pi ^p = e^q$ but as we discussed earlier, whether $e,\pi$ is algebraically independent is an open question
@Semiclassical If there are uncountably many such class, then one can in theory form something that resembles the Vitali set:
Let $\mathcal{I}$ be the irrationals
Let $[r] = \{r^q : q\in \Bbb{Q}\setminus \{0\}\}$
If there are uncountably many $[r]$ and it partitions $\mathcal{I}$, then each equivalence class $[r]$ will have countably many members (in fact, rational number many)
Then one can use the axiom of choice to pick out each $r$ and this forms something like a Vitali set except with exponentiation as the equivalence relation
If it does not partition $\mathcal{I}$, then we have something more interesting for it can mean the union $R=\bigcup_{r} [r] \subsetneq \mathcal{I}$ forms some kind of exponential version of a ring ideal and the set $\mathcal{I} \setminus R$ will be mapped into $R$ by rational exponentiation (as otherwise they will satisfy the equivalence class given by $[r]$)
hmmm...
Let $s,t \in \mathcal{I}$, $q \in \Bbb{Q}$
$s^q = t$
means:
 
2:56 PM
@Secret One thing I note in retrospect. Suppose $a^r=b$ for some rational $r$. Then $r=p/q$ for integer p,q>0, so $a^p = b^q$
 
yeah, that basically means $a,b$ are algebraically dependent
 
Exactly
it's probably stronger than algebraically dependent, i.e. $a,b$ can be algebraically dependent despite $a^p\neq b^q$ for any $p,q$
 
Hmm, so if the structure of these equivalence class in the irrationals can be probed, it might give us a transcendental generalisation of a specific case of Gelfond's Schnider theorem
and thus pinning down $\pi^e$, $\pi^{\pi}$ etc.
 
I do wonder if there's a name for this concept already.
right, wikipedia notes the following example: {sqrt(pi),2pi+1}
I wouldn't expect any integer power of sqrt(pi) to give an integer power of 2pi+1
But the two numbers are algebraically dependent since they're a solution of 2x^2-y+1=0
So we're looking at a specific kind of algebraic dependence, namely when the polynomial is of the form x^p-y^q
 
yeah
 
3:03 PM
(i'm ignoring cases like r=-1/2 as annoying. though all that really does is force us to consider x^p y^q-1 instead)
I wonder what you'd call that, when you restrict the algebraic dependence to certain kinds of polynomials
 
10
Q: Is there such a thing as "quadratic independence" (and higher generalizations of linear independence)?

MehrdadThe notion of linear independence is very well-known and well-understood. However, is there a way to generalize the definition to other types of independence -- such as perhaps "quadratic independence", "polynomial independence", "harmonic independence", etc.? (Sorry if linear-algebra isn't a g...

I don't think there is a literature name to a subset of algebraic independence
 
judging from those answers, I'd tend to agree
 
25
Q: Work on independence of pi and e

muadIt is an open problem to prove that $\pi$ and $e$ are algebraically independent over $\mathbb{Q}$. What are some of the important results leading toward proving this? What are the most promising theories and approaches for this problem?

lol we need model theory to investigate these questions
 
for some people, that fact will be a motivation to learn model theory
for others, it's a motivation to move on to a different problem :P
 
I actually don't revisit transcendental number theory often, but whenever people start writing things that makes me think of $e^e$ I cannot resist and then for a short period of time, snap back to transcendental number theory, and then fail again and return to routine
Somehow that $$e^e$$ is open really annoys me a lot more than other open questions
Btw, I think $s^e = t$ may be interesting, because it means:
Given a sequence $(s^k)$ where $k$ are the kth coefficients of the taylor series of $e$, the above being true means that the partial products of this sequence converges to $t$
The partial products also have the property of being always transcendental, since $s^q$ where $q$ is rational is always transcendental by lindlemann Weistrass
So if there is a way to confine the tail of this partial product somehow (similar to the proof of transcendence of $e$), then it might lead to somewhere
Other things about this partial product include monotonicity
Thus we always have:
$$\frac{t}{\prod_{k=1}^n s^{coeff_{e^x}(k)}} > 1$$ for any $n \in \Bbb{N}$
In particular we have:
$$\frac{t}{\prod_{k=1}^{n-1}s^{\text{coeff}(k)}} > s^{\text{coeff}(n)}$$
Thus for $s^e = t$ we have:
$$\frac{t}{\prod_{k=1}^{n} s^{\frac{1}{k!}}} > s^{\frac{1}{(n+1)!}}$$
 
 
1 hour later…
4:54 PM
@Semiclassical do you know about Sturm-Liouville equations?
 
ok forget what I said earlier, that's just irrationality, not transcendentality
To be dealt with later: Investigate the irrationality of $s^e$
 
5:16 PM
@LeakyNun strum-liouville differential equations, yeah
 
@Semiclassical how do I know where the boundaries are?
let's say I have $(xe^{-x} y')' = -ke^{-x} y$
 
As in, what the domain of your solutions is?
 
right
why can't I pick the domain to be, say, $[-1,1]$?
why is it $[0,\infty)$?
is it where $p(x)$ is zero?
 
Typically it’ll be motivated by context
But in the abstract, hmm
 
well the orthogonality relations only works for a particular domain
that's the context
 
5:18 PM
True
I mean, you can stretch that a bit
 
but they won't integrate to zero anymore?
 
Well, take the weight function in the inner product to be zero outside the region of interest
In that way you trivially extend the domain without modifying the orthogonality
But that feels like a cheat
 
but what if I contract the domain?
maybe I should go through a proof of the orthogonality?
do you know where I could find one?
 
How can I show that every finite group $G$ can be embedded in a group that can be generated by two elements? My guess was to take some large $D_n$ and try and embed $G$ into $D_n$
 
I should but I’m rusty
In the realm of orthogonal polynomials, there’s Favards’s theorem:
With the comparison being that knowing the recurrence relation plus initial values is enough to determine an inner product
 
5:28 PM
@Perturbative $S_n$ is generated by two elements
 
Damn forgot that, well then there's nothing to show
....assuming Cayleys theorem
 
Judging from the Wikipedia page, the form of the DE determines the weight function for S-L eqs, and the endpoints are determined by the boundary conditions
I’d prefer a more definitive statement tho
 
[Random]
El supraHollow
$((()))$
error termination: Failure to find a mathematical object emptier than the empty set
 
Here’s a question which I suspect should be obvious
Suppose I take the tensor product of two Hilbert spaces
I can take the tensor product of the corresponding identity operators on these spaces to get the identity on the product space
 
yes
 
5:37 PM
Is this the only way to construct the identity on the product space? Ie if $A\otimes B$ is the identity on the product space, must A and B also be the identity on their respective spaces?
Feels like that should be obvious
I guess the point is that, if it acts as the identity on the product space, it also must act as the identity on the factors
(Something something universal property?)
 
6:01 PM
Quick check, a vector space $V$ of dimension $n$ over $\mathbb{Z}_p$ has cardinality $p^n$ since $V \cong (\mathbb{Z}_p) ^n$ right?
 
@Semiclassical looks like $p$ needs to be zero at both ends of the domain
 
Thanks! @ÍgjøgnumMeg
Hope things are going well on your side! @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
yesterday, by Leaky Nun
$\nabla^2 u = \dfrac1r (ru_r)_r + \dfrac1{r^2} u_{\theta\theta}$
why is the "axisymmetric form" much more complicated? @Semiclassical
$\nabla^2 u = \dfrac1{r^2} (r^2 u_r)_r + \dfrac1{r^2 \sin\theta} (\sin\theta ~ u_\theta)_\theta$
wait this is on a sphere
 
6:17 PM
Hey hot cats.
 
 
2 hours later…
8:37 PM
@N.Maneesh cool!! thanks!
 
9:14 PM
Hello.

Is there a way in proving such Whittaker formula

$W _ { k , m } ( z ) = \frac { \Gamma ( - 2 m ) } { \Gamma \left( \frac { 1 } { 2 } - m - k \right) } M _ { k , m } ( z ) + \frac { \Gamma ( 2 m ) } { \Gamma \left( \frac { 1 } { 2 } + m - k \right) } M _ { k , - m } ( z )$
 
 
1 hour later…
10:16 PM
Hey @igjo, @loch, how'd you get past the nerd guards?
 
11:09 PM
Goes on brilliant.org for the first time in a while. CS section got a lot harder than I remember.
 
11:27 PM
I'm not good enough to be a mathematician. The chances of getting a postdoc, let alone a lectureship, are bleak. How'd you cope? I mean: I'd be happy with a menial job with enough spare time to pursue the subject as a hobby. But why not aim high?
I could have gone to St Andrews to do my PhD but literally panicked during my last exam, meaning I had to resit the next year to get my First; they couldn't defer the entry. I've settled for The University of Essex.
It's not as prestigious. Prestige helps. It shouldn't but it does.
Mathematics is all I want to do.
Okay, I could rant for ages so I'll stop now.
 
There comes a point where you just have to work with the hand you've been dealt. Success may or may not be in our futures, but all we can really do is pursue it. A power outage doesn't matter when the light switch is off
2
 
Hi all, I have a basic question. Suppose I know that a linear map $T$ on $R^n$ sends integer n-tuples to other integer n-tuples. That is, $\mathbb{Z}^n$ is invariant under $T$. How can I show that the transpose of $T$ also fixes $\mathbb{Z}^n$?
 
@NicholasRoberts what are some convenient integer n-tuples?
 
$e_i$ basis vectors?
 
Yup, so what does our assumption say?
 
11:35 PM
We will have that $T(e_i)$ will be an n-tuple of integers
 
Yup, and what do we know about the $T(e_i)$?
 
It will be the i'th collumn of the matrix representation for T?
 
Yeah, pedantically the matrix representation of T in the standard basis, but exactly
 
Hey everyone!
 
So T is an integer matrix. Take the transpose
 
11:38 PM
Oh, ok. So that transpose will also have all integer entries. Hence, will send integer tuples to tuples?
 
Does anyone know where I can find the definition of a bigraded vector space?
 
Exactly
 
Thank you @Daminark. I appreciate your time!
 
11:51 PM
@Daminark lmao how's it going?
In mathematics, a graded vector space is a vector space that has the extra structure of a grading or a gradation, which is a decomposition of the vector space into a direct sum of vector subspaces. == ℕ-graded vector spaces == Let N {\displaystyle \mathbb {N} } be the set of non-negative integers. An N {\textstyle \mathbb {N} } -graded vector space, often called simply a graded vector space without the prefix N ...
 
@loch That doesn't have the definition of a bigraded vector space
 
take $I=\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$
or $I= \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}$
 
@loch Oh I see, I guess $\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}$ is what's usually used
 
Yo Perturbative, you're welcome Nicholas, and yeah doing alright loch, how about you?
 
Do you know of a reference other than Wikipedia or nLab? @loch
 
11:55 PM
@Daminark I'm doing good! You've decided to go to Wisconsin right?
 
Just saw you got into grad school at Madison @Daminark, congrats!
 
@Perturbative no
 
Yup, that's where I'm heading, thanks! :D
 
nice!
 

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