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12:01 AM
that's what two dimensional means though
might be asking if the embedding is unique in some sense
 
maybe, but that isn't graph theory
 
I'm talking about graphs that look like they are curved
for example a mesh graph that looks like it's the outer shell of a hemisphere
 
what's the question though
a graph will have a lot of different embeddings into a lot of different spaces
 
oh hey, a golf ball
 
12:07 AM
This golf ball graph (with nodes at intersections) looks positively curved.
 
possibly what you want to look up is Euler's formula (and more generally the Euler characteristic)
some examples for motivation:
A cube has 6 faces, 12 edges, and 8 vertices
 
okay
 
A tetrahedron has 4 faces, 6 edges, and 4 vertices
An octahedron has 8 faces (hence the name), 12 edges, and 6 vertices
A common fact between these: The number of faces, minus the number of edges, plus the number of vertices, is 2.
 
2
Q: $(X,\mathscr T)$ is normal and each closed subsets of $X$ is a $G_{\delta}$ set.Then, $(X,\mathscr T)$ perfectly normal.

Math geekProve the following result without using Urysohn's lemma. $(X,\mathscr T)$ is normal and every closed subset of $X$ is a $G_{\delta}$ set.Then, $(X,\mathscr T)$ perfectly normal. My effort: I have proved using Urysohn's lemma. How do I prove without the use of Urysohn's lemma? Let $A$ a...

 
the spherical mesh is not two dimensional @Ultradark
but you probably meant graphs corresponding to piecewise-linear structure of 2 dimensional manifolds
 
12:11 AM
more generally, it turns out that this formula holds for any (convex) polyhedron in three dimensions
 
or something like that
 
That includes your golf ball
 
in which case the stuff Semiclassical is saying is what you want, euler characteristic
 
okay
 
So if you were to count up all the faces, edges, and vertices (including those on the back side of that picture which you can't see)
you'd still have faces - edges + vertices = 2
That 2 is known as the Euler characteristic of the sphere
By contrast, the plane has Euler characteristic 1.
And a donut turns out to have Euler characteristic 0.
Now, that's not exactly telling you about positive curvature as such. It's more telling you that your graph could be drawn on a sphere without messing things up
There are notions of graph curvature, but I know basically nothing of them
(I saw the lead author of this give a talk on the subject of graph curvature, for example: arxiv.org/abs/1502.04512)
 
12:26 AM
so for every $f \in L^2(\Bbb R/\Bbb Z, \Bbb C)$ there is $a_n \in \Bbb C$ with $f = \sum_{n \in \Bbb Z} a_n e^{2 \pi iz}$?
this sounds quite dodgy if like the function isn't continuous
not every $f \in L^2$ is equivalent to a continuous function right
 
@LeakyNun the Fourier series only converges in $L^2$, not pointwise (and even if it converges pointwise, there is no reason why the limit should automatically be continuous)
I don't see what is dodgy about it
 
because when I was trying to prove it... I explicitly used continuity
and there's also the result that if it is jump discontinuous then it converges to the average of the two one-sided limits
is it easy to prove that it converges in $L^2$?
 
it's just Hilbert space theory
 
I think a pathway would be to show that they converge pointwise for continuous functions and then use the fact that smooth functions are dense in L^2?
although that "fact" seems difficult to prove
maybe change smooth to continuous
oh I see how to prove it
we know that simple functions are dense in L^2
 
you're overcomplicating this
 
12:35 AM
simple functions are piecewise constant
 
there is no density argument needed
 
I mean I don't even know how to prove that L^2 is complete
 
Plancheral iirc
 
you just show that $(e^{2 \pi n i z})_{n \in \Bbb Z}$ is an orthonormal basis for $L^2(\Bbb R/\Bbb Z)$
 
and how would I show that?
 
12:36 AM
orthonormality is a computation
and the fact that it has dense span is Stone-Weierstraß
 
doesn't Stone-Weierstraß just say that the polynomials are dense in the continuous functions?
 
that's Weierstraß
 
what does Stone-Weierstraß say?
 
If $X$ is a compact Hausdorff space, then a unital *-subalgebra $A$ of $C(X,\Bbb C)$ is dense iff it separates points
 
@Semiclassical does the outside part of the shape count as one of the faces
 
12:42 AM
that's too vague for me to answer
 
okay you also need that $C(S^1, \Bbb C)$ is dense in $L^2(S^1, \Bbb C)$
 
a square has four vertices and four edges and 1 face
 
right
 
i was wondering if the faces would be two
counting the outside of the square
but I think I'm thinking of something else
 
depends on how you think of it, really
if you think of it as a polygon in the plane, you wouldn't
on the other hand, suppose you imagine drawing a square on a sphere
then clearly the inside and 'outside' both count as faces
that'll change the face count by one, so you'll go from the Euler characteristic of the sphere being 2 to the Euler characteristic of the plane by 1
 
12:56 AM
okay thanks
 
If $a$ and $b$ are two group elements with finite order which commute, what can we say about the order of $ab$?
 
well, what can you say about $(ab)^k$ given that they commute?
 
$(ab)^k = a^k b^k$.
Isn't the order $\displaystyle \frac{|a| \cdot |b|}{gcd(|a|,|b|)}$?
 
It is. There's a simpler way to write that tho
 
no, the order is not always that
consider the case that $b=a^{-1}$
 
12:58 AM
oof
yeah, and that's true even if $b,a$ had infinite order
this Q&A on the main site covers it rather well:
38
Q: Examples and further results about the order of the product of two elements in a group

Jacopo NotarstefanoLet $G$ be a group and let $a,b$ be two elements of $G$. What can we say about the order of their product $ab$? Wikipedia says "not much": There is no general formula relating the order of a product $ab$ to the orders of $a$ and $b$. In fact, it is possible that both $a$ and $b$ have finite ...

 
1:15 AM
Lagrange interpolation
@Semiclassical so we have a whole course about proving existence (and uniqueness) of ODEs and analyzing behaviour of equilibriums
 
 
1 hour later…
2:20 AM
Hey everyone. I'm trying to tackle a control problem using the Laplace transform. I dunno how to figure out whether I'm doing this all correctly or not.
The problem is: There's a damped harmonic oscillator. It's driven by a P controller which is trying to drive the position of the oscillator to 0 as quickly as possible. However, the controller has a delay of 1 second.
So, the differential equation describing this system is reasonably simple: $f''(t) = c f' (t) + k f(t) + K_p f(t - 1)$.
I took the Laplace transform of both sides and got $s^2 F(s) - s f(0) - f'(0) = c (F(s) - f(0)) + k F(s) + K_p e^{-s} F(s)$. Solve that, and you get $F(s) = (s f(0) + f'(0) - c f(0)) / (s^2 - c - k - K_p e^{-s})$.
Now, suppose that $K_p = 0$ and $- c - k = 1$ (since $c$ and $k$ are both going to be negative in realistic situations). Then the denominator becomes $s^2 + 1$, meaning that $F(s)$ has poles at $i$ and $-i$.
So... what can I conclude there? Those poles have a real part of 0, so does that mean they represent oscillations which don't decay? That doesn't make sense; as long as $c$ and $k$ are negative, and $K_p$ is zero, all oscillations should decay.
Or am I totally misinterpreting what the Laplace transform means?
 
2:49 AM
Ah, I see that I made a mistake. I transformed $c f'(t)$ into $c (F(s) - f(0))$, but I'm missing an $s$ there; it should be $c (s F(s) - f(0))$, so the denominator should be $s^2 - c s - k - K_p e^{-s}$.
Now if $K_p = 0$ and $c = k = -1$, the behavior is what I was expecting: the poles both have a negative real part, indicating that the oscillations decay. If I make $K_p$ too large (positive or negative), one of the poles comes to have a positive real part, indicating an unstable oscillation mode.
Neato.
Sorry for the monologue.
 
 
3 hours later…
5:31 AM
I went ahead and posted a question related to all this, if anyone's interested: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3158979/…
 
 
6 hours later…
11:32 AM
Hi people!
 
 
1 hour later…
12:54 PM
Hello All..
Can someone direct me to how a post may be transfer or copy from one groupr from another? I want to transfer the following post to Mathematica exchange. math.stackexchange.com/questions/2369651/…
Or to copy in both becuase it is relevant in bothe areas.
 
 
1 hour later…
2:01 PM
anyone knows graph theory?
id like to talk about this covering graph
is an example of nielsen scheier theorem
why the arrows go like this
 
Because $H'=aH$, so there is an arrow from $H$ to $H'$ and similarly with all the others
That's how the Schreier coset graph is defined
 
2:17 PM
so Hb=H'
and a^-1H'=H
$a^{-1} H'=H$
 
no, the arrow on $a^{-1}$ is pointing toward $H'$
 
so
why is it crossing itself
 
I don't know why they chose to draw it this way, but it makes no difference, all that matters for the edges of a graph is where they start and where they end
 
ohh ok
now suppose i find a spanning tree of that
say the 2 egdes of a,b
how can i shrink it?
can i join 2 egdes?
i mean how do i get the buquet
 
@ManolisLyviakis That's not a spanning tree, one edge is enough
 
2:25 PM
oh yeah right
so i cant shrink one egde with 2 vertices
ohhh i get it
i shrink it so the 2 points join
and the remaining
 
If you choose just one edge and contract it the two vertices get identified and you obtain a bouquet of $3$ circles
 
is 2 circles
yeyeye
thanks
 
 
3 hours later…
5:24 PM
For a vector field with circulation but no curl due to an undefined point, i.e., $\begin{bmatrix}\frac{-y}{x^2 + y^2} \\ \frac{x}{x^2 + y^2}\end{bmatrix}$, is there always (ever?) a different, otherwise identical vector field, where the point is defined and has curl equal to the circulation it induces?
 
6:03 PM
Hello!!

In a box there are 10 balls, 3 blue and 7 red. We take 9 balls with replacement. Which is the probability that we get exactly 5 red balls?

This is equal to $$\binom{9}{5}\cdot \left (\frac{7}{10}\right )^5\cdot \left (\frac{3}{10}\right )^4$$ since we use here the formula $$P(X=k)=\binom{n}{k}\cdot p^k\cdot p^{n-k}$$ right?
 
 
3 hours later…
8:38 PM
Does anyone understand this comment? I feel like it's a joke over my head that will be ruined if I reply asking for clarification. math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159678/…
 
hello all I got a limit question can anyone help please
$$\lim(x->0) \frac{cos^{-1}(e^{-x^4/2})}{x^2}$$
 
 
2 hours later…
10:46 PM
$ \vec F_1=(\sin(x),\sin(y)) $

$ \vec F_2=(\sin(1-x),\sin(y)) $
Does adding these two vector fields together produce a net vertical flow?
so $\vec F_1 + \vec F_2$
i should add that $x,y \in (0,\pi)$
 
11:19 PM
it'd be vertical if $\sin(x)+\sin(1-x)=0$
But uh
no
 

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