Problem: Let $f$ be a real valued function defined on a measurable domain $E$. Suppose that $f$ is continuous except at a finite number of points. Is $f$ measurable? Proof: Let $D \subseteq E$ be set of all point at which $f$ is discontinuous. Since $D$ is finite, $m(D) = 0$, so $f$ is measurable on $D$. Since $f$ is continuous on $E \setminus D$, it must be measurable on $f$. Hence, $f$ is measurable on the union $(E \setminus D) \cup D =E$.
I will try to describe briefly how I am modelling the problem. (Please bear with the length). The governing equation describing temperature for a block at steady state is
$$\nabla^2 T = 0$$ where $\nabla^2 T = \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{...
I am presently working through example 1.21 in Hatcher's book on wedge sums of topological spaces. He makes a few claims which I am having trouble verifying. First, let me set-up some notation.
Let $\{X_i\}_{i \in I}$ be a collection of topological spaces. Then $\amalg_{i \in I} X_i := \cup_{i ...
Would someone be kind enough to verify my Cauchy-Riemann equations: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3017630/cauchy-riemann-equations-for-z-xiy-and-fz-rx-yei-thetax-y Thank you.
@LeakyNun I got an interesting answer to a question about quaternion algebras on MathOverflow, but I don't quite understand it. Would you be up to taking a look at it maybe?
Hmm, because I was in my algebra lecture today and my lecturer and my classmate said that $\operatorname{GL}_n(\mathbb{\mathbb{F}})$ was finite with $\mathbb{F}$ being some field, and I was confused. Maybe they were talking about finite fields.
But the thing is we were talking about a corollary of Cayley's theorem which said "If $G$ is a finite group of order $n$, then $G$ can be embedded into $GL_n(\mathbb{F})$" and supposedly this gave an embedding into a smaller group than the usual embedding into $S_n$ I think (but I remember thinking that wasn't correct because $GL_n(\mathbb{F})$ could be infinite)
@TobiasKildetoft Ohh okay, so the corollary is actually weaker. I guess the reason why we mentioned this is because we can represent elements of $G$ by matrices or something like that and work with them
Thinking about the essence of infinity again: hmm, a fractal with hausedoff dimension 1 < x < 2 clearly has finite area, yet you can zoom in forever and the porportions will remain the same
meaning that what I suggested a few weeks ago is indeed insufficient
besides scale invariance, what other properties does infinity have...
I guess we can start with potential infinity first:
For example, the number of naturals is larger than any fixed subcollection of naturals
So perhaps we can explosively generalise this as follows:
Let $M$ be a mathematical object of type $\text{Fin}$, $S$ be a relation that encodes some notion of size and $f$ be any relation that encodes a scaling operation. Then $M$ is potentially infinite if:
$$S(M,N)\neq S(N,M)$$
where $N$ is an object formed by any combination of $f$ and $M$ and is of type $\text{Fin}$