Looking for a little help: I've run in to someone who claims that $k[x-y]_{(x-y)} \to (k[x,y]/(xy))_{(x,y)}$ is a flat map of local rings. On the other hand, I know that every flat module over a local ring is free. I do not believe that this is a free module, therefore it shouldn't be flat, but I don't immediately see how it violates flatness.
Right? It's the x and y axes projecting on to the line x=y
So either I had better be able to write k[x,y]/(x,y)_{(x,y)} as a direct sum since it's a free module, or it's not flat. I feel like a real dunce for not immediately seeing why it isn't flat, which isn't helping in my attempts to demonstrate this.
@loch they amended their claim to 1,x being a generating set. How does this square with the proof that an fg flat module over a local ring is free?
I am just so incredibly sure that fg flat over a local ring implies free: fg implies finitely presented, finitely presented flat is equivalent to projective, and projective over a local ring is actually free.
@loch I agree. I am feeling very silly here: I think I ought to be able to swat this whole thing away without too much effort, but I am not getting there.
@KReiser i'm somewhat convinced that you can't make 1/(x+1) from 1 and x from messing around with the algebra -- so hopefully that shows that 1,x don't generate the module..