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5:00 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos how do you represent the identity as an element of that?
 
@LeakyNun the identity is an element of $\operatorname{Hom}_K(V,V)$
 
and then?
 
If $V$ is finite-dimensional, that's isomorphic to $V^* \otimes_K V$
 
@MatheinBoulomenos so youre taking the identity element in Hom(V,V) and pushing it through to K using the universal property? How does this give dimension exactly
 
can you prove it?
 
5:01 PM
yes
 
prove it
I'm not convinced that your proof is not circular
I'm convinced that your proof is circular
 
runs to the kitchen to pop popcorn
 
lol hi @Ted
 
:45313958
 
5:04 PM
hi @Ale
 
Let $V$ and $W$ be finite-dimensional vector spaces.
Define a map $V^* \times W \to \operatorname{Hom}_K(V,W)$ by sending the pair $(\xi,w)$ to the linear map $v \mapsto \xi(v)w$
 
@JasonKim what would you like to know?
 
hi demonic @Alessandro
 
@MatheinBoulomenos ok fair enough
 
You stated that you're not convinced and after you're convinced.
 
5:05 PM
@Ted can drop his popcorn :P
 
$\LaTeX$
 
@JasonKim I had two "not"s in the first sentence
 
this is bilinear, so we get an induced map $V^* \otimes_K W \to \operatorname{Hom}_K(V,W)$
note that this map doesn't depend on a choice of basis at all
 
Hey everyone!
 
5:09 PM
Hi Demonark
 
@JasonKim hanguginiyeyo?
 
If $f \in \operatorname{Hom}_K(V,W)$, then choose a basis $b_1, \dots b_n$ for $W$ (I know you're going to say that this is circular, but it's not, I'm only using the existence of a basis)
We can write $f(v)=\xi_1(v)b_1 + \dots x_n(v)b_n$ (where $\xi_i \in V^*$)
Then map $f$ to $\xi_1 \otimes b_1 + \dots + \xi_n \otimes b_n \in V^* \otimes_K W$
 
how do you define the trace of a map without knowing that vector spaces have dimensions ?
 
@mercio he just did
 
5:11 PM
That's an inverse for this guy above
 
by UMP of tensor
@MatheinBoulomenos no I'm not, I already said "fair enough"
 
this actually doesn't depend on a basis either, surprisingly
 
58 mins ago, by MatheinBoulomenos
Consider the identity as an element of $V^* \otimes_K V$, then apply the natural bilinear pairing $V^* \times V \to K, (\xi,v) \mapsto \xi(v)$, which gives us the trace of the identity matrix, i.e. the dimension of the vector space
@mercio apply UMP of tensor to that map ^
 
what's an UMP ?
 
universal mapping property
@MatheinBoulomenos happens if $V$ and $W$ are infinite-dimensional?
 
5:12 PM
Hmm, so how do we get existence of a basis? Zorn's lemma just in case we don't know dimension?
 
@LeakyNun the isomorphism doesn't work
 
@TedShifrin basis reduction theorem
(our space is finitely generated to begin with)
@MatheinBoulomenos is it surjective or injective?
 
Oh, we know finitely generated even without dimension :P
 
@TedShifrin for finitely generated vector spaces we don't need Zorn
 
so we have a map from $V^* \otimes V$ into $K$ and we apply it to the identity ?
 
5:13 PM
but to be fair, MB said finite dimension instead of finitely generated
@mercio right
 
@LeakyNun the map $V^* \otimes_K W \to \operatorname{Hom}_K(V,W)$ is always injective and the image are precisely the linear maps with finite rank
 
fair enough
and if I replace $K$ with a ring?
 
i thought that map is an isomorphism?
 
(every ring is commutative with unity)
@NicholasRoberts if $V$ or $W$ are finite dimensional, then it is
 
also, can anyone explain for a vector space to be finitely generated? I know finitely generated means the generating set is finite. But isnt the generating set for a vector space, the basis elements?
 
5:16 PM
I want only to prove that if there is a finite basis, then all finite bases have the same cardinality. not having a basis is not an issue
 
No, no, Nicholas ... just a finite spanning set ... no need for linear independence.
 
Ah, so we have a set that spans our vector space. meaning every vector can be written as a linear combination of these guys. but we dont require linear independence. so its a weaker notion of a basis?
 
LOL, it's the notion of span :P
 
@MatheinBoulomenos if $R$ is a ring and $M$ and $N$ are $R$-modules, then what can we say about $M^\ast \otimes_R N \to \operatorname{Hom}_R(M,N)$?
lol
 
@LeakyNun there's always a natural map $\operatorname{Hom}_R(M,N) \otimes_S F \to \operatorname{Hom}_R(M,N \otimes_S F)$ where $M$ is a left $R$-module $N$ is a $(R,S)$-bimodule and $F$ is a left $S$-module
 
5:18 PM
@Secret interesting
perhaps that might be useful
or perhaps not
 
@MatheinBoulomenos is that relevant?
 
it might be better after all to go with sacrificing the chain rule if it actually gets that complicated to force it back in
 
@LeakyNun take $R=S=N$
 
N?????
 
@TedShifrin so am i right or what?
 
5:20 PM
@LeakyNun it's my name for an $(R,S)$-bimodule
 
About what, @Nicholas?
 
@NicholasRoberts it's not a weaker notion of a basis, it's the notion of span
In linear algebra, the linear span (also called the linear hull or just span) of a set of vectors in a vector space is the intersection of all subspaces containing that set. The linear span of a set of vectors is therefore a vector space. Spans can be generalized to matroids and modules. == Definition == Given a vector space V over a field K, the span of a set S of vectors (not necessarily infinite) is defined to be the intersection W of all subspaces of V that contain S. W is referred to as the subspace spanned by S, or by the vectors in S. Conversely, S is called a spanning set of W, and we say...
 
@LeakyNun I meant, consider $R=S$ and take $N=R$ with the usual $(R,R)$-bimodule structure, is that better?
 
I already said that ... grrr.
 
I dont see how a finite generating set is any different from a finite basis without the condition of linear independence
 
5:21 PM
it isn't
 
so yes, a span i suppose
 
but we don't call it "a weaker notion of basis"
we call it "span"
 
@TheGreatDuck Well nobody said that a differential algebra cannot have a chain rule
 
Ordinarily a basis is defined to be a set that spans and is linearly independent.
 
ok, but in terms of describing things in english, it is a weaker notin of a basis
 
5:21 PM
As long product rule is intact, you should be fine
 
So you're removing one of the criteria for basis.
 
@NicholasRoberts do you have a different definition of basis?
 
Yes, so its a generalization of a basis
 
oh godforsaken
 
@Nicholas: It's like saying a ring is a weaker notion of field. I don't like it.
 
5:22 PM
@LeakyNun there are some sufficient conditions for it to be an isomorphism: if $M$ is finitely generated projective it works. If $M$ is finitely presented and $F$ is flat, it also is an isomorphism
 
@Secret differential algebra?
explain
 
Forget about it, Nicholas.
 
please
:-)
 
@MatheinBoulomenos is that always injective?
@NicholasRoberts no, I don't forget about it
 
5:23 PM
@LeakyNun not sure
 
@TheGreatDuck Are you still developing that piecewise continous functon derivative thing?
 
I'll debate with you until you stop saying that it's a weaker notion of a basis
 
throws away the popcorn and leaves in disgust
 
working with it yes
i have a solid definition now
 
5:23 PM
because if so, you are dealing with a differential algevra
In mathematics, differential rings, differential fields, and differential algebras are rings, fields, and algebras equipped with finitely many derivations, which are unary functions that are linear and satisfy the Leibniz product rule. A natural example of a differential field is the field of rational functions C(t) in one variable, over the complex numbers, where the derivation is the differentiation with respect to t. Differential algebra refers also to the area of mathematics consisting in the study of these algebraic objects and their use for an algebraic study of the differential equations...
 
i mean other than the definition of step funtion not being quite right maybe
 
@LeakyNun what is wrong with that?
 
a linearly independent set is like a basis without the condition of a generating set.
Similarly, a subset of a vector space is like a basis without the conditions of generating set or linear independence
 
@NicholasRoberts how do you define a basis?
 
@Secret flips table. arrrgh. someone told me it wasnt a differential algebra
it is?
 
5:24 PM
won't feed the troll any more
 
@TedShifrin are you calling me a troll?
 
How is it not a differential algebra when a derivative operator is involved?
 
A basis a set of vectors, linear independent, such that every vector in your VS can be described as a linear combination of the basis elements over the field the VS is defined over
@LeakyNun
 
i was told something along the lines of a differential algebra being a type of ring or something closed under a derivative type operation
 
@NicholasRoberts so we agree that a basis is a spanning set that is linearly independent
 
5:25 PM
i.e. that "differential" is a misnomer
 
@LeakyNun yea!
 
now i suspect they were just lying
or confused
 
@NicholasRoberts would you agree that it's nonsense to say that a linearly independent set is a basis without the condition of being a spanning set?
 
@TheGreatDuck It is usually defined on a ring or a field
 
ah ok
 
5:26 PM
@LeakyNun Haha, yeah it seems silly
 
@TheGreatDuck He is talking about Nicholas
 
oh ok
 
@NicholasRoberts then how is it not nonsense to do the other thing?
 
@LeakyNun fair point!
 
sorry @TedShifrin. I thought you were implying my confusion was insincere.
 
5:27 PM
@TedShifrin you can come back
 
Also, not trolling. not sure why someone said that
 
well thanks @Secret
 
@Leaky: It's still too scary.
 
lol
 
at least now I can say i work with "differential algebra" instead of just blindly saying "I don't know what this thing counts as."
 
5:27 PM
@Ted at least you should clean up the confusion brought to the innocent duck
 
I didn't say a word to poor innocent duck ... although in the past he frustrated me plenty.
 
lets not call me innocent
thats a bit harsh
 
@TheGreatDuck However, as I have said earlier, your system involves not just step functions, but something like constant function with many removable singularities, and these isolated points will pose challenge to any notion of derivative
 
Not sure how someone asking genuine questions is called a troll...
 
the derivative isnt unique in that sense
that's why
 
5:29 PM
You have to focus on working out e.g. the composition of two heaviside functions
 
@MatheinBoulomenos a monoid is a local field that doesn't need to be equipped with a locally compact totally disconnected non-discrete topology, that doesn't need multiplicative inverses, that doesn't need commutativity of addition, that doesn't need additive inverses, and that doesn't need a multiplication at all
 
@Secret already understand that issue
it handles itself
@Secret honestly the operation is much more closely more and more to an anti-integral.
 
@LeakyNun I think this discussion is over
 
ok
 
when the input is continuous anyways
 
5:30 PM
but fair point
 
But anyway, without seeing all the axioms involved, I cannot say much more, especially you said you have thrown away whatever I have read in your document a year ago
 
Also a set is like a scheme that doesn't come with a structure sheaf or a topology
 
it;s simple secret
 
@MatheinBoulomenos brilliant
a topological space is a hausdorff space whose diagonal doesn't need to be closed
 
@LeakyNun we're being mean, it was an honest question
 
5:33 PM
ok
 
@Secret for some function F(x) let $g(y,z)$ and $C(x)$ be a pair of functions such that $g$ has a partial derivative with respect to $y$ and $C(x)$ is piecewise constant. Then $f(x) = \partial_y g(x,C(x))$ is an implied derivative of $F$. Neither $g$ nor $C$ is unique so there are infinitely many such derivatives.
the current issue right now is that the chain rule doesnt exist for this operation
but if that is normal, then meh
so be it
 
@MatheinBoulomenos if $v \in \Bbb H\setminus \Bbb R$ then $qvq^{-1} \in \Bbb H \setminus \Bbb R$?
oh no, stupid question
@MatheinBoulomenos oh no that isn't what I wanted to ask
if $v \in \Bbb H$ with $\Re(v) = 0$, then $\Re(qvq^{-1}) = 0$?
 
@LeakyNun yes. The conjugation action of $\Bbb H^\times$ is orthogonal because of the multiplicativity of the absolute value wrt. quaternionic multiplication and conjugation leaves $\Bbb R$ invariant, so it also leaves the orthogonal complement invariant which consists of purely imginary quaternions
 
ich folge nicht
 
@MatheinBoulomenos it wasn't an honest query. The user was asking the same thing yesterday as well.
 
5:44 PM
@TheGreatDuck ted wasn't referring to you
 
@LeakyNun i know
 
neither is MB
 
i know
im referring to nathan
i mean nicholas
nicholas was very much trolling
 
he wasn't either
 
@LeakyNun ted was correct about nicholas trolling
nicholas asked the exact same things yesterday
he's just looking for attention
i remember him here
 
5:47 PM
@LeakyNun the statement is just that the map $v \mapsto qvq^{-1}$ preserves the standard norm, because $\|qvq^{-1}\|=\|q\|\|v\|\|q\|^{-1}=\|v\|$ it's also $\Bbb R$-linear, so it's an orthogonal map.So $\Bbb R$ is invariant under this map, thus it's orthogonal complement will be invariant as well
And the orthogonal complement of $\Bbb R$ in $\Bbb H$ are those quaternions with real part $0$
@TheGreatDuck oh that's good to know
 
@MatheinBoulomenos got it
@MatheinBoulomenos I'm proud of myself
 
I mean I might be wrong, but I recall seeing them here yesterday being annoying.
 
@LeakyNun lol, that was just a misunderstanding
 
what is
 
hi , $F$ is a field with $char(F) = p$ , $K/F$ is galios extention of order $p$. given $\sigma \in Gal(K/F)$ i need to show that $ker(\sigma -id) = F$. the inclusion $F \subset ker(\sigma -id)$ is easy, im not sure how to show the reversed one.
someone can help ?
 
5:50 PM
our discussion about möbius pedagogy
 
ok
is that relevant?
 
@Secret that doc was written 3 months ago
btw
 
@LeakyNun I thought you were refering to that
 
no, I was referring to what I linked
 
@Liad what does it mean for an element to be in the kernel of $\sigma - \operatorname{id}$? Write it out and see if a rearrangement helps
 
5:51 PM
$\sigma(x) = x$ @MatheinBoulomenos
why this would imply $x\in F$
 
okay, so it's fixed by $\sigma$. What do you know from Galois theory about fixed things?
 
hmm
 
@Secret Did you read the section on differential forks in my original paper?
 
@Liad that's false
 
about an element that is fixed im not sure if i know something .. @MatheinBoulomenos
 
5:53 PM
@Liad you need $\sigma \neq id$ by the way
 
@MatheinBoulomenos yea it is a generator of the group
sorry for not mentioning that..
 
okay, so it will be fixed by the whole group
 
right
but why it cant be in $K - F$ ?
 
Are you sure you don't know something about elements fixed by the Galois group?
 
maybe its related to a statement/theorem i did study but i cant see it now
is it related to galios mapping @MatheinBoulomenos ?
 
5:56 PM
@Liad do you know Galois theory?
 
Hi
 
@MatheinBoulomenos ooooooh
burntttttt
 
@MatheinBoulomenos i know the mapping theorem
if that's what you mean
 
@Educ hi
 
@Educ hello
 
5:57 PM
I don't know algebra of that sort
:-(
 
reading how to build Z, I didn't understand this sentence : "To visualize this, draw (in Quadrant I only) the set of lines y = x -c, where c is an integer. All points on the line y = x - c are in the same equivalence class; this equivalence class is the integer c."
 
@Liad tell me what you know about the mapping theorem, I'm not sure what you mean
 
could someone please draw me this please ?
 
alright
 
5:58 PM
assuming $L/K$ is a finite galios extention then $[L:K] = |Gal(L/K)|$ and there is a one-to-one correspondence between subgroups of $Gal(L/K)$ and subfields of $L/K$. @MatheinBoulomenos
also
 
@TheGreatDuck I read I think 2 pages. If I recall it basically determines what functions will behave like constant function under that fork
 
the idea is that Z is built to solve the problem that you can't subtract a large thing from a small thing @Educ
so you say, pretend we can
 
order of subgroup = index in big extension, degree over base field = index of subgroup@MatheinBoulomenos
 
then denote the result of 2-4 as (2,4) formally @Educ
 
and the mapping reverse the inclusion
 
5:59 PM
and then you say, oh 2-4 should be the same as 1-3, so you relate (2,4) and (1,3) with an equivalence relation @Educ
 

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