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7:01 PM
@IceInkberry you mean one root tending to infinity and other -infinity
 
Anonymous
@Jasmine Yeah
 
@IceInkberry then it's fine
 
Anonymous
@AvnishKabaj You know what, I forgot to switch off my data connection and your ping woke me up.
 
Anonymous
(It's past midnight 👻)
 
@IceInkberry ghosts are real
<proceeds to tell the story of the stackexchange ghost>
 
7:11 PM
is there a good, new horror movie
 
@AvnishKabaj please share..
 
A user just like any other
Was using the network
 
Weighing The Human Soul
 
Just like any other user during the witching hour
 
7:14 PM
They say the user disappeared
Nobody knows where
 
See this!!
 
Simply not seen again
Some people say
That the user is still here
Alive
In the chat
The ghost of the chat
@Jasmine I've seen tyat
 
Is it your self made story
 
Air in the lungs escapes
@Jasmine no
A bit of lore passed down generations to generations
 
@AvnishKabaj nice story. :-|
@Jasmine lol
 
7:21 PM
@samjoe lol!!!!
Do you know it's a big proof that ghosts exist!
 
@samjoe it's not a story
 
He might be a robot which disappeared because it was stolen but still uses chat
 
7:38 PM
@mercio @mercio As far as I can see these conjectures don't make sense. I have tried to compile all I have and want again in this way:
 
Hey. Trying to work through this probability theory exercise, and am a little stuck on part (b). imgur.com/a/p9Sb4FW
 
@mercio:
Let $H \subset G$ (be finite groups (is that really required?)).

\subsection*{Conjecture}

If $G$ does not contain any irreducible representation
that branches into more than two under restriction to any of its subgroups
and $V$ is an irreducible representation of $G$, such that
when restricted to $H$ branches into exactly two irreps $V = \V_1 \oplus V_2$,
then there exists one irreducible representation $W$ of $G$ such that
$ W = [V \oplus V]^- = \subseteq V_1 \oplus V_2 $ which is one and
 
In particular, I'm struggling to show that P(B) = P(\cup_k G_k) >= a.
The other inequality is straightforward, since P(B) =P(\cup_k G_k) = P(\cup_k H_k) = lim_k P(H_k) <= a since P(H_k) <=a for all k.
in the penultimate equality, I use the continuity of measure from below.
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum What does branching mean? When a restriction of an irrep is no longer irreducible?
 
@MikeMiller: the decomposition of an irrep of a group restricted to a subgroup into the irreps of the subgroup is the branching.
 
7:44 PM
Sure. I am a little confused. There are not many irreps of cyclic groups (they are all 1-dimensional over C) so your irreps which don't branch more than twice must be at most 2-dimensional?
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum So by branching into two, you mean having at most two distinct irreducible summands?
(but possibly having those summands multiple times each)
 
Hi @TobiasKildetoft
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Hi
 
@MikeMiller: I stopped that dimension stuff, since that lead to confusion (the one talks over $\Bbb C$ and the other $\Bbb R$ (me)). Since only when you talk over $\Bbb R$ you can say that branching in two at most is also 2-dim. But then people didn't like thinking over R.
 
I'm probably missing some inequality, but I don't understand how to show the lower bound, and a hint would be great.
 
7:48 PM
Hi @MatheinBoulomenos; @TobiasKildetoft!
 
Hi @Rudi_Birnbaum
 
I see, so this is like saying that there are at most two weights of the cyclic group
 
"under restriction to any of its subgroups " that's very restricting given that the trivial subgroup only has trivial irreducibles
so it implies that G's irreducible representations have dimension at most 2
 
It depends if we talk over $\Bbb R$, or over $\Bbb C$.
 
@Tobias I think I solved the positive basis problem in the semisimple case, but I need to make sure I understand the results in your paper correctly
 
7:50 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos Cool
 
wait where did i copy that from
when yo usay "any" do you mean "for all" or "there exists" ?
 
@mercio: But "at most two" is correct anyway
 
@TobiasKildetoft so if we suppose that $A$ is a positively based algebra, then we can look at the cell module and this will have a Perron-Frobenius element, right? And that gives us a subquotient of dimension 1?
 
@mercio: "for all" but I wanted emphasise that its always the same one $W$ for all $H$.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos No, the Perron-Frobenius element is an element of the algebra, and it is not one of the basis elements (so it is not an element of any cell)
 
7:52 PM
oh, nevermind then
 
Woops, you said cell-module, not cell
The cell module is a quotient of an ideal of the algebra
 
yeah
but the only thing that really matters for me is: do we get a one-dimensional module?
 
with a basis corresponding to the given cell
Not in general, no
 
so are you saying that if there is a representation $V$ that can branch into 2 for some subgroup $H$, then there is an irrep in the deocmposition of $(V \otimes V)^-$ that never branches no matter the subgroup ?
 
ah, damn, I interpreted a remark like that
 
7:54 PM
@mercio: yep! thats the special one I need!!
 
@MatheinBoulomenos The cell module will have the same dimension as the number of elements in the cell, and it sometimes happens that the cell module is simple
 
@TobiasKildetoft I thought that corollary 3 said that you have one, my bad
 
(without the cell having just one element that is)
 
so you are saying that if there is a representation $V$ that can branch into 2 for some subgroup $H$, then there is an irrep in the decomposition of $(V \otimes V)^−$ that has dimension 1 ?
 
@mercio: I once compared it to "-1" but some thought its a bad comparison
 
7:55 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos Ahh, the $[\cdot:\cdot]$ there refers to composition multiplicity
 
@mercio: yes
 
@TobiasKildetoft ah, okay that's what confused me
 
Note that $L$ might be neither a submodule nor a quotient (at least a priori, no idea of an example where it really is neither)
 
okay hmm
at least I managed to show that having a one-dimensional module is sufficient for semisimple algebras (that's really elementary)
 
that's a pretty strange statement
 
7:58 PM
would an example help?
 
@TobiasKildetoft do you know an example of a semisimple positively-based algebra with no one-dimensional module?
 
@mercio: wait
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Hmm
 
I'd conjecture that this is necessary and sufficient for semisimple modules to have a one-dimensional module
 
@mercio: no fine its correct: "If there is a representation $V$ that can branch into 2 for some subgroup $H$, then there is an irrep in the decomposition of $(V \otimes V)^−$ that has dimension 1"
 
8:01 PM
all group algebras and I think quiver algebras satisfy this
 
interesting
true
 
do you have examples of all 3 cases of the truth table ?
 
@mercio: me?
 
yeah
 
i don't get the question
what is a truth table?
 
8:04 PM
@TobiasKildetoft in case you're interested, the proof for sufficiency (it works over any field contained in $\Bbb C$) define a non-unital positive basis in the obvious way. Then if $A$ and $B$ have non-unital positive basis, so does $A \times B$ and $k \times A$ has a positive basis containing $1$ (where $k$ is the ground field.) The matrix algebra has a non-unital positive basis given by standard matrices, i.e. one entry 1, all other 0, so it follows from Artin-Wedderburn
 
one case where both sides are false, one case where both sides are true, and one case where the hypothesis is false and the conclusion is true
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Ahh, nice
 
@mercio: oh I see. OK. Do we need true/true as well?
@mercio: Anyway:
 
it's good to have examples for all cases
if you don't then it would be evidence that something even stronger is true
 
@MatheinBoulomenos So showing that it is necessary is the same as showing that there will be some two-sided cell containing just a single element. Probably this will tend to either be the one containing $1$ or a maximal one with respect to the two-sided order
Sorry, a two-sided cell which is also both a left and a right cell
 
8:13 PM
@mercio: D3 = group of order six has 3 irreps A1 (trivial 1dim) A2 (one dimensional) and E (=complex whatever dimension). Under distortion to C3 (this is "direction" A2) they branch to A1->A, A2->A, E->E. Now in D3 $[ExE]^- = A2$ and in C3 $E x E = A + [A] + E$, and A2->A so it holds. OK?
 
So question: If we have a basis element $x$ such that $1$ occurs in $yxz$ for some $y$ and $z$. Does it hold that $1$ occurs in $wx$ for some $w$?
 
um
E branches into 2 parts if you restrict to the cyclic 3-subgroup
(C3 is cyclic right ?)
 
Yes and one A is in the symmetric part and the other A is the anti-symmetric part.
and Yes cyclic order three. E branches to E
 
but you wrote E -> E
 
@mercio: E in D3 restricts to E in C3
 
8:16 PM
no
 
C3 is abelian all its irreducible representations have dimension 1
 
@mercio: My tables say "The single “E” re­presen­tation is reducible but almost behaves like a true irreducible re­presen­tation.
Its norm, however, is twice the group order. Therefore, is has been marked with an asterisk in the table.
This is essential when trying to decompose a reducible re­presen­tation into “irreducible” ones using the familiar projection formula."
 
õ..o
 
@mercio: So I need to cover these cases in this way. Maybe there is a more stringent way for that ...?
 
8:19 PM
so is E reducible or not ????????????????
 
@mercio: Or maybe we get the same result when we reduce it.
 
what result
 
Conjecture 1
 
well then the hypothesis is true for E
 
so to what does E then branch in C3
?
 
8:20 PM
since is splits for most subgroups
it branches into two complex 1-dimensional representations
C3 has 3 irreducible representations, basically (1), (ζ3), (ζ3²)
the three cubic roots of unity
 
Yes and then A will be of course contained as well in the product of these, so: no panic!
 
@MatheinBoulomenos I need to go now, but the above question is what I think needs to be shown to show that the condition is necessary.
 
@TobiasKildetoft okay, I'll think about it. See you!
 
anyway, any irreducible representation of dimension 2 will have both sides to true
 
8:23 PM
so now you should give irreducible representations of higher dimension
 
SO true true is done?
yes
 
well yeah
 
simplest is "T" 12 elements a "chiral" tetrahedron
 
o..o
 
8:24 PM
orientation-preserving isometries of the tetrahedron ?
A4 ?
 
sounds right
there are three tetrahedral groups, thats the smallest one
The other two have 24 elements
each
we call them T_d and T_h
In T there is again that complex E ... but I hope we can get over that ...
 
I would rant but A4 isn't much better if you don't know it's an alternating group
so A4 has 3 irreducible representations, right ?
 
Yes: A,E,T, they are 1,2,3 dimesnional
 
oh wait
are you suggesting that 1²+2²+3² = 12
 
but here its again the strange 2-dimensions which are actually two complex one dimensional
 
8:28 PM
okay it has 4 then
 
it you miss weight 1/2
 
õ..o
 
1^2 + 1/2 2^2 + 3^2
 
1²+1²+1²+3²
 
Lets take Th
 
8:30 PM
we aren't done with T
does that 3-dimensional representation branch into 2 for some of the many subgroups of A4 ?
 
But we keep on confusing us about that "E" that is for me 2-
and for you 2 x 1 one dimesnsional ...
OK
My rotation is now contained in the irrep $T$
 
the theorem is going to be 4 times as complicated to state if you work over $\Bbb R$ instead of $\Bbb C$ like any respectable mathematician would do
what is T
I thought it was A4
 
A = 1.dim, E=2-dim and T=3 dim.
 
"simplest is "T" 12 elements a "chiral" tetrahedron"
 
sry ...
:-)
 
8:32 PM
did your mom never tell you not to give 2 people the same name
 
OK so ExE contains A ⊕ [A] ⊕ E
 
so next you have to check the branching of T over all the subgroups of T
what does that bracket mean
 
T always branches since no smaller group has Ts
antisymmetric part
 
yeah but you said "exactly 2" in your statement
it could branch into 3 things
but T has dimension 3 so the antisymmetric part should have dimension 3
 
yes but thats for those cases where the conjecture holds
now we look at a case where it doesn't hold
 
8:35 PM
are you saying your conjecture is false ?
then we can pack up
 
Stop, I don't get it
 
the ocnjecture is of the form "if A is true then B is true"
you meant to say that this is a case where A is false
 
yes
T is a counter example
 
in that case the conjecture would be true
sigh
 
Yes its always true
 
8:36 PM
a counter example to what ?
so don't say that the conjecture doesn't hold
 
it can't be a counterexample if the conjecture doesn't apply!
 
sry forget it
it hold always
 
so in order to show that the assumption (A) is false, you need to check that the branching always branch into 3 things
for every subgroup of A4
 
What is the assumption (A)?
 
it is that E branches into exactly 2 irreducible parts for some subgroup H of A4
and the conclusion (B) is that the antisymmetric part of E² has an irreducible representation (for G) of dimension 1
 
8:39 PM
But T is no example for that. Its an counterexample. its non-(A)
 
but you haven't showed me that it was non A
 
its a little strange that you're doing this algebra stuff but can't get first order logic down, I'll admit!
 
maybe it is A
you have to check all the subgroups
(as you have written your conjecture)
 
It has ony four subgrpoups (simplest): D2, C3, C2, C1
 
that D2 is cracking me up
they are all commutative, right ?
then yeah E always branch into 3 1-dimensional representations
 
8:43 PM
E branches in "A+A", "E", "A+A" ... hmmm maybe better to replace "exactly" by "at most" ..
 
it's amazing how we keep contradicting each other
 
Yes that "exactly two" is non-sense
 
the fact that you work over $\Bbb R$ is also a pain
 
I thought the maximum number of branchings would be a nice way to circumvent that
 
@mercio The more math I learn the more common this sentence becomes
 
8:46 PM
of course
$\Bbb R$ is ugly
 
not analytically!
 
So the conjecture actually does not use R or C. Problem is I have all my intuition from $\Bbb R$
 
well yo ucould add "over $\Bbb R$" in the statement
 
I admitt its ugly
 
but then I would have to rethink all the examples
 
8:47 PM
But I don't want it ugly
And I have still no idea how to say "E" in complex
 
E $\otimes \Bbb C$
 
Hey
 
The tensor product of "any over reals two dimensional irrep with the complex numbers"?
hi @geocalc33
 
well I should have written E $\otimes_{\Bbb R} \Bbb C$ to be precise
are you picturing a rotation of order 3 in the plane when you think about E ?
 
for example
but wait, this is so to say the very core of the problem..
Can one picture an irrep for a group operation? That is what I do no get at all.
 
8:54 PM
well a representation over the reals of dimension 2
is an action of G on the plane
the real plane
 
"real plane"?
 
$\Bbb R^2$
as opposed to $\Bbb C^2$, his prettier brother
 
yes in the representation space
but the $C_3$ operation lives as a group element
 
actually E is a representation of all of G, not just C3
should be*
 
exactly
and thats where I hang, beacuse the following
:
lets assume I could assign the E to any rotation operations in the group
 
8:57 PM
?w??
 
then the thing would be trivial
 
??w?
 
in the two Es there is that rotation and by multiplying these two Es, I get it back in the antisymmetric part.
thats kind of how it feels
 
Im not following
 
That "peculiar irrep" we have called "W" in the conjecture above, remember?
 
8:59 PM
is it the one that I said is reducible ?
that for you it is of dimension 2 over the reals ?
 
no the one which is contained
 
because the anitsymmetric part was about the product of the representation of dimension 3 with itself
the one which is contained ?
 
no of dim2 with itself
three does not work, its not in the conjectire
 
no we are looking at T with itself
well 1 does not work either
and even over the reals, you will again get a decomposition of the tensor square into 3+1 so yes there is an irrep of dimension 1 in the antisymmetric part
 
in irrep TxT it is actually contained. but not in ExE
the antisymmetric part of TxT only contains T
 
9:02 PM
maybe
 
Hi @Ted
 
hi @Mathein
 
my talk on Bezout went really well :)
 
oh great :)
were there some good questions?
 
they asked for counterexamples with less assumptions for some stuff
 
9:04 PM
ah, well, you had thought about that one
 
What I mean is that the groups without any higher dimensional irreps than those E ones bet it two complex 1-d or one real 2-d. In those the conjecture holds.
 
I had a lot of counterexamples: projective points that you can't see in the affine part, multiplicities, non-real points, weird stuff in finite fields where a curve is the whole projective plane, quaternions where the zero set of a one-variable polynomial is topologically a 2-sphere (so not quite finite) etc
 
yeah cuz the one of dimension 1 can't branch and the one of dimension 2 have an antisymmetric square of dimension 1
 
cool @Mathein :)
 
9:08 PM
But also in all those cases the product of the branches gives that irrep. In other cases not.
 
hi @Alessandro
 
So the branching lifts that degeneracy from these higher order axis.
 
What is the limit as s approaches 1 of zeta(s)^1/log(x)?
 
But when we trace the irreps into which that branches we get the right irrep back in the product
 
9:11 PM
I managed to simplify some proofs (and actually complete some proofs, some steps were unjustified in my opinion) over the the source material by establishing some easy properties of the operator $k[X_1, \dots, X_N] \to \Bbb{A}^n(k), f \mapsto V(f)$. (So only for principal ideals) The weak Nullstellensatz for principal ideals is for example a straightforward consequence of the definition of algebraically closed.
I used homogenization to get the statements in the projective case
 
And the reason for that must be somehow that these E irreps come from the higher order axis. And multiplying them gives you in the antisymmetric part the rotation around the main axis. When I now distort the symmetry that connection still holds as long as I know which are the two irreps that came from the E.
 
And in some way I proved the first theorem on resultants before even defining them: The resultant is zero iff the polynomials have a common factor. Because that proof is the motivation for the definition in the first place. Just writing down the Sylvester matrix is very unmotivated
 
But that argument suffers from that it connects some single group element with some single irrep. A strange correspondence ..
 
@TedShifrin what is the limit as s approaches 1 of zeta(s)^1/lnx?
 
@TedShifrin one thing the author used without proof was that finite unions of curves and points never cover the projective plane. It's not hard to see, but I don't think it's completely obvious if you don't have any notion of dimension etc. (and you need at least that your field is infinite)
 
9:20 PM
I don't know, @geocalc.
 
@mercio: I have to go to bed now.
 
How would I analytically go about solving such a limit
 
good night
 
good night!
 
Right, @Mathein: Although maybe there's a way (in the case of infinite fields, of course) to reduce to some single-variable facts about polynomials only having finitely many roots.
(Intersect the picture with a generic line.)
 
9:23 PM
@TedShifrin that's exactly how I did it. Just do it inductively, view the polynomial as a one-variable polynomial in $k[x_1, \dots, x_{n-1}] [x_n]$, then by the inductive hypothesis, you can find $a_1, \dots, a_{n-1}$ such that the leading coefficient doesn't vanish, then $f(a_1, \dots, a_{n-1},x)$ is not the zero polynomial
 
Right ... not a big deal.
 
yeah, I didn't say it's difficult, but I think you have to say something about it
 
When I wrote my algebra book and included a chapter on projective geometry and my favorite result (how many lines meet 4 lines in general position in $\Bbb P^3$?) ... I had to write a few exercises to do very elementary arguments like that.
(Especially since we had really only studied polynomials in one variable carefully.)
 
sometimes Gauss lemma arguments can reduce it to that, that's what I did in my talk at some places
 
Hmm ... Artin actually states a generalized Gauss lemma for more variables.
 
9:28 PM
it's just the usual Gauss lemma applied a bunch of times, it gives you that $k[x_1, \dots, x_{n-1}]$ is a UFD, then you can use the relation of irreducible polynomials in $k[x_1, \dots, x_{n-1}][x_n]$ and $k(x_1, \dots, x_{n-1})[x_n]$
it's a bit confusing, there are some related statement that are all called Gauss lemma
 
Hey, I'd asked this question a couple of hours with no luck so I'll shameless bump it. The problem is here: imgur.com/a/p9Sb4FW. It is part (b) (I solved (a) above it). Following the hint, it is rather straightforward to see that P(B) <= a, since P(B) = P(\cup_k H_k) = lim_k P(H_k) <= a, since 0 < P(H_k) <= a for all k.
But I am having difficulty getting the lower bound P(B) >= a.
 
(and some unrelated statements, too, but I don't want to talk about normal coordinates)
@TedShifrin what I did in my talk was applying a projective transformation such that $f(0,0,1) \neq 0 \neq g(0,0,1)$ for the polynomials I had and then this implies that there is some $Z^k$ term with no $X$ or $Y$, thus the content as an element in $k[X,Y] [Z]$ is $1$ and then Gauss lemma applies
 
OK.
 
I thought that's clever when I saw it in the reference
 
10:06 PM
Hi all, I have a question
 
ask it!
 
If $A = \{u_1, u_2\}$ and $B = \{v_1, v_2\}$ are subsets of a vector space $V$ so that the union of $A$ and $B$ is linearly independent, and I need to find z $\in V$ , knowing that z is a linear combination of the elements of $A$ and $B$ simultaneously
Is it true that z is the 0 vector? Or is it just $av_1 + bv_2 + cu_1 + du_2$ ?
 
what does it mean that "z is a linear combination of the elements of A and B simultaneously?"
 
you need to find z such that z=av_1+bv_2+cu_1+du_2 like you said
 
Hi 😉, Does someone know what is the dual problem of the linear problem minimize $c^tx$ subject to Ax=b, $x\ge 0$?
 
10:10 PM
Yes
 
what are the restrictions on (a, b, c, d)?
can it be (1, 0, 0, 1) for example?
or does it need to have all nonzero entries.
user441848, what is the Lagrangian
 
I was under the impression that a set $A$ is only LI if the coefficients in the span are all 0
rather
 
ugh. Jake S you're not understanding my question.
when you say "z is a linear combination of the elemtns of A and B simultaneously" do you mean that it is a nontrivial linear combination of every element in A and B or a nontrivial linear combination of at least 1 element of A and B?
 
Well, the exercise is written exactly how I stated. I think it would be the former.
 
@DrewBrady $L(x,u,v)=f(x)+\sum ug_i(x)+\sum vh_i(x)$, in this problem would be $L(x,v)=c^tx+\sum v(Ax-b)$ ?
 
10:14 PM
user441848, the way you figure it out is you write the lagrangian L(x, u, v) = c^T x + u^T(b - Ax) - v^Tx
 
My reasoning was:
$A \cup B$ is LI. $u \in A = (\alpha u_1 + \alpha u_2)$ and likewise for $v \in B$
 
@DrewBrady where does -v^Tx come from?
 
because x >= 0 is the inequalities -x_i <= 0 for i = 1, ..., n
 
Then $z \in V$, linear combination of $A$ and $B$, is $z = \alpha_1 u_1 + \alpha_2 u_2 + \beta_1 v_1 + \beta_2 v_2$
 
now you need to infimize L(x, u, v) in the primal variable x.
 
10:17 PM
sorry, forgot to add subindices to distinguish alphas and betas
But assuming what I said is true, I'm not sure if z is what I wrote and to leave it there, or if i can furthermore conclude that z must be the 0 vector.
 
it will be helpful to rewrite the lagrangian as L(x, u, v) = (c -v - A^T u)^T x + u^Tb
 
What do you think, @DrewBrady?
 
this immediately implies that one dual problem is: maximize u^T b subject to c - v - A^T u = 0.
oops with the constraint also that v>= 0
 
Sorry Drew, I can see that the other problem you're helping user441848 with is probably more engaging, I would just like to know if my reasoning is faulty and I should express z as I already have or if I can conclude more about z.
 
obviously, this is equivalent to maximize u^T b subject to c - A^T u >= 0, equivalently, maximize u^T b subject to A^Tu <= c
Jake S I don't understand what you're asking.
You know that A cup B is a set of linearly independent vectors.
so now what? what are you trying to do
 
10:28 PM
I know that A cup B is a set of LI vectors
 
okay...
so what is the question then
 
Previously, I used that to simply conclude that $z \in V = \alpha_1u_1 + \alpha_2u_2 + \beta_1v_1 + \beta_2v_2$
 
where V = A cup B?
 
would you mind to explain the immediately implies that one dual problem is: maximize u^T b subject to c - v - A^T u = 0.
with the constraint v>= 0 ? I don't see it
 
or rather where V is the span of A cup B?
user441848 what is the Lagrangian
 
10:30 PM
I assume so, but I'm not given that data, I'm merely told that A and B are subsets of V and that their union is linearly independent
Is that enough to conclude that V is the span of A cup B?
 
I don't know! what is V and what is z? I'm unclear about the question!!!
 
@DrewBrady this L(x, u, v) = (c -v - A^T u)^T x + u^Tb
 
Right. Suppose that c - v- A^T u is non-zero. What does that mean.
 
Haha, but I'm not given any more information! If it's lacking data I should assume the simplest answer, in all likelihood.
Because it was meant to be solvable as presented.
 
no. Jake tell me the entire question again verbatim, you're obviously missing details.
 
10:33 PM
Let $A = \{u_1, u_2\}$ and $B = \{v_1, v_2\}$ be two subsets of the vector space $V$, such that $A \cup B$ is linearly independent. Find $z \in V$, such that $z$ is a linear combination of the elements of $A$ and the elements of $B$ simultaneously.
 
hmm
 
That is the entire question, verbatim from the worksheet I'm staring at.
 
@DrewBrady I don't know what could I say about it
 
@MatheinBoulomenos can you take a limit along a line such as y=x instead of from the left or right?
 
not that if c is a vector, then c is zero iff c^T x = 0 for all x in R^n.
 
10:34 PM
Or along a geodesic
 
@DrewBrady that's right
 
Jake S. I don't understand. why wouldn't you just say u_1 + u_2 + v_1 + v_2? that is obviously a linear combination of the elements of A and B. It doesn't have anything to do with the fac that A cup B is linearly indepednent..
okay. so now apply that to this problem....
^ user441848
 
I guess that's a sufficient answer, maybe
 
@DrewBrady then we just have (-v-A^T u)^T x+u^ T b
 
lol try again.
note that just because I used c in the example above does not mean I'm talking about the same c in your problem statement!
 
10:42 PM
@DrewBrady :( have to go now hope to find you here later :) And thnk you so much for your help
 
@geocalc33 if your function is defined on $\Bbb R^2$, then you can take the limit along such a a line, yeah
 
Hey, I'd asked this question a more than a couple of hours with no luck so I'll shameless bump it. The problem is here: imgur.com/a/p9Sb4FW. It is part (b) (I solved (a) above it). Following the hint, it is rather straightforward to see that P(B) <= a, since P(B) = P(\cup_k H_k) = lim_k P(H_k) <= a, since 0 < P(H_k) <= a for all k.
But I am having difficulty getting the lower bound P(B) >= a.
 

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