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8:00 PM
 
¿
 
@skull Please do not abuse the deletion feature to post temporary messages. Self-deletion is meant for things that you posted, then thought better of it, not to hide the content of specfic messages from the transcript.
 
@tatan: I think that problem does not have a unique solution. Both $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=-x$ satisfy the given condition.
 
Hi prof
 
hi skull
 
8:02 PM
Rehi Ted
 
rehi Demonark
 
how are you?
 
I've been mulling over a question tatan asked earlier.
 
I can't understand it even though I've plotted it
@TedShifrin do you mind helping me?
 
What makes you think I can help?
 
8:03 PM
@TedShifrin Thanks prof
 
@ACuriousMind Well, that's a contradictory thing to say. Maybe he did posted it, and then thought better of that joke being part of the transcript!
5
I don't think that particular goal of the deletion feature stands out :P
Hi, by the way.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos Hmm, I think I had more conditions that just basic for that, Possibly something like local? I recall using quivers, but I think the quivers ended up with just a single vertex, which would correspond to the algebra being local.
 
:-D
 
hmm, this seems to make things clearer
 
@loch Oh I forgot to tell you this story relevant to the above. Say $E$ is a real line bundle on $X$. Give it a fiberwise Riemannian metric and take the unit $S^0$-bundle sitting in $E$. That's a double cover of $X$. This is a 1-1 correspondence between real line bundles on $X$ and double covers on $X$.
Now, double covers on $X$ are classified by maps $\pi_1(X) \to \Bbb Z_2$ by the covering space story. By algebra, we have $\text{Hom}(\pi_1(X), \Bbb Z_2) \cong \text{Hom}(H_1(X), \Bbb Z_2) = H^1(X; \Bbb Z/2)$.
So real line bundles on $X$ are in 1-1 correspondence with $H^1(X; \Bbb Z/2)$. I suppose you algebro-geometric people love that.
 
8:16 PM
I'd get that out of an exact sequence of sheaves, myself :P
 
I'd say you're an algebro-geometric people person
So not surprising
 
Lebesgue integral is way cooler than Riemann integral
 
But you can only calculate them using Riemann, Leaky.
So don't be too condescending about it.
 
true
 
Leaky is a Lebesgue Elitist
the very dangerous kind
 
8:18 PM
Why would algebraists like real line bundles? They like Chern classes.
 
::crickets::
 
@MikeMiller hm ok so im trying to figure out what the action is after I identify the unit tangent bundle with $SO(3)$ with $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^3$
 
Unit tangent bundle of $S^2$, you mean.
Ah, you did write "with" not "of".
I can't read.
 
It still doesn't quite scan.
 
loch's writing in words that $T_1 S^2 \cong SO(3) \cong \Bbb{RP}^3$, which is why I couldn't scan the syntax
 
8:31 PM
Yes, I guessed what was intended.
 
@BalarkaSen oh yes i think i learnt this at some point in the past but have forgotten..
 
@loch: Think of $SO(3)$ as oriented orthonormal bases for $\Bbb R^3$.
 
Professor @TedShifrin have you ever talked with Robert Langlands?
 
Nope. Never met him that I recall.
 
yes - so if I identify $SO(3) \rightarrow T_1 S^2$ by mapping $\gamma \mapsto (\gamma(1,0,0), \gamma(0,1,0))$,

then this means that my action on $T_1S^2$ identifies the matrix $[v_1,v_2,v_3]$ to $[-v_1,-v_2,v_3]$ on $SO(3)$
 
8:35 PM
Well, you need point plus basis for tangent space, @loch
I dunno why you're putting minus signs
 
Certainly his conclusion is right though
 
I don't know why the negatives are there, Mike.
 
You would prefer the antipodal map on $T_1 S^2$ act as the identity?
 
I'm not following.
 
Mike asked loch to find what T_1 RP^2 is
 
8:38 PM
T_1 RP^2
 
If $e_3$ is my base point in the sphere, $e_1,e_2$ is an oriented orthonormal basis for $T_{e_3}S^2$.
 
So loch's figuring out what the antipodal action on S^2 extends to T_1 S^2
 
I missed anything about antipodal action. Then $v_3$ should be negated, too.
 
Disagree, this is an orientation thing
 
hm so my $\mathbb{Z}/2$ action on $T_1 S^2$ is given by, if I identify $T_1 S^2 = \{ (p,v) \in S^2 \times S^2 : <p,v> = 0 \}$, sending $(p,v) \mapsto (-p,-v)$.

So I think under the identification with $SO(3)$ as above, it would identify the matrix $\gamma =[v_1,v_2,v_3] \mapsto [-v_1,-v_2,v_3]$
 
8:39 PM
The antipodal map on $S^2$ is orientation-reversing.
Never mind. I'll just leave.
 
cya
 
hm now I'm confused.

anyway assuming what i said is right then i just have to trace through the identification $SO(3)$ to $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^3$
 
@TedShifrin I would be glad to explain arbitrarily much (though I wanted to be careful not to do too much if it was an exercise). I wish you wouldn't try to explain why I was wrong from the start, though.
While the antipodal map on $S^2$ is orientation-reversing, this implies that the induced map on $T^1 S^2$ is orientation-preserving. (It is a nice trick of luck that this is always true, no matter what. We reverse the orientation in the vector-factor as well.)
This is related to the statement that $TM$ is always an orientable manifold.
The reason I am confident with no work that @loch's calculation is correct is that this involution should correspond to an element of SO(3), which can be diagonalized to the element stated.
In terms of orthonormal oriented bases, note that these can be equivalently described by two vectors, the second orthonormal to the first. One sees from this that the action is by $-1$ on these. However, when you identify with oriented orthonormal bases (forgetting the third vector), you see that $(v,w) \mapsto (-v, -w)$ is sent to $(v,w,u) \mapsto (-v,-w,u)$ (so that this is oriented the same way).
So now the remaining task is to understand $SO(3)/(\Bbb Z/2)$. This may be easier to do inside of the double cover, $SU(2)$.
 
Hi, I can somebody help me with the proof that a bounded function on a Jordan null-set is Riemann integrable with integral zero? I have the feeling it's not that difficult though I'm confused with the definitions and can't get it right...
These are my definitions:

- $N \subseteq \Bbb R$ is a Lebesgue null-set, if for all $\varepsilon \gt 0$ there exists a sequence of open cuboids $(Q_l)_l$ such that $N \subseteq \bigcup_l Q_l$ and $\sum_l \text{vol}(Q_l) \lt \varepsilon$.

- The Lebesque theorem states that a function $f: Q \to \Bbb R$ is Riemann integrable iff the set of points where it's not continuous is a Lebesgue null-set.

- $J \subseteq \Bbb R^n$ is Jordan measurable, if there exists a closed cuboid $Q \subseteq \Bbb R^n$ such that $\mathbb 1_J: Q \to \Bbb R$ is Riemann integrable. We define $\text{vol}(J) = \int_Q 1
---

So let $J \subseteq \Bbb R^n$ be a Jordan null-set. Then $J$ is Jordan measurable which means there exists a closed cuboid $Q \subseteq \Bbb R^n$ such that $\mathbb 1_J: Q \to \Bbb R$ is Riemann integrable.

Now how do I conclude that also $\mathbb 1_Jf: Q \to \Bbb R$ is Riemann integrable?
 
right - so i think the action there is also right multiplication by $[-e_1, -e_2, e_3]$ ($e_i$ being my standard basis)

and i think the preimage of this in $SU(2)$ is $\pm [ (i,0); (0,-i)]$
 
8:53 PM
Ayup
 
so looking at $SU(2) = S^3$, multiplying this matrix on the right is the action sending $(x,y,z,w) \mapsto (-y,x,w,-z)$. So I'm modding out this action and $\{ \pm 1 \}$ hmm
 
Have you heard of lens spaces?
 
9:09 PM
ah i've heard of them but somehow we never spent much time on them in my classes

but at least i remember an example would be modding out $S^1$ by $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$
So here I'm modding out $S^3$ by $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$
 
(Check out, say, the wikipedia page)
it is also Hatcher 2.43
 
hm ok - so the upshot is they are orientable e.g. by Hatcher's 2.43 computation of its homology, knowing that we are modding out $S^3$ by a free action so we still get a closed manifold

and so this is related to what you were saying about the unit bundle of a vector bundle is orientable as a manifold govenrns whether the total space is orientable or not + the fact that the total space of the tangent bundle of a manifold is always orientable (as a manifold)
 
9:26 PM
Yeah, specifically you have shown that $T^1 \Bbb{RP}^2$ is a specific, rather concrete oriented 3-manifold, $L(4,1)$
 
yeah
 
I like that quite a bit :)
 
yeah that's pretty neat - i also never spent too much time on these calculations so it was a good exercise too + I guess I now know some 3 -manifolds that is not $S^3$ or $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^3$ that I should keep in mind :)
thanks!
 
Bob
is LaTex still worth learning? is it out of date?
 
You probably don't have time for this, but I calculated all of the $S^1$ bundles over $\Bbb{RP}^2$ in a similar way with Balarka recently; they all must come as quotients of the circle bundles $L(n,1) \to S^2$ by some involution which is antipodal downstairs
 
9:30 PM
@Bob yes and no
 
(Except for precisely three, which come as quotients of $S^2 \times S^1$)
So you can end up analyzing everything in terms of quotients of $SU(2)$ by subgroups, or $S^2 \times S^1$
 
Bob
@loch are you saying it is worth learning but it is out of date?
 
it is worth learning and it is not out of date
 
Bob
recently I was trying to help a friend learn it and it did not go well
he did not like the fact that it was not wizwig
 
That's what I like about markdown
WYSIWYG as fuck boii
 
Bob
9:33 PM
is markdown a new tool?
I believe it is
thanks and have a nice day
bye
 
@MikeMiller hmm i see. that's pretty neat. i might think about this later this summer.. These things aren't really covered when I learnt alg top but I do want to do a bunch of explicit computations
 
@Bob Yes to the first question, no to the second
@BalarkaSen Isn't markdown when you write _blah_ to write blah?
That's not WYSIWYG
 
I like explicit stuff
 
I mean, WYSI pretty damn close to WYG, but still
WYSIPDCTWYG
 
@AkivaWeinberger That's too stronk for my brain
 
9:39 PM
And you write \_blah\_ to write _blah_
 
\\_blah_\\ ?
aw
\_blah_\
wait i'm doing it wrongnevermind
I almost accidentally drowned in my water bottle ;w;
 
at least your water bottle didn't drown in you
:THEENK:
 
your water bottle has a weird geometry
 
It's an RP^2
 
^
 
9:52 PM
I guess if that's true then I can see why you'd be so disoriented as to drown in it
 
@Daminark @Semiclassical I think I am finally going crazy
 
Did you only just realize? What happened?
:P
 
I keep hearing a man grumbling "Jackie-O" out loud every five minutes
Steven Jess Bernstein has broken me
 
Oh that
Right
Well I guess I've done enough analytic NT, I've still got later to work on it
So now it's time for some algebraic NT commentary
 
pls no nitrotoluene
 
10:03 PM
Sorry fam gotta do it
 
y tho
 
Hmm, should I do that or AT tho? Tough choice
 
AT
that's where your heart is AT
 
That pun is a highly compelling case tbh
 
don't let opinions bias you. just follow the place your heart is AT
 
10:06 PM
algebraic NT > AT
 
ANT belongs AT the trash
 
at least ANT is more than homological algebra + pictures
there are actual proofs
 
Shots fired
 
ANT is just busywork to try to factorize primes
it's a big technicality
 
AG has pictures and proofs!
 
10:11 PM
if pictures count as proofs
 
you need to get your eyes checked if you see pictures in AG
see a doctor my dude
 
commutative diagrams
the best kind of pictures
 
indeed, you have the worst kind of myopia
 
Lmao, I'll get to AG later on perhaps. My sorta short-ish term priorities (aside from exams) are the stuff I'm doing with my algebra prof in NT and going through fundamental groups/covering spaces carefully (mostly the latter, I think I've got $\pi_1$ down aside from the groupoids van Kampen)
 
I'd recommend ANT before AG
 
10:13 PM
please don't learn groupoids van Kampen
it sucks
 
groupoids are great
can't compute $\pi_1(S^1)$ with the usual van Kampen, but it works with groupoid van Kampen
 
I don't actually know the multiple basepoints story. How useful is it?
 
idk, I don't really know ANT
 
(I'm abandoning my silly tone)
 
apparently it generalizes better to higher homotopy groups
 
10:15 PM
Yeah I have heard that
 
basically a lot of the work of Brown was about that
he is cited quite a bit iirc
 
@BalarkaSen yep you're going crazy
 
:O
 
@Semiclassical Are you waiting to receive my body of work?
 
10:18 PM
lol
 
Umm, this is somewhat of a silly question but if I were to ask you what's the rest when you divide $2018$ by $11$ and you happen not to be a computer, what's the most efficient method you can follow to find the answer?
 
Do you know modular arithmetic?
 
Yes
 
Ok. Write $2018 = 2\cdot 10^3 + 0 \cdot 10^2 + 1 \cdot 10^1 + 8$
Notice that $10 = -1 \pmod{11}$.
 
Cover $S^1$ by two open semicircles $U$ and $V$ that intersect in two small arcs and take a basepoint from each of the intersecting arcs, call the set of those two basepoints $X$. As $U$ and $V$ are contractible, $\Pi_1(U,X)$ and $\Pi_1(V,X)$ are just the groupoid with two objects $p$ and $q$ and a unique isomorphism $p \to q$. $\Pi_1(U \cap V, X)$ is the discrete groupoid on two objects,
so the pushout $\Pi_1(S,X)$ is a groupoid with two objects $p$ and $q$ and two isomorphisms $a,b: p \to q$ (and no other relations). So all the powers $(a \circ b^{-1})^n$ are distinct, thus $\pi_1(S^1,pt
 
10:24 PM
So $2018 = 2 \cdot (-1)^3 + 0\cdot(-1)^2 + 1 \cdot (-1)^1 + 8 \pmod{11}$
That's $-2 + 0 - 1 + 8 = 5$.
 
Very cool indeed
 
also the covering spaces stuff generalizes to non-connected spaces if you use fundamental groupoids
 
This is why Arithmetic baffles me, thanks Balarka.
Is this somehow a special case where this method worked ?
 
Divisibility by 11 is special, yes.
The remainder of a number divided by 11 is the same as remainder of the alternating sum of it's digits when divided by 11.
 
Divisibility by 7 is annoying
 
10:28 PM
No general rule of thumb to take from here ?
 
Rule of thumb? Nah. That technique of writing the number out in decimal expansion is useful.
 
Thanks again, I'll keep it in mind !
 
the trick I came up with in high school uses the fact that 100 = 2 mod 7
 
I don't know a good way for 7 other than subtracting multiples of 7 from the start of the number (ex: 1234567 -> 534567 -> 44567 -> 2567 -> 467 -> 47 -> 5)
('Cause 12 is 5 mod 7, 53 is 4 mod 7, etc)
 
so you can do 312314 = 31(100)^2+23(100)+14 = (3)(2)^2+(2)(2)+0 = 12+4=2 mod 7
 
10:32 PM
I can (1) watch a movie (2) browse through garbage content in youtube (3) sleep (4) relisten to Talking Heads, "Remain In Light"
pls vote
1 vote = 1 life
 
Gonna go for a (3)
 
Garbage Youtube content is a good life choice
 
Depends on the movie
 
Though sleep is most responsible
 
10:34 PM
Although I'm not very reasonable myself to go sleep even though I should
#DoubleStandards
 
You know, I gotta say
The military just doesn't make any sense
Why is the kernel such a high-ranking officer?
 
@BalarkaSen 3+4
 
Se'n, quick maffs
 
Oh good suggestion
3+4 it is
 
Your life dude
 
11:00 PM
This is p slick
 
yeah this also gives you Fermat's two square theorem
 
Actually Fermat's two square theorem was the first thing the book did, used it to prove this
 
I can't remember the last good movie I enjoyed. They are all garbage!
 
oh
 
$$\sum_0^\infty \binom{\alpha-1}{n}x^n+\sum_1^\infty \binom{\alpha-1}{n-1}x^n$$ since here summations starts from different values, how does it become $$\sum_0^\infty \left [\binom{\alpha-1}{n}+\binom{\alpha-1}{n-1}\right]x^n $$
 
11:11 PM
The index is shifted for the second one.
 
I am asking the yellow part actually
 
Help with the following question?
0
Q: Regularization of Exponentially exponential series?

More AnonymousQuestion What are the convergence properties of the last equation: $$ J^{-1}(x) + \delta = \int \frac{dx}{1+ e^{x} + x + \ln{x} + \ln\ln(x) + \dots + e^{J^{-1}(x)}} $$ Is it possible to ignore $e^{J^{-1}(x)}$ under some suitable range? How can one infer the value of $\delta$? Background...

 
@LeylaAlkan The binomial coefficient is zero when n=0 for the second sum.
$\displaystyle \binom{\alpha-1}{-1} = 0 $
 
Hahaha, I never thought to calculate that
okay thanks
 
np. it's useful trick when shifting indexes etc.
 
11:17 PM
What about this one:
According to Weierstrass M-test, how could we find a $M_m$ to show that the convergence of $\sum \frac{(-1)^mt^{2m}}{(2m+1)!}$ is uniform ?
 
Hello!!! How do we get that $\frac{n(n-1)}{2} \equiv \frac{n}{2} \pmod{n}$ when n is even?
 
May as well check what these guys are doing here. So $\mathbb{Z}[i]$ is precisely the elements of $\mathbb{Q}(i)$ solving monic quadratics in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.
@Evinda so mod $n$, you know that $n-1 \equiv -1$, yeah?
 
@Daminark Yes (monic quadratics - of course). In other words $\mathbb{Z}[i]$ is the integral closure of $\mathbb{Z}$ in $\mathbb{Q}(i)$.
 
it's nontrivial that this set is a ring (but there's a simpler proof than the general case as $\Bbb Z$ is Noetherian)
@Daminark so you decided to do ANT? good choice
 
Ah yes, so we have $\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\equiv \frac{-n}{2}=n-\frac{n}{2} \pmod{n}\equiv \frac{n}{2} \pmod{n}$, right? @Daminark
 
11:21 PM
Yeah @Evinda, nice work!
 
Thanks :) @Daminark
 
@Mathein yeah, AT is a bit of a "longer term" priority if that makes sense
Like, I'm taking a class on it this fall which assumes fundamental groups and covering space theory, and I've found that my mileage for fancier stuff is very limited at this point until I just take a class on AT
So I'm just gonna pick up covering spaces, maybe associated material like (co)fibrations and H spaces and all that, but then pause on AT until later
NT is something I wanna keep pace for
 
@Daminark do you know why if $R \subset S$ is a subring of commutative ring, all element in $S$ that satisfy a monic polynomial with coefficients in $R$ (i.e. the integral closure of $R$ in $S$) is a subring?
 
@LeylaAlkan Absolute value of the coloured summand is less than or equal to?
 
I haven't seen this fact before, I'll try to prove it
 
11:25 PM
@Daminark beware, this is not easy
 
Which one? @Symposium
 
@Daminark as a "baby case", do you remember why for a field extension $K \subset L$, the elements in $L$ which are algebraic over $K$ form a subfield?
 
Yeah, we had something similar as a homework problem. The minimal polynomial of an algebraic element has non-zero constant term so you can just get the inverse out of the polynomial as well
 
okay, inverses are not hard. What about sums and products?
 
11:29 PM
Oh yeah the problem assumed you already had a subring, okay let's see
Well in that case you say okay, let $F$ be the set of algebraic elements and let $a,b\in F$. Then $K(a)$ and $K(b)$ are finite extensions, and thus, so is $K(a,b)$
 
@Daminark right
actually $a \in S$ is integral over $R$ (i.e. satisfies a monic polynomial) iff $R[a]$ is a finitely generated $R$-module
that's similar to the field case (which is a special case, since you can normalize minimal polynomials over a field)
if $R$ is Noetherian, then there's a theorem (not hard to prove) that submodules of f.g. modules over $R$ are finitely generated, so the same proof works
 
@LeylaAlkan For $\displaystyle \lambda > 0$ we have $ \displaystyle \left | \frac{(-1)^n \lambda^{2n}}{(2n+1)!}\right| \le \frac{\lambda^{2n}}{(2n+1)!} := M_n$
 
@Mathein: Can you give an algorithm to produce a polynomial for the sum/product from polynomials for the original elements?
 
if $R$ is not necessarily, Noetherian things are a bit more difficult
@TedShifrin not for the minimal polynomia, but if it's just for any polynomial that has the sum/product as a root, then yeah
 
I remember working on this for quite a while.
 
11:38 PM
For every monic polynomial, there exists a square matrix with that as a characteristic polynomial.
this is obvious from module theory
 
@Leyla: It's only uniform if you stay on a finite interval.
 
Let $f$ be the polynomial, then $k[X]/(f)$ is finite-dimensional over $k$, and multiplication by $X$ has $f$ as characteristic (and even minimal) polynomial
 
@Mathein if you have a field $K$ containing an integral domain $R$, is what you're saying the same as saying that an element $\alpha \in L$ is integral over $R$ if an only if there exists a non-zero f.g. $R$-module $M$ in $L$ such that $\alpha M \subseteq M$? This is the proof that I know
 
@Mathein: You don't need module theory ... You just right down the standard "companion matrix" for rational canonical form. :)
 
@LeylaAlkan show that the infinite sum of $M_n$ is less than a sum with finite value.
 
11:40 PM
Hmm, so you know that a finitely generated $R$-module should be a quotient of $R^n$, yeah? Then you can prove $R^n$ is a Noetherian module using a kind of "2/3" property it has and induction, and then being a Noetherian module passes through quotients nicely
 
if you take the obvious basis $\overline{1}, \overline{X}, \dots, \overline{X}^{\operatorname{deg}(f)-1}$, then you get the companion matrix for multiplication with $X$, so this motivates where it comes from @TedShifrin
 
Yeah, yeah, I know, @Mathein.
 
:o there is a new xkcd what-if
 
So if $\alpha$ is algebraic over $k$ and $\beta$ is algebraic over $k$, choose matices $A$ and $B$ with $\alpha$ and $\beta$ as eigenvalues, respectively
 
what does it mean algebraic over K mathein :D
@TedShifrin @MatheinBoulomenos Hello ! :D
 
11:42 PM
Then $A \otimes B$ has $\alpha \beta$ as an eigenvalue and $A \otimes Id + Id \otimes B$ (choosing the right dimensions for $Id$) has $\alpha+\beta$ as an eigenvalue
writing down the characteristic polynomials for that produces an algorithm @TedShifrin
 
I said hello yall -.-
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg no need to assume $R$ an integral domain for that
 
no one to greet poor kas?
 
@KasmirKhaan hey
 
-.-'
 
11:43 PM
hello kas
 
@Mathein I see, but $R$ is a subring of $L$ then
or $K$
or whatever letter I used
 
haha thanks :D hi @mercio
 
you can even turn the tensor product of matrices stuff into a proof that the integral closure is a ring
 
@MatheinBoulomenos you can also pick all the conjugates of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ and make big polynomials $\prod (t - \alpha_i \beta_i)$ and $\prod (t - \alpha_i - \beta_j)$
 
the companion matrix thing works over any commutative ring
 
11:44 PM
then say stuff about elementary symmetric polynomials
 
@mercio yeah, that works too
 
Also in this particular instance of $\mathbb{Z}[i]$, there was a kind of direct way to handle things. If you have $c+di$, it solves $x^2 - 2cx + c^2 + d^2$
 
We suppose that the integers $x,y,z$ satisfy $x^2+2y^2=z^2$ and $(x,y)=1$ . I want to show that $(x,z)=(y,z)=1$, and that $x$ is odd and $y$ even.

I have tried the following:

Let $(x,z)=d>1$. Then there exists a prime number $p$ such that $p \mid d$.
Since $d \mid x$ and $d \mid z$, we get that $p \mid x$ and $p \mid z$. So $p \mid x^2$, $p \mid z^2$.
Thus $p \mid z^2-x^2=2y^2$. But then how can we deduce that $p \mid y^2$, so that we could get a contradiction?
 
@mercio: That's the way I figured it out, but you need to know the full Galois orbits to do that.
 
My book isn't completely spelling things out backwards so I'll do that now. You have that $x^2 + ax + b$ has solution $\frac{-a \pm \sqrt{a^2 - 4b}}{2}$, and if $\sqrt{a^2 - 4b} \in \mathbb{Q}(i)$, then it's in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$
 
11:45 PM
if you want the minimal polynomial of $\alpha+\beta$, yeah you need to factor it into irreducibles
and wait no you don't actually need to know the full Galois orbits
if you have the minimal polynomials of $\alpha$ and $\beta$ you have what you need
 
@Evinda: Well, otherwise $p=2$. What happens next?
 
or even any annihilating polynomial will work too
 
I wonder if the formula $A \otimes Id + Id \otimes B$ can be motivated somehow. It reminds me of the comultiplication in the Hopf algebra of the addtiive group
 
If $a$ is even this is easy, the guy in the square root is then a multiple of 4 so yeah. Now our question is if $a$ is odd
 
Oh, I missed DogAteMy earlier. :(
That sort of thing shows up all over geometry, @Mathein. Connection on tensor product, for example.
 
11:48 PM
@mercio I think the symmetric polynomial proof is difficult to generalize for integral elements over a ring, right?
If you have the additive group of $k$ as an algebraic group over $k$ (or as a group scheme, if you want), then the hopf algebra is $k[x]$, which comultiplication $k[x] \to k[x] \otimes_k k[x], x \mapsto x \otimes 1 + 1 \otimes x$
 
I think it works over any ring ?
 
I can see how it works for integral domains
 
I have to go to lseep though
bye
 
how do you even factor a polynomial over an arbitary ring?
you can't just embed into an algebraic closure
bye @mercio
 
@TedShifrin Then $x=2 \lambda$. And then $(2 \lambda)^2+2y^2=z^2$, implying that $x=2m$.Then we have that $4 \mid 2y^2 \Rightarrow 2 \mid y$, which will be a contradiction since then $2 \mid gcd(x,y)$, right?
 
11:52 PM
@TedShifrin do you have some intuition why the $a \otimes 1 + 1 \otimes b$ shows up?
@Daminark yeah you can prove that if you have a SES $0 \to M' \to M \to M'' \to 0$, then $M$ is Noetherian iff $M'$ and $M''$ are Noetherian
 
Right, @Evinda.
 
@MikeMiller hi
 
@Mathein: Basically product rule :)
 
hmm
maybe that explains the diff geo part
 
Ah no you can reverse engineer that. So you have $x^2 + ax + b$. Then let $c = -\frac{a}{2}$ and let $d = \sqrt{b - c^2}$. Then $c+di$ solves that guy and we want to say it's in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$. Well, $2c$ is clearly an integer, and $2d = \sqrt{4b - 4c^2}$ which is also an integer. So $(2c)^2 + (2d)^2 = 4b$ which is $0$ mod 4
 
11:55 PM
Well, maybe there's a derivation lurking in the algebra set-up.
 
possibly
 
But squares are 0 or 1 mod 4 so this means $(2c)^2$ and $(2d)^2$ are both 0 mod 4
 
we haven't gone into Lie algebras in our algebraic groups course, yet but we will do that soon. Perhaps that will shed some light
 
But that implies 2c and 2d are even, so c and d are integers
That's slick
 
@TedShifrin I'm actually learning some classical geometry before delving seriously into schemes! I'm taking a course on algebraic groups (over algebraically closed fields) right now and a seminar on projective geometry (I'll prove some form of Bezout in my talk)
 
11:57 PM
Cool ... There's a lot of beautiful classical "Italian-style" algebraic geometry that gets forgotten in today's ultra-modern world.
 
well, even if we work mostly just with affine varieties, we do include some modern viewpoints. Hopf algebras and functor PoV for example
but the proofs mostly work with varieties
 
I admit I'm quite partial to projective stuff ... I even included Desargues and Pascal's Theorems at the end of my algebra course :)
 
or maybe commutative reduced [...] rings
yeah, we stick to the affine case in our algebraic groups course
abelian varieties seem to be a different beast
 

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