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6:00 PM
Hi Demonark
 
How's everything going?
 
Quietly.
 
Hi @Ted @Dami
 
Hey @Alessandro!
 
Hi, demonic Alessandro. How many have you squashed so far?
 
6:04 PM
Lack of response indicates likely guilt! :O
 
Yes, but no specific quantity.
 
oh i didn't see that silent also had a question
sorry for that
 
$$\lim_{x \to \pi/2}\left[x\tan x - \dfrac {\pi}2 \sec x\right]$$
Hi @TedShifrin.
 
Hi @Abcd
 
@TedShifrin None, I have no car to drive here in Trento
 
6:08 PM
That must come as welcome news to the inhabitants :P
Whose car did you use for the exam?
 
The one from the driving school
 
Oh ... I don't think that happens in the US.
 
Wait in driving exams you have to bring your own car? Hmm... I should probably get my license in Texas then lmao
 
@TedShifrin Do you have any idea about the limits question?
 
Yes, Demonark, it's BYOA.
I have lots of ideas, @Abcd. What methods are you allowed?
 
6:10 PM
bring your own alcohol ?
 
Probably not advisable, @mercio. Auto.
 
@TedShifrin everything like Taylor series and stuff but teacher has said to avoid L Hospital as much as possible.
 
so you have to drive to the exam with your own car ?
 
I hate L'Hôpital. I am a fan of Taylor. So, using Taylor, what happens? (You could also use basic trig to switch to a limit at $0$.)
@mercio: Well, you have to be taken by a legal driver :P
 
@TedShifrin why do you hate LHospital
 
6:12 PM
L'hopital is such a troll thing
 
Because almost always it's either begging the question (i.e., the definition of the derivative) or Taylor is more efficient by far.
 
@mercio Why?
@TedShifrin its very helpful in 0/0 forms.
Everyone is a fan of it.
 
I'm telling you Taylor is better, with 95% sureness.
No, "everyone" is wrong.
 
^
 
Try doing $\lim\limits_{x\to 0} \dfrac 1{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac1{x^2}$ by L'Hôpital.
Most times, I can do it at sight with Taylor when it would take you 5-10 minutes with L'Hôpital.
 
6:15 PM
also L'hopsital is almost the same as saying "oh wait a minute, this is just the definition of the derivative of this at this point"
 
With the limit you gave me, I can do it in one line with basic Taylor.
Note what I wrote above first, @mercio.
 
dammit i'm blind today
 
Well, maybe @Abcd will listen when you say it.
 
it also has some weird history
 
@TedShifrin By Taylor series I meant the expansions like that of sin x , tan x, cos x, e^x , ln(1+x)
 
6:17 PM
the way I was told is that L'hospital had some kind of deal where he could publish Bernouili's result as his own
and Bernouilli gave him the most secretly useless thing possible
 
I think L'Hôpital published one of the first calculus books.
@Abcd, so?
Either expand at $\pi/2$ or use $\cos(\pi/2-x) = \sin x$, etc.
 
I think L'H put in his book that he learned everything from Bernoulli but ppl attributed it to L'H anyway which made Bernoulli mad. something like that
 
@mercio so in reality it is "Bernoulli's rule"?
 
math history has a lot of drama
 
in reality it is "the definition of the derivative"
 
6:18 PM
Well, no, it's not quite that.
 
and a lot of mathematicians seem to have been petty, from the anecdotes I've seen
 
It really takes the generalized MVT to prove it, so it's not the definition of the derivative.
 
the secret formula for roots of a cubic that started a lifetime feud for spilling the beans
 
I try to be as petty as possible, @GFauxPas.
 
i feel that l'hopital is only taught because it's more algorithm-like compared to using taylor expansions (which results in some students misapplying l'hopital quite often)

(disclaimer - ive never taught calculus)
 
6:19 PM
that way you'll make it into the history books Ted
 
@loch: L'Hôpital is typically taught months before one gets to Taylor polynomials.
 
Nothing too shocking but I hadn’t actually seen that explanation before
 
using Taylor's implies continuously differentiable, though, and LHR only needs differentiable? or am I misremembering
 
Hmm, I guess the question then is whether there is a situation where L'Hôpital helps and Taylor doesn't?
 
6:20 PM
Elkies is a smart dude, @Semiclassic.
@GFauxPas, wrong on both counts.
 
@GFauxPas I gave a talk for one of my undergrad courses on the discovery of the cubic formula (Tartaglia, Ferrari, Cardano etc). It makes for a fun story with a good amount of drama
 
good thing I added "or am I misremembering", otherwise my street cred would be ruined
 
You need differentiable not at the point but nearby, yes.
For the $k$th degree T.P. at $a$, you need $k$ derivatives at $a$. So it is different.
 
ah
so for a silly example like
 
In most actual applications, you have plenty of derivatives at $a$ for the functions involved, but you may have repeated $0/0$ occurrences when you do L'Hôpital.
 
6:23 PM
$\dfrac {|x|}{|x|}$ as $x \to 0$
 
@TedShifrin In that question, whose series should I use?
 
@Abcd, for me it's easiest to switch everything over to $0$, so I don't have to rethink Taylor polynomials at $\pi/2$.
But you can do the latter quite easily, too.
 
Lhr would give $\dfrac {\operatorname{sgn} x}{\operatorname{sgn} x}$ at $x \to 0$?
 
@TedShifrin So I should choose h = pi/2-x ?
 
I know it's a silly example
 
6:24 PM
@Abcd, or better yet $h=\pi/2 - x$.
@GFauxPas: An example where $f'(0)$ and $g'(0)$ don't exist but $\lim f'(x)/g'(x)$ exists?
 
@TedShifrin yes sorry
 
Either way works, @Abcd.
@GFauxPas: Good question for you. Is there an example where $f(x)/g(x)$ has a limit ($f(x)\to 0$, $g(x)\to 0$) but $f'(x)/g'(x)$ does not?
 
I have to catch a train but I'll think about it
 
@TedShifrin Okay, how to solve it using $x \to \pi/2$ only?
 
Use Taylor polynomials at $\pi/2$, @Abcd.
 
6:29 PM
@TedShifrin It doesnt help
 
Of course it does.
 
if Ted gives a tip it's generally helpful
2
 
$x(x+ x^3/ 3 + 2x^5/(15)+... - \dfrac{\pi/2}{1- x^2/2 + x^4/ 4!}...$
This is the polynomial I get @Ted
 
@Abcd: Do you know what a Taylor polynomial (or series) at $x=a$ means?
 
@TedShifrin I am just supposed to substitute a in the expansions?
 
6:31 PM
No.
You do a polynomial in $x-a$.
Coefficients are derivatives at $x=a$.
 
what's a more common notation for initial segment of a woset? one book of mine uses $\mathcal I_x$ and one uses $S_x$
I guess "I" for initial and "S" for segment
 
or S for section. I dunno.
 
@TedShifrin Sorry, not getting how to do the problem exactly.
 
Look up Taylor polynomials, @Abcd.
 
@TedShifrin thats just f(0)+f'(0)x + f''(0)x^2/2++ f'''(0)x^3/3!....
 
6:34 PM
You'll find something like $\sum\limits_{k=0}^n \dfrac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k$.
No, @Abcd.
That's only for $a=0$.
 
Hello
 
There is no standard notation or convention for this concept.
Welp
 
Hello, @Safder.
 
@TedShifrin So here you want me to use f(x)= xtan x - (pi/2) sec x instead of expanding them separately ?
 
No, I want you to write it, as before, in terms of $\sin$ and $\cos$, but expand those in Taylor series at $a=\pi/2$.
 
6:42 PM
How does one show that $\Bbb{Z}_n$ is an Artinian $\Bbb{Z}$-module? The $\Bbb{Z}$-module structure on it is $z \cdot \overline{a} := \overline{za}$, but $\overline{za} = \overline{z} \cdot \overline{a}$, so it seems that the module structure is identical to the ring structure (this seems like a facile argument, though). So submodules will just be ideals, so I just need to consider descending chains of ideals.
But I'm not sure how to show that any descending sequence is eventually constant.
 
Ideals in $R/I$ correspond to ideals in $R$ that contain $I$?
 
how many ideals does $\Bbb Z_n$ have ?
 
A finite number.
 
OK, so that's two ways to approach the problem.
 
Is it possible to show that one of the ideals in the sequence is $(0)$?
That would certainly kill the problem.
 
6:45 PM
No, that needn't happen.
 
Hmm...you're right.
 
@GFauxPas $\downarrow\{x\}$
 
sup nerdoids
 
gwarn
 
ohai
 
6:48 PM
rwk
 
Hi all, perhaps I'm missing something obvious, but I'm struggling to see why $X_n \to X$ almost surely implies $\mathbb{E}(\|X\| I_{\|X\| \geq M}) \leq \mathbb{E}(\liminf_{n \to \infty} \|X_n\|I_{\|X_n\|>M})$
 
Hi nerd Eric.
 
nERdIC
how goes it @Ted
 
7:08 PM
Helloo
We defined the oscillation for a bounded function $f: X \to \Bbb R$ on a metric space $X$ as $$\omega(f,x) = \lim_{\delta \searrow 0} \left( \sup f\left(B_\delta(x) \right) - \inf f\left(B_\delta(x) \right)\right)$$

and I showed already that $f$ is continuous at $x \in X$ iff $\omega(f,x)=0$. Now we proved a lemma which says for every $\eta \ge 0$ the set $N_\eta = \left\{ x \in X \mid \omega(f,x) \ge \eta \right\}$ is closed.

My question is: Why is $M := \left\{ x \in X \mid f \text{ is continuous at } x \right\}$ not necessarily closed?
I tried and came up with a proof that shows $M=N_\eta$ for a specific chosen $\eta \gt 0$ and know that $N_\eta$ is closed...
(Possibly wrong proof:) Let $x \in M$. Then $\omega(f,x)=c$ for some $c \gt 0$. Let $\eta := \min\{c=\omega(f,x) \mid x \in M\}$. Then $x \in N_\eta$ since $\omega(f,x) \ge \eta$, and so $M \subseteq N_\eta$. Let $x \in N_\eta$ then we have also $x \in M$ since $f$ is not continuous at $x$ because $\omega(f,x) \gt 0$. So $N_\eta = M$ and since $N_\eta$ is closed by the lemma we conclude that $M$ is too.
Can somebody tell me where my mistake in the reasoning is?
 
Do you know how to prove for all function $f : I \to \mathbb R$, there exist $g,h$ satisfying the intermediate value theorem such that $f = g + h$ ?
 
@philmcole Isn't $\omega(f,x)=0$ rather than $c>0$ for $x\in M$?
 
Omg I wrote "continuous" where it should say "not continuous". Sorry
$M := \left\{ x \in X \mid f \text{ is not continuous at } x \right\}$
 
You have no guarantee that $\{\omega(f,x)\mid x\in M\}$ has a minimum
 
mmh can you explain why?
It's certainly $\ge 0$
 
7:22 PM
it has an inf, but not necessarily a minimum I think
 
@Nûr yes
 
@AlessandroCodenotti And with inf instead of min it would not work?
 
The inf could be $0$
 
Ah yeah that would be a problem... So is there a simple way how I could show that the min doesn't exists?
 
I don't think so, what you want to prove is false in general, but true for some functions
 
7:28 PM
This means I would search for a counter example then
 
@mercio What is the argument ?
 
Thomae's function works
 
Cool thx
 
Zee
What alcohol goes well with beef jerky ?
 
What's true (and easy to prove from you already have) is that the set of points on which $f$ is continuous is a $G_\delta$ (and that the set of points on which it is discontinuous id an $F_\sigma$)
 
7:31 PM
well as you know, functions can be ugly
so not only we are oging to find $g,h$ that satisfy the intermediate value theorem
 
What are $G_\delta,F_\sigma$?
 
but in fact we can have that $g(I) = h(I) = \Bbb R$ for any nonsingleton interval $I$
which would certainly be enough to get the IVT property
 
$G_\delta$ is a set that can be written as a countable intersection of open sets, $F_\sigma$ is a set that can be written as a countable union of closed sets
 
Yes certainly it is enough :D
 
to do this well you biject $\Bbb R / \Bbb Q$ with $\{0;1\} \times \Bbb R$
 
7:34 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Okay, thanks!
 
for $x$ in $\Bbb R$, if its class is in correspondance with $(0,y)$ then you decide $g(x)=y$ and $h(x) = f(x)-y$
and if its class is in correspondance with $(1,y)$ you decide $h(x)=y$ and $g(x) = f(x)-y$
since every class is dense in $\Bbb R$, $g$ and $h$ have the property I promised
 
it's nice, thank you :)
 
also asa bonus they are quite easy to draw
so you can make nice illustrations
 
sure :D
 
are you cheating in your exam ?
 
7:42 PM
it's not even exam week right now is it?
@BalarkaSen sup
 
sometimes every week is exam week
 
Hi @Eulb
How's it going
 
Who is cheating ?
 
@BalarkaSen ded
 
8:10 PM
Let $n \in \mathbb N$ and $ I \subset [| 1, n |]$. Find a sufficient and necessay condition on $I$ so that $\{M \in M_n(\mathbb R), \ rank(M) \in I \}$ is connex.
 
8:34 PM
@BalarkaSen Hello
 
Hey @Paul!
Long time
 
Yah it has been
 
hmm. How active is the stats SE chat? My relative ignorance of the subject is showing b/c this question seems like it should have a simple answer
 
Last I checked, really inactive
 
Figures
 
8:38 PM
Hi @Paul
 
Any one know anything about $\eta$-invariants and what they tell you? (I don't)
@AlessandroCodenotti Hi
 
More or less: I’m trying to decide whether there’s a nice realization of a particular 3-by-3 correlation matrix
 
Hi everyone
 
Hey man
 
@BalarkaSen I attended a colloquium talk on fundamental groups today. You would've enjoyed that
 
8:42 PM
hah
 
I didn't know that the relation between coverings and the fundamental group were discovered by Heidelberg topologists
He started with topology and then went on to algebraic geometry
 
I didn't know that either
 
@Semiclassical Got a second?
 
@Mathein don't think I'll get into heidelberg for the master
 
I got a tiny (quantum) question :>
 
8:45 PM
@ÍgjøgnumMeg why not?
 
@Mathein I'm pretty sure the deadline for international applicants is like mid-June or smth and my A-Level grades still haven't arrived in the post
lol
so I might miss the deadline
 
ah, damn
 
bleh
I'm also looking at Frankfurt am Main tho
 
What is going on with you @BalarkaSen
 
Things
 
8:48 PM
@BalarkaSen Grothendieck proved that if you have a category $C$ and a functor $F:C \to \mathbf{FinSet}$ satisfying some axioms, then there exists a unique profinite group $G$ and an equivalence of categories from $C$ to the category of finite discrete sets with a continuous $G$-action, such that under that equivalence, $F$ is just the functor which forgets the $G$-action. As a special case, one can obtain the relation between finite coverings of $X$ and $\hat{\pi_1(X,x)}$
 
For now, tryna remember a chunk of math I forgot
@MatheinBoulomenos Yeah I "know" this story
 
hi a @Balarka
 
Profinite representability, etc
 
this also works in algebraic geometry (unlike talking about paths)
 
Hi @Ted
 
8:50 PM
but in finite characteristic, this doesn't give the "right" fundamental group, which was already noted by Grothendieck
Hi @Ted
 
Consider a a billiards whose edge is $C^1$. Show that there exists a periodic trajectory with $n$ rebounds, for all $n≥2$
 
Hi @Mathein
 
If $k$ is algebraically closed of characteristic $0$, then $\pi^{ét}_1(k^\times) = \hat{\Bbb Z}$, the finite connected "coverings" of $k^\times$ are just $x \mapsto x^n$ for $n \in \Bbb Z \setminus \{0\}$. If $k$ is algebraically closed of characteristic $p$, then the $p$-th power map $k^\times \to k^\times$ is not étale. For this reason,$\pi^{ét}_1(k^\times) = \prod_{q \neq p} \Bbb Z_p$ (so this is like $\hat{\Bbb Z}$, but the factor of $\Bbb Z_p$ is missing)
this is like in topology we have $\pi_1(\Bbb C^\times)= \Bbb Z$ and the finite connected coverings are $z \mapsto z^n$
 
Yeah
Pretty cool
 
we would like a notion of a fundamental group to also consider the map $z \mapsto z^n$ when $\operatorname{char}(k)$ divides $n$. The problem is that the "group" (actually non-reduced group scheme) that this corresponds to doesn't have enough points. When we consider $z \mapsto z^p$ in char p, then the group scheme this corresponds has only one point. It's impossible that this group scheme acts nontrivially on a finite set
 
8:59 PM
it's pretty cool how etale topology works in alg geom -- by cool i mean i dont understand it very well and i would like to understand it more
 
the way to fix this (due to Nori) is basically to consider linear representations instead of group actions. So to a variety over $k$, where $k$ has finite characteristic, we associate a category of "essentially finite vector bundles" (he didn't define this in the talk) and then we have a fibre functor that goes to the category of finite dimensional $k$-vector spaces
 
What's $\pi_1^{et}(\Bbb A^1_k \setminus \{0, 1\})$, now I wonder.
Affine line minus two points is a perfectly fine quasiprojective variety so that should make sense
($\pi_1^{top}(\Bbb C \setminus \{0, 1\})$ is free on two generators)
 
I have the answer when $k=\Bbb Z_2$. :P
 
Lol
Let's take $k$ to be algebraically closed, char 0
 
Oh.
 
9:02 PM
So similarly to the case where you have a category $C$ together with a functor to the category of finite sets, there's also a kind of "representability results" when you have a category $C$ together with a functor to the category of finite-dimensional $k$-vector spaces, satisfying certain axioms, then there's a theorem on "Tannakian categories" that says this is equivalent to the category of finite-dimensional $k$-linear representations of some profinite group
if you use this, you get the "right" definition for the fundamental group in finite characteristic (and it agrees with the étale one in char 0)
@BalarkaSen for $k=\Bbb C$, this will be the profinite completion of the topological fundamental group, so free profinite of rank 2
 
I know that :P
I was asking for arbitrary fields, alg. closed and char 0
For complex quasiprojectives the etale fundamental group is just profinite completion of the topological dude
 
$\mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{F}_2}$ minus 0 and 1 isn't empty though right.. - at least as a scheme (im assuming that's the joke lol)
 
Really, @loch? What points does it have?
 
For example the prime ideal $(x^2+x+1)$? When I say scheme I meant $\mathbb{A}^1_{\mathbb{F}_2} = \mathrm{Spec} \mathbb{F}_2[x]$ - so really just any irreducible polynomial since that defines a prime ideal.
 
@MatheinBoulomenos That sounds technical
 
9:10 PM
Oh, I guess when the Nullstellensatz fails, I have no idea what's going on.
How does one algebraically remove a point, in terms of the coordinate ring?
 
@loch When I say $\Bbb A^1_k$ I mean $\text{maxSpec} k[x]$, not $\text{Spec} k[x]$, I think?
Yeah the affine line is much larger to a scheme theorist than a classical algebraic geometer I think
 
@TedShifrin For example if you remove the point $(0,0)$ from $\mathbb{A}^2_{\mathbb{C}}$, you don't get an affine variety. So I guess in this sense you can't really see what happens to the coordinate ring (the plane minus the origin has the same coordinate ring as the plane)
 
It is a quasiprojective variety.
 
@BalarkaSen the ideal there is a maximal ideal!
 
I think it's still a scheme, right?
 
9:12 PM
yes
 
sure ...
Now we know why I did all my algebraic geometry over $\Bbb C$. :)
 
but affine varieties (schemes) are nice because they're really the same thing as their coordinate rings
 
@TedShifrin that Tannakian category stuff was inspired by some result on the representation theory of compact groups
 
And I actually did have a few scheme-theoretic things in a few papers. @Balarka: I think I mentioned the interesting Whitney umbrella to you once.
 
but when it's not affine then you don't have a coordinate ring to work with - e.g. alg functions / holo functions on $\mathbb{P}^1_{\mathbb{C}}$ are all just constants :p
 
9:13 PM
@TedShifrin Yep you did
 
@loch: My question remains. Algebraically, how do we work with $X-\{p\}$ if we understand $X$?
I keep thinking we need something with localization ... But I'm way rusty on algebra :)
Nah, that can't be right.
 
@loch I agree. I think for projective varieties the better thing to look at is the homogeneous coordinate ring
 
Yes, of course.
 
If we remove a closed point, then this an open subscheme
 
Sure ... So now what?
 
9:15 PM
all open subsets of $X - \{p\}$ are also open in $X$, so we know what the sections look like
I don't think we can say more in general
 
For example if you take the ring (let's say a finitely generated $k-$algebra) - inverting $f$ gives you the open subscheme corresponding to the complement of $f=0$.

I guess if you're expecting a purely ring theoretic way of looking at what $X-\{p\}$ is in general you can't really do it (without resorting to schemes)
 
By Hartogs' Theorem, in dimension $\ge 2$, any holomorphic function on $U-\{p\}$ extends across $p$. So we can't tell the difference by looking at the rings of holomorphic functions.
 
Good point
 
Yes - which is kind of the problem here - because e.g. the ring of regular functions on $\mathbb{A}^2$ is the same as the ring of regular functions on $\mathbb{A}^2 - \{(0,0) \}$
 
Yeah, I'm genuinely confuzled.
Right, @loch.
 
9:18 PM
So the coordinate ring of $\mathbb{A}^2-\{(0,0)\}$ and $\mathbb{A}^2$ are the same - which is why if I interpret your question as saying how to look at $\mathbb{A}^2-\{(0,0)\}$ purely via their coordinate rings - I think the answer is you can't
 
So we can't distinguish them by looking at their structure sheaves?
 
Yes you can
 
How? I think that's the question
 
but when you talk about a sheaf you need a topological space to start with!
 
Interestingly, then we're looking at $q\ne p$ ... and I still don't see the difference in $\mathscr O_q$ ...
Right ... so one space has $p$ and the other doesn't.
But I can't say that in an algebraic way :P
 
9:20 PM
@loch That's what Ted's saying. You're using the topological properties of the underlying spaces of the schemes to distinguish the schemes. What's a purely algebraic way to do it?
I guess you can compute A^2 - {(0, 0)}'s etale cohomology
(@Mathein?)
 
That's not the issue.
 
I think $H^1(\Bbb A^2 - \{(0,0)\},\mathcal O)$ is infinite-dimensional
you don't need étale cohomology
 
I'm saying I don't think you can (whatever purely algebraic means - to me it means let's ignore the topological space) ! You only have an equivalence of categories between the category of rings and the category of affine schemes..
 
If I know how to give $Y\subset X$ and $Z\subset X$ by equations, I know how to do $Y\cup Z$ and $Y\cap Z$. But can I do $X-Y$? Clearly not!!
 
I mean if you want to talk about sheaf cohomology then there's also a topological space there too
 
9:22 PM
As it's not closed.
 
@TedShifrin You can write down equations for an affine variety whose image under a projection map is $X - Y$, though.
 
@BalarkaSen Oh and I wanted to mention this just now - it's not that nice for projective varieties in that you dont get an equivalence of categories as you do here for the affine guys (of course they are still useful though!)
 
Yeah, we were talking about this last week. I need to pass to a higher space, @Balarka. I can't do it inside $X$.
 
Yeah
@loch Ah yes
 
LOL ... I'm glad to know that projective varieties are still useful! /sarcasm
 
9:24 PM
We know that the inclusion $\Bbb A^2 - \{(0,0)\} \to \Bbb A^2$ induces an isomorphism of global sections. If $\Bbb A^2 - \{(0,0)\}$ was affine, then this would imply that the inclusion $\Bbb A^2 - \{(0,0)\} \to \Bbb A^2$ is an isomorphism of schemes, but it's not even a bijection!
 
Haha - no I meant the homogeneous coordinate ring
which when I said there's no equivalence of cat. - might suggest to some that it's not that great (or maybe not)
 
this shows not only that $\Bbb A^2 - \{(0,0)\}$ is not the same as $\Bbb A^2$, but that it's not affine
 
Hm, I seem to remember there's a way to reconstruct the projective variety from it's homogeneous coordinate ring, using the projective spectrum construction or something
 
Anyway - now that I think of it there is a purely algebraic way - the point being you can think of schemes as certain functors on the category of rings to the category of sets satisfying some properties

so I guess in that sense then you can distinguish them purely 'algebraically'
 
Am I incorrect?
 
9:26 PM
That fails for removing codimension $1$, though, @Mathein.
 
You are right
but you can do this with two different homog. coordinate rings
 
@TedShifrin In which case the coordinate rings distinguish them
 
Right ... We're back to Hartogs in the analytic category.
Anyhow, I'm sorry I took us down this rabbit hole.
I'm leaving algebra land now. ... :D
 
Sometimes the algebra land is refreshing
... until I have to do the actual technical computations
 
I like to think I suck at both geometry and algebra.. so I learn both at the same time to cover my weaknesses (or be twice as bad)
 
9:28 PM
Well, you say that about every field, @Balarka :P
 
I'll take algebra technical computations over diff geo technical computations any day
@TedShifrin is $\Bbb C^2 \setminus \{0\}$ Stein?
 
@loch: It's convenient to be across two fields. I always claimed to be a complex geometer until someone asked me a question I couldn't answer, and then I said I was a differential geometer ... and vice versa :P
 
@TedShifrin At least in topology I can fail to do the computations, learn it from someone else, and build a mental model to evade the technicality with pictures!!
 
Obviously, you and I differ in that, @Mathein.
Hmm, @Mathein. Offhand I'd guess no.
 
As they say, the true technical computations are those in which your hands flab around in the air at lightning speed
 
9:30 PM
I've never heard that, @Balarka, so I don't know who "they" are.
 
that implies that $\Bbb A^2\setminus \{0\}$ is not affine over $\Bbb C$ by GAGA
 
@TedShifrin Same :) maybe replace complex with algebraic - but things that I'm interested in somehow are all happening over $\mathbb{C}$, so I should pick up my complex geom soon
 
@TedShifrin I'm referring to myself in gender-neutral sense, of course
 
Anyone know of a place where I can graph a function with both a complex variable in it and a real variable in it?
 
Nope, @geocalc33. Even with just the complex variable is challenging to "graph."
 
9:32 PM
Yeah but there are online websites i can use to graph complex functions
 
Oh, it follows from Hartogs, @Mathein.
You only think you're graphing them, @geocalc.
You're seeing slices of the graph.
 
oh arent they actually four dimensional?
 
Yup.
And to do complex + real, you need a function of three real variables, and you're plum out of room.
 
@TedShifrin I also think that $H^1(\Bbb C^2 \setminus \{0\}, \mathcal O)$ is non-zero which contradicts Cartan B
 
I can't figure out how to turn on math jax
 
9:37 PM
I would have to sit down and think to compute that, @Mathein.
 
I was thinking about computing the Cech cohomology of the covering by $\{(z,w) \mid z \neq 0\}$ and $\{(z,w) \mid w \neq 0\}$
 
that would be the way to do it (or at least I don't know how else would you compute it..)
 
9:51 PM
So we do double Laurent series on $(\Bbb C-\{0\})^2$. That seems right.
 
But it does follow immediately from Hartogs. You can't have a proper holomorphic embedding in $\Bbb C^N$, as any holomorphic function on a neighborhood of $0$ extends across $0$ and hence stays bounded.
 
10:42 PM
Hey everyone!
 
Hey @Daminark
 
Hey
 
hey, anyone interested in double-checking my work on solving derivatives for exponential decay?
i'm a postdoc in neuroscience . . . this isn't HW
about once a year i have to work through derivatives and i temporarily can't remember any of my calculus knowledge.
 
How's everything going?
 
Is there any agreed upon notation to denote the module generated by, say, $m_1,...,m_n$?
 
10:52 PM
Pretty well, thanks. And for you? @Daminark
@user193319 $\langle m_1, \dots, m_n\rangle$
 
Oh, simple. Thanks!
 

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