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7:00 PM
@BalarkaSen is there an abstract argument why there is no continuous injection $T^2 \to S^2$? I have an argument, but I don't like it.
 
ah the sum should start from $n=1$, my bad
 
@MatheinBoulomenos So you want something easier than yelling "invariance of domain"?
 
ah that works
 
LOL
 
thanks B
 
7:04 PM
Heh, I'm able to prove it by contradiction by examining every possible case, which will do, I suppose. Though I wonder if there's a nicer/algebraic proof.
 
@anonra GFaux was giving you an easier one.
Hm, or was he?
 
Didn't lead us anywhere unfortunately.
 
my clue isnt a good clue
i mean it's easy to show $\min(x,y) \le a + b$ but that's not enough
 
can't you argue $\min(x,y) \leq x \leq a$ and $\min(x,y) \leq y \leq b$, so $\min(x,y) \leq \min(a,b)$
 
Hi all, any authorities in the chat on conformal stereographic projections and/or higher dimensional integration? (for the lack of a better wording)
 
7:07 PM
The easiest idea is to order {x, y} and {a, b} without loss of generality. :P
 
har har
 
@B.Mehta Yeah that works.
 
isn't that exactly what we're trying to prove though thonk
 
@BalarkaSen can you argue that $T^2$ isn't simply connected while $S^2$ is, so there's no continuous injection?
 
@B.Mehta There is a continuous injection S^1 --> S^2.
 
7:09 PM
since that would induce an injective group hom from $\mathbb{Z}^2 \to \{e\}$ which fails
 
every manifolds injects into $\Bbb R^n$
 
ooh
 
Simple connectedness has nothing to do with being able to embed stuff
 
oh, right
there you go @anonra
Mehta what's the question about $T^2$ and $S^2$?
 
The point is injective continuous maps do not induce injective homomorphisms on fundamental groups.
 
7:11 PM
Ah, I was just about to ask that
Right, I need to revise my algebraic topology...
 
Quite a clever idea. Thank you all! :)
 
that there's no continuous injection?
 
@GFauxPas Yup!
Although it seems like asking someone else about that might be a better idea
 
Balarka already answered it
 
Unanswered it, rather :3
 
7:15 PM
$T^2 = e_0 + e_2 + e_2 + e_4$ is that right?
maybe you can make a homology argument. but the induced maps on the homology doesnt need to be injective either...
wait no that's too big
 
I'm back
Did you solve the thing?
 
I gave you a different problem
Fibonacci stuff
 
35 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
@AkivaWeinberger Here's another one I couldn't figure out in a reasonable amount of time. Consider this Collatz-like algorithm: $T(n) = n/2$ if $n$ is even, $T(n) = n+1$ if $n$ is odd. (a) Prove that there is some $k$ such that $T^k(n) = 1$ for all $n$ (b) Denote $c_k = \#\{n \in \Bbb N : T^k(n) = 1\}$. Prove that $c_k$ is a Fibonacci sequence.
This?^
Looking at it now
 
Ye
(b) is the bit I can't do
 
Maybe think in terms of binary sequences?
 
7:21 PM
So how many steps does 11101101 base 2 take, for example
 
36 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
Think about binary expansions
 
32 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
Hm, if the binary expansion of $n$ is, read from right-to-left, 0...(a_1 times)...01...(b_1 times)...10...(a_2 times)...01...(b_2 times)...1..., then after $\sum (a_k + b_k) + \ell$ moves, where $\ell$ is length of the binary expansion, I think the algorithm terminates.
rekt my dudes
 
The fact that it's n->n+1 not n->n-1 is annoying
 
7:23 PM
hmm, now I'm curious what the backwards tree looks like
 
Oh should be $\ell - 1$.
 
I get 11 for that too, @AkivaWeinberger
for a) you can argue the number of 1s in the binary expansion never increases
 
Or that length of the binary number has to decrease every 3 steps.
Only time it increases is where there is a sequence of 1's, after which it becomes 10...0
 
oh that's nice
 
blah
Yes.
100 -> 10
That's also nice
11101101 -> 11101110 -> 1110111 -> 1111000 -(3)-> 111 -> 1000 -(3)-> 1
 
7:28 PM
does $c_k$ count the $n$s which take exactly $k$ steps or just hit 1 at $k$ steps
 
Seems to be the latter. I was confused about that a bit.
 
you added an extra 0 in your third step
 
1110111 -> 1111000
 
rekt me
 
7:29 PM
my feeling is that one should be able to map this onto the n->n-1 version of the problem
 
11 it is
 
and once one does that, then the binary ops are simpler
you just remove a zero from the end or turn a one into a zero at the end
of course, what one really needs to do regardless is argue that $c_k=c_{k-1}+c_{k-2}$
 
Well all know you're an orthogonal personality
 
2n and 2n-1 take n's steps plus 1
 
if by that you mean i am consistently right
then cool
 
7:32 PM
Thus Fibonacci
 
@AkivaWeinberger confused gestures
 
which in turn suggests doing something like c4=c3+c2 as a simple case
 
Oh you're using that fuckass recurrence
 
Oh wait I meant 2n is n's steps plus 1, and 2n-1 is n's steps plus 2
 
7:34 PM
Still: this Fibonacci
 
0 in N ?
 
Oh here's an idea
Wait I need to go
 
I need to sleep
 
suspense
 
@AkivaWeinberger Ah yes
Clearly
 
7:36 PM
But each number has a unique binary expansion where, instead of using the digits 0 and 1, you use the digits -1 and 1
Right?
 
Or maybe not
 
that doesn't sound true?
 
@Semiclassical did you have a followup to that PDE
 
nah, I just wanted terminology
it's the KPZ equation. (except that I didn't include the noise term)
 
7:38 PM
2(1) + 1 and 2^3(1) + 2^2(-1) + (-1)
@AkivaWeinberger I guess that's rip
Ok I'm off to bed
 
@0celo7 one detail of the presentation I'm putting together which I probably will omit
 
Conjecture: Take n+1 in binary instead of n
Each 0 is worth one point and each 1 is worth two points
 
a big part of the story is being able to turn the problem from a stochastic PDE to a path integral formulation
but the details for that are a pain. in particular, it involves something called an Ito regularization
and there is no way in the hell I'm putting that in my presentation. i'm not sure I even want to say it in passing
 
And then subtract one point?
And that should be the number of steps?
Should work
@B.Mehta @BalarkaSen Can you confirm?
 
hmmmm
 
7:44 PM
To find the number of steps required for n, write n+1 in binary (instead of n). Then each 0 is worth one point and each 1 is worth two points; subtract one from the total to get the number of steps.
 
that doesn't sound right... let me try and make an example
5 takes 5 steps but gets 4 points?
101 -> 110 -> 11 -> 100 -> 10 -> 1
but a bigger issue is that 6 gets one more point and takes one fewer step
in general for n odd, n+1 gets one more point and takes one fewer step
 
@B.Mehta Subtract one at the end
 
at the end?
for n=5, you write 110 which is 5 points and subtract one to get four
unless i'm misunderstanding
 
Oh no you're right
6 doesn't work
Oh, wait
Add one
Argh hold on
 
you still get the issue with odds
 
7:49 PM
101 takes 5 steps: 101->110->11->100->10->1
110 takes 4 steps: 110->11->100->10->1
 
right
 
101 gets a score of four: 101+1=110, that's 1+1+2=4
 
but for 6 you write down 111 which gets more points
 
110 gets a score of three: 110+1=111, that's 1+1+1=3
 
but 0s are worth one point
and 1s are worth two points
 
7:50 PM
Oh derp
 
so 101 gets a score of 5
Ah
then that sounds believable
 
Hm… wait so what's the fix?
Make 0 two points and 1 one?
That shouldn't work
OK, revision: Take n-1, and do some shenanigans in binary
 
My silly way of simulating this in Mathematica: Start with an array of the numbers 1 through N (say, N=100)
act f elementwise on that array, count how many elements have reached 1, then remove these elements and set that as the new array
then repeat
 
how long is your presentation suppose to be?
 
@B.Mehta @BalarkaSen Revision: take n-1 in binary. 0s are worth two points, 1s are worth one point.
And that should be the final answer.
 
7:58 PM
between a half an hour and an hour
 
Test: 1000 should get three and 1001 should get seven
1000->100->10->1 (three)
1001->1010->101->110->11->100->10->1 (seven)
1000 gets three points: n-1 is 111, 1+1+1=3
1001 gets seven points: n-1 is 1000, 1+2+2+2=7
 
the defect in the algorithm is that, if two numbers have the same stopping time but one is larger than N, then only the one smaller than N will be found and counted
 
101 and 110 work correctly as well.
 
So for any N it gives at best a lower bound on the $c_k$
 
And then this is that classical result on filling a 1xn rectangle with squares and dominoes, which is well-known to be the Fibonacci sequence
thus giving another proof that it's the Fibonacci sequence.
 
8:05 PM
@Semiclassical ew
 
yeah
"Were I here to talk about the mathematical subtleties of this path integral formulation, this would be the point where I'd put up a gory-looking slide about discretization and Ito regularization...But i'm not, so f*** it, I'm moving on."
 
how can we count the number of arrays of $1 \times 12$ that can be formed using squares of $1 \times 1$ and rectangles of $1 \times 2$?
 
I would suggest you take another look at the conversation that just finished.
 
$AA^T$ is always defined for any matrix right?
 
8:18 PM
@Twink Hint: Let $f(n)$ be the number of ways of doing that for a $1\times n$ thingy. How many ways can you do it if the last one is a square? How many ways can you do it if the last one is a domino?
 
wow that's quite a coincidence
 
And so is $A^TA$
?
 
Yeah @JakeRose
 
Yes to both these things
 
8:18 PM
Thanks guys
 
it'd better be, since you can rename $A\to A^T$
 
@AkivaWeinberger $f(n-1)$ and $f(n-2)$?
 
Yeah
And so you get a cool recurrence relation
 
Here's something sorta cute.
 
the fibonacci sequence?
 
8:29 PM
@B.Mehta I do appreciate
 
I mentioned that algorithm earlier. Here's a sample output for N=300 000:
 
but for the fibonacci sequence $f(2)=1$
 
@Twink Right, so write out the first five or so values
 
$f(1)=1$, $f(2)=2$, $f(3)=3$, $f(4)=5$, $f(5)=8$, etc., right?
 
8:30 PM
x-axis is the integer n, blue is f(n) according to the algorithm
 
It looks like $f(n)$ is the n+1th Fibonacci number
 
and orange is the Fibonacci sequence
 
In other words, $f(n)=F_{n+1}$
 
How do you do matrix notatin in latex?
 
So the algorithm reproduces the Fibonacci sequence up to about n=20, but after that it starts missing large elements with shorter stopping times
what's interesting to me is that it looks more or less like a Poisson distribution
 
8:32 PM
\begin{bmatrix}1&2\\3&4\end{bmatrix} -> $\begin{bmatrix}1&2\\3&4\end{bmatrix}$
@JakeRose
 
Thanks
 
use pmatrix or vmatrix for variations on that
 
bmatrix for "bracket matrix". You can also have pmatrix (parentheses) and matrix (no brackets)
Or vmatrix (vertical lines), yeah
 
@Semiclassical Your array was length 1000000, and it goes wrong after $2^{20} \approx 1000000$ which explains why it starts getting things wrong
 
no, it was only out to 300000
 
8:34 PM
oh lol nvm then :p
 
now I wonder what would happen if I used the standard collatz map
 
matrix: $\begin{matrix}1&2\\3&4\end{matrix}$. pmatrix: $\begin{pmatrix}1&2\\3&4\end{pmatrix}$
 
13 hours ago, by Silent
@MatheinBoulomenos, Let $G=\left\{\begin{pmatrix}a&b\\0&a^{-1}\\ \end{pmatrix}:a,b\in \Bbb R, a>0\right\}$ and $N=\left\{\begin{pmatrix}1&b\\0&1\\ \end{pmatrix}:b\in \Bbb R\right\}$, how do we know that $G/N$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb R$ under addition?
 
vmatrix: $\begin{vmatrix}1&2\\3&4\end{vmatrix}$
 
@Silent by constructing such an isomorphism?
 
8:36 PM
@JakeRose
 
you should figure out what the operation on G looks like first @Silent
and the first isomorphism theorem might help
 
:D thanks
 
Is the matrix for $\sum_{j,k=1}^{3} a_{ij} b_{jk}x_k$
 
Use {}, not ()
 
I was gonna type the full matrix out but i fear Itll take me forever
So is it a nx3 matrix of a multiplied by a 3x3 square matrix of b multiplied by a $(x y z )^T$
There should be spaces between x y and z
 
8:39 PM
can you guys look at this question please? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2775478/…
 
if (x1, x2, x3)=(x,y,z) then yeah
 
Should just be x not y and z
Yeah that
But since it didnt sum over i is it just a 1x3 matrix
??
 
$$\begin{bmatrix}a_1&a_2&a_3\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}b_{11}&b_{12}&b_{13}\\ b_{21}&b_{22}&b_{23}\\ b_{31}&b_{32}&b_{33}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}x_1\\x_2\\x_3\end{bmatrix}$$
That was so annoying to write on mobile
 
But it doesnt sum over i? @AkivaWeinberger
 
Oh, $A$ is $n\times 3$?
Then $ABx$ is $n\times1$
and so it would not sum over $i$
$$\begin{bmatrix}a_{11}&a_{12}&a_{13}\\ \vdots&\vdots&\vdots\\ a_{n1}&a_{n2}&a_{n3}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}b_{11}&b_{12}&b_{13}\\ b_{21}&b_{22}&b_{23}\\ b_{31}&b_{32}&b_{33}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}x_1\\x_2\\x_3\end{bmatrix}$$
 
8:46 PM
$(n\times 3)(3\times 3)(3\times 1)=n\times 1$
 
It is an $n\times 1$ array whosez $i$th element is $\sum_{j,k}a_{ij}b_{jk}x_k$
or $a^i_jb^j_kx^k$ if we use the Einstein summation convention
(of summing over any variable that appears once as a superscript and once as a subscript)
 
So because we havent defined i it just takes values 1 - n
 
it's a free index at this point, yes
 
So if you have a free index it takes values over a range
Is the rnge of valeus often stated or implied?
 
it should be stated, but often one does rely on context
 
8:53 PM
So in the context I gave would you jsut assume to n?
As in its jut a summation
 
well, you said that $A$ was $n\times 3$
which only works if there's $n$ possible values for $i$ and $3$ for $k$
 
Oh no I meant that was my answer
I was asking if it was correct osrry for the confusion
 
ah
if nothing else was stated I'd probably assume that all indices have the same range
 

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