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9:00 PM
> $f(\square \times I)$
 
It's just the right map induced from $f : X \times I \to Y$
 
right
 
C'mon I was being creative with my notation
 
omg, I'm so stupid, I was literally there, but I was over-casing everything. thanks! — Sha Vuklia 1 min ago
"over-casing", that's a new word :P
 
@Shobhit a.e. convergence just means pointwise convergence except on a set of measure zero
and the empty set is a set of measure zero
I think you can figure it out
 
9:01 PM
@Balarka is there a reason we seem to prefer simplices and CW complexes to cubes?
 
@LeakyNun Is that somewhat helpful? I feel like you'll really be more satisfied with a categorical answer :p
 
@Daminark Yes. Simplices have less combinatorial complexity than cubes
 
why does it say $C_p \to D_{\color{red}{p-1}}$? @BalarkaSen
 
Less faces in all dimensions
 
9:02 PM
oh, so a.e will inturn imply pointwise if the only set of measure zero is the empty set. @0celo7
 
yes
 
Ah, so I guess you could say we use them... for simplicity
5
 
@Daminark :/
 
ok. thanks @0celo7
 
Fine have a star you bum
 
9:02 PM
hah
 
@LeakyNun Hmmm :thonk:
 
anyone been keeping up with the fb controversy?
 
Presumably Mark Zuckerberg has been
 
That sounds wrong. You should propose an edit
 
hopefully
 
9:03 PM
Unless they have their grading screwed up
 
Fish boat controversy?
 
Windows 10 told me that Zucc replied to the controversy
 
@BalarkaSen seriously
@BalarkaSen oh ok, missed that
 
Singular homology can not be done naively with cubes
Oh but that wasn't your point
 
@BalarkaSen I sort of get it, if not the signs being confusing as hell
 
9:06 PM
Ok I'm happy
 
@Balarka, shouldn't you be asleep?
Isn't it nighttime there
 
@ACuriousMind Very slowly. I give a talk about my paper in a month
Writing is haaaard
 
@orbit-stabilizer Balarka doesn't sleep
 
@MikeMiller Nice. And yes, writing is hard :)
 
So, what you're saying is.. If I don't sleep, I can learn math better
 
9:09 PM
@orbit-stabilizer correlation doesn't imply causation
 
But causation causes correlation and correlation is correlated with causation... checkmate atheists!
 
correlation isn't correlated with causation
 
lol never mind
 
Hello friends and fiends
 
9:18 PM
@orbit-stabilizer I should
But will I?
@LeakyNun Yeah that's kind of a confusing issue
Setting the orientations are a pain
 
@BalarkaSen pain is what French eat for breakfast
 
The thing about correlation is that it's only linear dependency between two right ?
 
How may I show $\int_{\mathbb{R}} e^{x^2}D^m(e^{-x^2})D^{n}(e
^{-x^2}) dx = 0$ if $m\neq n$ using IBP? It's supposed to be trivial but I don't see it :>
 
@LeakyNun what do they eat for breakfast?
 
toast?
@Tuki, right
 
9:20 PM
or pain, perhaps
 
("pain" is French for bread)
 
french toast :p
 
what is IBP?
 
integration by parts
 
9:21 PM
Let $A$ be a ring, $G$ a finite group, and $A[G]$ the corresponding group ring. Dumb guestion: If $a_1,...,a_k \in A$ and $(a_1 + .... + a_k) \sum_{g \in G} g = 0$, does this imply $a_1 + ... + a_k = 0$?
 
I don't see it either then
 
@user193319 I think so
 
@LeakyNun I think so, too. Thanks!
 
Maybe I'm not understanding the question, but: that doesn't really make sense, does it? Elements of the group ring are finite $A$-linear combinations of elements of $G$. What do you mean by $\sum_{g \in G} g$?
 
Is there any simple way to solve for $i_1$ and $i_2$ in $ 20 - 3(i_1+i_2) - 2 \frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}t}(i_1+i_2) - 4i_1 = 0$ and $6i_2 + 3(i_1+i_2) + 2 \frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}t}(i_1+i_2) = 0$? I need it for a physics problem..
 
9:24 PM
@AlexWertheim oh well $G$ is finite
 
Ah shit.
In that case, sure: $A[G]$ is a free $A$-module with basis given by elements of $G$, so an element is zero precisely if its coefficients w.r.t. that $G$-basis are all $0$.
 
Are $i_1, i_2$ functions of $t$?
 
@Rick combine the two equations in a way so that you can write everything in terms of $i_1+i_2$ and then solve for $i_1+i_2$.
 
@orbit-stabilizer Yes , its from Ldi/dt of an inductor where i is the current. ..is it possible to solve for $i_1$ and $i_2$ or only the sum?
 
Try what Leaky said.
 
9:31 PM
@LeakyNun ok
@LeakyNun Thank you! I got it now
 
@ACuriousMind What's your status? Graduated with the Masters, off to a PhD?
 
He's an artificial intelligence trying to take over the world
 
@MikeMiller Graduated with a Master, quit academia and working as a software engineer now
 
Close enough ^
 
God much better.
Academia is toxic and must be destroyed
 
9:48 PM
@MikeMiller ...I agree with the first half.
 
My hypothesis is that abstract science is going to die out of evolutionary reasons in this millenium
It'll destroy itself
 
1000 years is a long time
 
It's a tough bet but I place fair money on it
I'm going to be disappointed if I lose
snip
 
I'm more optimistic
 
Is there a theorem/rule for this: If we have n equations and n variables, then only we can solve for them? (Provided the equations aren't the same like x+y=2 and 2x+2y=4)
or is that true?
 
9:56 PM
Have you heard of Gaussian Elimination?
 
yes
 
@BalarkaSen I think reduced homology is much more natural than non-reduced homology
why do we care about the latter and pretend that the former is an ad-hoc addition of degree map to the latter?
 
I think it's about an algebraic technicality, working with the augmented singular chain complex instead of the singular chain complex
I don't pay attention to it a lot
 
Oh hi Balarka
 
@BalarkaSen you mean the non-reduced one is more useful?
 
9:58 PM
Did you think about the convex centrally symmetric thingy
which hits no nonzero lattice points
 
@AkivaWeinberger Haven't had the time. I'll get back to you after 6th of April
It's saved on my end
Also, you're tearing me apart Akiva!
 
Hahaha what a story
 
But if that's the case, in my equation we had 4 variables right? $i_1$, $i_2$, $\frac{di_1}{dt}$, $\frac{di_2}{dt}$ .. and still we were able to solve for them?
 
@Rick let $j = i_1+i_2$, then you only have $j$ and $\frac{\mathrm dj}{\mathrm dt}$
 
10:04 PM
@BalarkaSen This is beautiful
 
@LeakyNun ok
I guess that n-equation n-variable thing applies only to polynomials, not differential equations
 
@Rick well you do get a constant
which counts as one degree of freedom
which is what you would also expect from a polynomial equation with 2 variables
 
Good evening to all users in this room.
 
Greetings, programs!
 
Is there any user that can considerate my question, please? Thanks a lot for any help.
2
Q: Orthogonality relationship of electric field and electrical potential of two parallel plates

SebastianoWe known that the potential generated by a charge pointwise $q$ is $V(r) = kq/r $ and the equipotential surfaces (in 3D) are spheres centered in the charge with $r\geq 0$ where $r=d(O,P)$, i.e. the distance between the origin and a generic point $P$. In fact if we are in space, where an orthono...

 
11:12 PM
ugh... grading sucks :(
 
Rip, what are you grading?
 
stupid question. Suppose f is C^1(R^m). , and let g(x) = (Df(a)^-1)*f(x). Then the lecturer writes down on the board Dg = (Df(a)^-1)(Df(x)). Why?
 
11:28 PM
I'm going to assume f:R^m->R^m. The lecturer wrote that because that's what the chain rule gives, no?
Df(a)^-1 is a constant matrix wrt x after all
 
@Daminark Precalculus homework
as a TA
which means that I don't get to set policy
which means that I am grading an entire quarter's worth of late homework that students decided to dump on my desk three days before the final
 
@anon constant matrix, so?
 
the f$\cup$ck$\exists$rs
 
@JoeShmo if h(x)=Ax then Dh(x)=A. thus, if g(x)=h(f(x)) then Dg(x)=Dh(f(x))*Df(x)=(A)Df(x)
 
i forgot all of my calc III. So the analogy from R carries through?
"if h(x)=Ax then Dh(x)=A" this is just known to be true i suppose..?
meaning it just follows from the definition
 
11:34 PM
compute Dh, see what you get
 
right, the derivative of a linear function is itself
ok. i see. thanks
@anon so how is it relevant that Df(a)^-1 is a constant matrix?
 
then Df(a)^-1 f(x) is just h(f(x)) and Dh(x)=Df(a)^-1
 
@Xander oh that's annoying. A lot of profs I know either don't accept late homework or leave the decision to the TA
 
Right, Df(a)^-1 is just another matrix
i see what you mean
 
@anon hey anon :D
 
11:40 PM
heya
 
yeey :D
finally found ya
 
@AkivaWeinberger what's this?
 
I need some help as allways ._. this time with direct product and direct sum of VS
 
k
 
I know what they are , just need to see how you think of them :D
like intuitive feeling what i need :D
 
11:42 PM
@Daminark Honestly, for this class, it makes sense to accept late homework (there is a lot of writing, with the opportunity to revise); I just wish that more students would turn in homework on-time---most of them are getting basically no credit, anyway, but I have to look at their work, which takes time. :(
 
Do everything coordinate wise, that's the intuitive picture to me
 
the first question in the book was something like this, let W be the subspace generated by (2,1) and U the subspace generated by (0.1) , show that V= R^2 is a direct sum of U and W
I mean all i need to do is to show that any vector in R ^2 can be written as multple of (2,1) and ( 0,1) in a unique way right?
does not look like a very good question to me ._.
@anon wake up :D
 
seems fine to me
 
and the second question is the bascilly the same
but V = K^3
and W = < (1,0,0) > and U generated by 2 other vectors
 
11:45 PM
you need to put the langle in your rangle!
 
also I ineed to show that any vector in K^3 can be written in a unqye way as linear combination of those 3 vectors
 
$W = \langle (1,0,0) \rangle$ :P
 
@XanderHenderson okay thanks ._.
 
it helps you with the angle of your dangle
 
anyway so far so good :D
now the question that I could not solve yet :D
 
11:46 PM
one thing you can think about: with (0,1) you can "slide" the second coordinate (by adding scalar multiples of it), and you can do that until the first coordinate is twice the second (so then it's a scalar multiple of (2,1)). for instance, (5,5)=(5,2.5)+2.5(0,1)=2.5(2,1)+2.5(0,1)
 
I need to show that the Dim UxW = Dim U + Dim W
 
union of (basis of U) and (basis of W) gives you a (basis of UxW)
 
nice union is the right thing here :D since there is nothing that tells us they dont share some vectors in common
but hmm
the eleemnts here are of the form (u ,w ) st u in U and w in W
this is not longer a subspace of V
this is a vs on its own right?
@anon if we think of that question in a combinatorial way ? why is it addition ?
 
what is V?
also, what?
 
V is a vector space
U and W are subspaces of V
what I wanted to understand is , how can we find ituitive understanding of why Dim U+W and Dim UxW are Dim U + Dim W
 
11:52 PM
then the external direct product of U and W is not a subspace of V, but if U and W intersect trivially then there is an internal direct product of U and W within V
if there are only finitely many vector spaces there is no difference between direct product and direct sum so we might as well call them direct sums
 
hmm ._. okay what is the internal direct product ?
 
For instance, R^(m+n) can be thought of as an internal direct sum of R^m (last n coordinates 0) and R^n (first m coordinates 0). Evidently (m+n)=(m)+(n)
 
and the second sentence did not get it fully :D
 
I could have swore we already talked about internal vs external
 
Yes we did on groups =p
 
11:55 PM
what's the difference again?
 
aha okay that part is clear now :D
 
Mar 7 at 16:39, by anon
Given two groups A and B, the external direct product is a construction on the Cartesian product AxB that makes it a group. Given a group G with subgroups A and B, we say G is an internal direct product of A and B if every element of A commutes with every element of B and every element of G is uniquely expressible as ab where a is in A and b is in B. Note that AxB is an internal direct product of its subgroups Ax{e} and {e}xB.
 
same applies to vector spaces
 
@orbit-stabilizer not saying there is a diff, just the subject is new to me ><
we never had good linear algebra course
@anon I have no idea how you done that :D
 
11:56 PM
my prof likened it to putting coordinates on your group
 
@anon one thing I did not get now from what u said
the part about direct sum and product being the same thing
 
they are the same thing
 
if we have finitely many vector spaces , what does that mean ?
but one is n tuple
 
Is it just for notational purposes? For abelian we use product?
 
and other is sum of element of the vector space
 
11:58 PM
Or other way
 
Or both are tuples, your mileage may vary. If you want you can view elements of the product as tuples and elements of an internal direct sum as sums. Then $A\times B$ and $A\oplus B$ are canonically isomorphic via $(a,b)\leftrightarrow a+b$
 
@AlessandroCodenotti So say you have a subset of $\Bbb R^n$ that's convex and centrally symmetric. Furthermore, say that it doesn't hit any lattice points other than zero.
 

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