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00:10
Where is the complex square root function analytic?
welp. according to matlab, my 6D polytope has 14 vertices and 152 facets.
so that's...fun
rippity rippity rip rip
oh, how I wish that were true
for better or worse, what matlab gives me is a 152-by-6 array
oh oh ... is Balarka back to non-sleeping?
each row tells me which 6 of the 14 vertices I specified belong to a given facet
00:18
@TedShifrin Passionately so, yes
(six points in 6D space define a facet)
See ... it's been so long, I forgot that it was unsleeping.
@Ted hi
hi Leaky
@Ted will perfectoid spaces be textbook material 100 years later, like Lebesgue proposed his measure 100 years before?
what is textbook material?
00:23
Depends on what textbook you're talking about, presumably
Things of "general" enough interest that people teach them in many courses.
(and depends on whether we'll still have textbooks at that point, lol)
We barely have them now.
Exactly.
@Ted and they would have to be extensively verified before integrating into curricula?
00:25
Plus, what counts as textbook material is always shifting
This is too vague a discussion for me.
Some dimension counting: Each of my facets is some 5D hyperplane in 6D space. I intersect that with a hyperplane to get a 4D set; repeating that with two other planes, I get down to 2D. So the intersection of each facet with the three slicing planes should be a 2D edge.
(I feel like I'm tripping over my words there)
I think that it's too awkward to have to refer to a 3D affine subspace as being obtained by repeated intersection with hyperplanes. We do know about dimension.
man, proofs in measure theory are very lengthy
is it because of not enough lemma extraction?
or must they be long?
Not sure I follow. Do you mean: It's sufficient to describe my final 3D polytope as a 3D affine subspace of my 6D polytope?
00:31
It doesn't help that they divided it into 9 steps
@isquared-KeepitReal square it again to keep it positive!
I just meant what you just did. If you have two (affine) subspaces $U$ and $V$ in "general position" (meeting transversely is the fancy term) in $\Bbb R^n$, then the dimension of their intersection is $\dim U+\dim V - n$.
Ahh, okay.
If that number is negative, then they don't intersect, of course :P
Does that generalize to multiple affine subspaces? e.g. if I had affine subspaces U,V,W in general position in $\mathbb{R}^n$ then the dimension of their intersection is $\dim U+\dim V+\dim W-n$?
No, I guess it shouldn't be. Intersecting U and V gives the dimension you stated, and then I intersect that with W to get $(\dim U+\dim V-n)+\dim W-n$
00:35
so that'd be $-2n$ rather than $-n$
It gets trickier. That might be right. I haven't thought about it. Let's try 3 planes in $\Bbb R^3$.
each subspace is dimension 2 and n=3, so my (revised) formula would give 2+2+2-2(3)=0 which is right
But is it really?
They might not meet at all.
The line of intersection of two of 'em might be parallel to the third.
hrm
yeah
so the issues re: general position get more subtle
What's a good self-contained measure theory book that would cover Haar measure, or at least Riesz representation theorem?
00:39
But what I said isn't generic. You expect it to be $0$, yes.
So you have to be careful about "general position."
Where is the complex square root function analytic?
In my case, my three slicing planes are just x1=1, x2=1, x3=1
@user330477: What is the complex square root function? Is it even a function?
00:40
so it's probably just easier to say that i'm intersecting with the affine subspace (1,1,1,x4,x5,x6)
which is definitely 3D
Right.
@TedShifrin It is actually the principal branch of the complex square root function.
Does that $\dim U+\dim V-n$ at least provide an upper bound on the dimension of the intersection?
What does that mean, @user330477? If you know what you just said, you have the answer to your question.
No, @Semiclassic. In non-generic situations you can have too big an intersection. Think of two identical planes in $\Bbb R^3$ or two identical lines in $\Bbb R^2$.
@TedShifrin It is defined on $\mathbb{C} \setminus {(-\infty, 0]}$. But stiil how do I show that it is analytic on its domain?
00:42
ah, drat
you differentiate it...
Inverse function theorem will do it, since $f(z)=z^2$ is analytic.
Or you compute the derivative from the definition. @user330477
@TedShifrin Rapid-fire: If you were to define general position of two stratified subsets of a manifold, what would be your most immediate definition?
(Mine would be transverse stratum-wise, but I am sure that has issues)
@TedShifrin I start to see why 'transversality' is such a big deal in various contexts
and one must be careful with branching
00:43
Ugh, @Balarka.
one must always choose a small enough neighbourhood
@Leaky: There is no problem once he restricted domain.
I see
@TedShifrin I see what you mean now. Is it true that the principal branch of the complex sqare root function is analytic on its domain.?
That starts to sound like a multitransversality issue, @Balarka. See Guillemin & Golubitsky.
00:44
@TedShifrin That is not an acceptable answer!
Hrm, I shall whip out that book
I just gave two ways you could prove that, @user330477.
@TedShifrin Ok, thank you. Now, I am quite convinced.
@LeakyNun Thank you to you as well.
it's not very helpful that Radon measure sometimes needs to be inner regular on all Borel sets, and sometimes just on all open sets
are they equivalent?
@LeakyNun I have an exercise for you
what, define general position?
00:47
@TedShifrin one point I'm confused on. A facet of a polytope isn't an affine subspace, isn't it? It's a subset of one, but not one unto itself
Write down a complete proof of the following fact: $X$ be a topological space with the Borel measure and $f : X \to \Bbb R$ a measurable function. Then for every $\epsilon > 0$ there is a continuous function $g : X \to \Bbb R$ such that $S = \{x \in X : |f(x) - g(x)| \geq \epsilon\}$ has measure $\mu(S) < \epsilon$.
what do you mean by the Borel measure?
Right, Semiclassic. So, you may have smaller intersections (like empty) even if the whole subspaces intersect.
Hrm.
That makes sense.
with *a
Basically this says every measurable function can be approximated in measure by continuous functions.
00:50
yeah, I get it. Suppose I have a filled square and I draw a line through its center (without being parallel to the sides of the square). the intersection will be some line segment within the square
I thought about it a couple days ago and I think I have a fairly strong sketch, but putting all the details togather is really annoying
If I now slide the line away from the origin, though, I'll see that segment shrink until it collapses to a point and then disappears
(that's not quite the right way to put it, since i chose to put my line through the origin initially. but the picture as the line gets slid out of the square is right)
@Ted Mostly I think that having every pair of strata from the two respective subsets intersect transversely is an insanely strong condition to have
How do I see that $\frac{\cos(z)-1}{z^2}$ is not analytic at $z=\infty$? Don't tell me that replace $z$ by $\frac{1}{w}$ and observe that this has a singularity at $w=0$. In this case, it is not even defined at $w=0$, so this seems circular to me.
what I should probably do at this point, just to have something concrete: Pick one of my 152 facets, write down the equation of the 5D facet (convex combinations of the vertices), then intersect it with my 3D affine subspace and see what 2D subset I get
so I guess I get to have fun with that :P
00:59
The question is whether you have a removable singularity at $w=0$, @user330477.
@Balarka: I sorta used to know this years ago, but now I totally don't remember anything.
Haha it's ok, your insights are still very valuable
@TedShifrin When I write the power series, this does not tell me anything whether the limit exists or not.
We actually used various Whitney conditions seriously in a paper or two.
I need to get my hands into G&G but I want to finish reading this section on L^2 cohomology from Kirwan
Sure it does, @user330477. If there are terms with negative exponents, you don't have a removable singularity.
01:03
@BalarkaSen what's a good book on measure theory?
You also have to decide if you mean analytic as a map to the Riemann sphere (so the value of $\infty$ is allowed) or not ...
I haven't read a proper book on measure theory
Royden is a classic, @Leaky. Modern people like Folland and Stein/Stakarchi.
I learnt whatever I learnt from Durrett, which is more like a probability book. I looked at Stein-Shakarchi's real analysis text, which has a good deal of measure theory.
I spent some time glancing over chapter 2 in Federer
That's all
LOL, NO to Federer.
01:05
@TedShifrin are there proofs that span 3 pages?
@TedShifrin The power series is $-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{24z^2}-\frac{1}{720z^4}+\cdots$.
oh, joy
i just tested the first facet matlab gave me
and the intersection of it with my 3D affine subspace is a point
told ya
So not analytic.
@TedShifrin "If there are terms with negative exponents, then we don't have a removable singularity." Why is this true?
01:07
@user330477 complex analysis
somehow I think I'm going to be seeing a lot of that
I warned you man I warned you before anyone did
oh, wait
Work that out at $z=0$ for yourself (forget about thinking about infinity). Understand how to see pole, removable singularity, and essential singularity from the Laurent expansion.
@LeakyNun This was not what I was looking for.
01:08
hmm, maybe I'm being too restrictive.
you essentially want the result that Laurent series expansions are unique
@TedShifrin This is just a question about power series. We have not discussed Laurent series, pole, etc. so far.
Oh, that's unfortunate.
and various other results that I can't be bothered to list
@TedShifrin How do I this question, without invoking what these results about Laurent series?
01:09
I don't know. Ask your professor what he expects.
OK, I'm leaving for tonight. Bye, all.
Hi Ted, bye Ted.
For a theorem like" any tree with n vertices(n>0) has n-1 edges", am I right to conclude that "has" doesn't have an implication on the exact number? In general, "has n items" can never restrict a quantity to "exactly n items"
@TedShifrin A friend of mine told me when he went to his office that he just said the exact same thing that you said about negative exponents, but without any explanation.
I have encountered a problem which is apparently expecting an infinite sum as the value of a residue
@Rithaniel that's not unheard of
01:14
What's the problem?
Yeah, the exact problem is that I need to show $\int_{\partial B_3 (0)} e^{z+1/z}dz=2\pi i\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!(n+1)!}$
oh no I don't like that function
Oh hey, Bessel function stuff
So, just as a general question: what makes something like this arise?
It may be better to look at that as $e^z e^{1/z}$
01:16
Hmmmm, the product of two infinite sums?
@Rithaniel composing functions
Yeah. But you're not interested in the entire infinite product
Yeah, just the multiples where I get a -1 in the exponent, which there will be infinitely many?
right
01:19
Let $\Bbb R_d$ be the real numbers with the discrete topology
let $X = \Bbb R \times \Bbb R_d$
this is a locally compact hausdorff topological group so it gets a Haar measure
let $f : X \to \Bbb R : (x,s) \mapsto \operatorname{sgn}(x)$
@Rithaniel I forget: what does the subscript 3 mean here?
$f$ is obviously measurable
circle of radius 3?
@Semiclassical yes
01:21
That whole bit is the boundary of ball radius 3 centered at origin,yeah.
It threw me for a loop when I first saw it, so I guess I should be more careful tossing it around, myself.
but then for any continuous function $g : \Bbb R \times \Bbb R_d \to \Bbb R$, for any $s \in \Bbb R_d$, $\mu(\{x ~:~ |f(x,s) - g(x,s)| \ge 0.5\})$ must be positive, so $\mu(\{ (x,s) ~:~ |f(x,s) - g(x,s)| \ge 0.5 \}) = \infty$?
@BalarkaSen did I make a stupid mistake?
The reason I was mentioning Bessel functions, btw: If you plug that sum into WA, what you get is $\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{n!(n+1)!}=I_1(2)$ where $I_1(x)$ is the 1st-order modified Bessel function of the first kind
And if you were to run that story again with a factor of $z^m$ in the integral, you'd again get some $I_k(2)$
Does anyone know how to prove this?

Two subgraphs of a graph are said to be edge-disjoint if
no edge is common to both subgraphs.
Show that, for all integer n ≥ 4, Kn has at least two edge-disjoint spanning trees.
(I forget what the relation between m and k is. It's either $k=1+m$ or $k=1-m$.)
@PrashinJeevaganth play with a few examples
01:27
@LeakyNun I'll look at this counterexample tomorrow morning. It's possible you want $X$ to be nice
@BalarkaSen locally compact T2 abelian group is very nice
It's not first countable.
oh well
Try to prove it for $X = \Bbb R$, Lebesgue measure first
I believe you mean second countable?
01:29
I'll check your example tomorrow and see what exact hypothesis should suffice
ok thanks
@LeakyNun $\Bbb R \times \Bbb R_d$ contains $\Bbb R_d$, an uncountable discrete subset, which is not first countable, so neither is $\Bbb R \times \Bbb R_d$.
(The upshot, to my way of thinking, is that a perfectly good definition of modified Bessel functions of the first kind is as Laurent coefficients to the function $e^{t(z+1/z)}$)
@LeakyNun I'm quite lost to even find examples, if I consider Kn to be a linear tree of 4 vertices, where are the 2 disjoint spanning trees? There's only 2 ways to making a spanning tree, which is left to right or right to left, but aren't they using the same edges?
Isn't Kn usually taken to be the complete graph on n vertices?
01:31
Is that a standard notation?
(though the origin of that convention seems pretty obscure)
@LeakyNun Oh, first is the local condition, not the second.
You're right, I did mean second :P
@BalarkaSen I think you should sleep lol
Under that assumption, the smallest example is the complete graph on 4 vertices
They should just call it globally countable and locally countable
01:33
in which case I think you indeed have two edge-disjoint spanning trees
@BalarkaSen I agree
Petition to change topology terminology right now
just cuz my whim
@BalarkaSen well, you've already got a change of the first kind. now you just need a change of the second kind.
so maybe prove it for compact $X$
and then extend to $\sigma$-compact using the geometric sequence trick
$e^{1/z}$ has an essential singularity at 0, right?
01:36
@Rithaniel yes
@Semiclassical for K4, which is a square with a cross in the middle, is the (disjoint spanning tree the tree with 3 consecutive sides of the square) and (the tree with the side left out and the diagonals?
@Leaky Good plan
I'll think about this carefully tomorrow, I'm too bummed right now
Alright, and $\frac{sinx}{x}$ has a removable singularity?
@Rithaniel yes
We should study measure theory properly togather
01:36
good idea @BalarkaSen
@PrashinJeevaganth seems right, yeah
(Alright. Just testing instincts, danke schon)
kein problem
alternatively: 1) top side, bottom side, one of the middle diagonals, 2) left side, right side, and the remaining diagonal
@Semiclassical right I missed that out
01:38
i imagine both of those are isomorphic up to a rearrangement of the indices
mostly I like that choice because it's alternating on the outer edges
I think there's some algorithm out there that says the number of minimum spanning tree for a complete graph is n^(n-2)?
could not tell you
@MatheinBoulomenos what on earth
01:41
there we go. I can never remember how to get wiki image links to work
@PrashinJeevaganth I think the disjoint trees you gave for K4 may be the example to imitate here
draw one tree along the outer edges, excluding one edge
Hmm, what's the best way to prove this? I would like to assume that there's definitely at least 2 disjoint cases in K4, then from K4 to K5 we have to add 4 edges to the complete graph, and from the 4 edges we can choose any 2 and it will still be disjoint
hmm, but is the other graph you'd get actually a spanning tree
erm
what do you mean?
I mean that i'm not sure the construction I was giving for the edge-disjoint trees in K5 is right
I think your inductive approach has merit, though
hmm
But I will have that problem of "not considering all cases" right?
01:45
well. presumably, your proof will look like this
I learnt somewhere for geometric problems like this, I have to write it as consider K(n+1) then remove the edges first
instead of going bottom up starting from Kn and say K(n+1)
hmm
you may be right. I haven't done any graph theory proofs in a while
It's quite weird because usually graph theory I do contradiction
construction or induction seems rare
I'm praying on good faith that induction works :)
lol
another approach would presumably be to give some specific construction for the two trees on Kn
I dunno if that's feasible tho
i mean, if you work it out for something like K8 and there's some reasonably nice pattern to the trees, then you may be able to do that
@Semiclassical the suggested answer for this problem did that, but I don't understand it. Definitely can't produce that under exam stress
It came up with a general construction and divided into cases that there is always a walk
01:51
hmm
02:16
ugh, intersection of unions, the favourite trick in measure theory
02:30
Do you guys ever find yourself looking at a theorem or expression and find yourself seemingly unable to parse what it states? The mathematical equivalent of reading the same line of text over and over because you're just not absorbing it.
02:47
hello
I have a question
what would be an intuitive, non formal explanation of a manifold?
Could someone be kind enough to look at my proof to see if there's anything too vague with my proof? paste.ofcode.org/LP8x5YxnMsN9Fciyieywnm
The best way that I've learned to understand what a manifold is, is that it's a type of space which mimics Euclidean space when you "zoom in" far enough.
Thank you Rithaniel, so what would a manifold be formally defined as in euclidean space R^n?
so R^n is a manifold
is there way to prove that a vector space is a manifold in R^n?
Well, I'm just copying and pasting the formal definition from wikipedia, because I've not yet studied this stuff extensively, but: "A topological space $X$ is called locally Euclidean if there is a non-negative integer $n$ such that every point in $X$ has a neighbourhood which is homeomorphic to the Euclidean space $E^n$ (or, equivalently, to the real n-space $\mathbb{R}^n$, or to some connected open subset of either of the two). A topological manifold is a locally Euclidean Hausdorff space."
Also, yes, $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a manifold.
without topology, just analysis, using the standard metric abs(x-y)
?
02:58
It's difficult to show that there exists a homeomorphism between two spaces without using topology, so I'm unsure.
Why is homeomorphism a sufficient condition rather than a bijection?
A homeomorphism preserves openness, which is a major thing in how mathematical systems behave.
I mean, if I had a structure where I wanted to show a homeomorphism exist how would a homeomorphism differ from a bijection?
oh
i see
Well, I didn't explain what "openness" is, but you get the idea.
I'm currently searching it up
well, since I havent found a good explanation, what would openness be?
03:04
A homeomorphism must be continuous and have a continuous inverse. Where continuous means that if a set is open in the image, it's preimage is also open in the domain.
Well, take an example in $\mathbb{R}$ under the standard metric topology. $(0,1)$ is open, and $[0,1]$ is closed.
How would I prove a set is open?
and how would I show that (0,1) is homeomorphic to [0,1]?
i mean
homeomorphic to R
Well, that's the thing about topology. When you're starting out defining a topology, you simply decide what's open, so long as you follow the rules of a topology.
Rules are: The whole space is open. The empty set is open. Arbitrary unions of open sets must still be open. Finite intersections of open sets must still be open.
Oh, so if I assume R^n is open then that would mean any set in R^n is open
then where would the concept of close sets come into place?
Now, the standard metric is called "standard" because it has all the rules you see in everyday mathematics. A lot of topology involves finding homeomorphisms between $\mathbb{R}^n$ in the standard metric topology and other topologies.
closed sets are sets whose complement is open.
how would I prove (0,1) is the complement of [0,1]?
03:11
It's not.
what do you mean by complement then?
$[0,1]$ is the complement of $(-\infty , 0)\cup (1,\infty )$
The complement of a set is everything not in the set. (I'm teaching stuff out of order, to be honest)
Similarly, $(0,1)$ has a complement of $(-\infty , 0]\cup [1, \infty)$, which is closed.
So what I understood is that if I have a topological space, I should assume that the whole space is open, and so any union of subsets of the space should also be open. If I want to show continuity in a set, I should first assume its open in the image then if its preimage is open then its continous. What would be the preimage of the function 1/x
on the interval (f(0),f(1))
?
i apologize for any inconvenience
03:37
You're okay, I was just afk. The function needs to define what it is from and what it is to. I assume this function 1/x is from and to $\mathbb {R} $ minus the point 0. In which case the preimage is $\mathbb {R} $ minus the point 0.
I see, I have another question with regards to probability in which I haven't been able to solve
may I ask you?
I would also assume you mean real numbers under the standard metric topology.
Well, feel free to ask. If I don't answer, someone else might.
Assuming I have a set {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8} and a number of subsets satisfy two conditions, each subset has exactly 4 elements and each element of {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8} belongs to exactly 3 subsets
how many subsets would i have?
I know its 6 but i'm not how to get that answer
03:42
i'd call that combinatorics rather than probability but that's just semantics
Does anyone know in general what kind of transitive relations are out there? I have an upcoming test and I can't detect transitivity fast enough
sorry, you're right. It is combinatorics
alas, that's the only comment I've got. I don't really know where to start with this
@Semiclassical you know anything about transitive relations?
like a quick way to detect some
not beyond the definition, no
i mean, if you want to detect something being non-transitive, you look for an element which is related to two un-related elements
03:47
You probably want to rewrite it as {1,1,1,2,2,2,3,3,3,4,4,4,5,5,5,6,6,6,7,7,7,8,8,8} and, boom, you have 24 elements. Divide it up into sets containing 4 elements each and you have 6 sets.
4 distinct elements, but yeah, that's a good strategy
The number of ways you can divide these up is a little bit more difficult
At least they didn't ask the exact ordering of the groups.
Yeah. It's a strategy to finding the answer; it's not the answer itself.
Well, the question was "how many sets do you have" not "how many ways can you construct these sets"
03:50
true
well, I know there are 2^8 subsets, and also there are 8C4 subsets with 4 elements, is there a way to proceed after this?
 
2 hours later…
05:39
@TobiasKildetoft thanks for the reply. But I do not have a good knowledge about it. By congruent I think they mean that st^(-1) belongs to (Z_5 X Z_5). I am referring the proof in page 17 of this document. cs.uleth.ca/~morris/Research/low-order.pdf
There under case 1 second bullet point and the first line under case 2 is mentioning about such a congruence.
I would like to understand how we can think of such a congruence when the order of s and t are equal to 3
Anyway thanks a lot for helping :)
P.S. How can we say that st^(-1) belongs to (Z_5 X Z_5)?
 
2 hours later…
07:54
Does anyone even know what R3 and R4 are? Are they relations or functions or any special types of properties are attached to them?
 
1 hour later…
08:58
All of the $\mathcal{R}_i$ are binary relations, as stated at the top of the page
in case I'm misunderstanding your question
 
2 hours later…
11:28
@ÍgjøgnumMeg haha yea you're misinterpreting them, I'm asking for the most specific type of relation that they are(whether they are functions or just low level relations), but I kinda clarified them already, thanks for the reply
11:51
Top o the morning, I've hit a bit of a snag here and this might be semi-obvious (?)
I'm somewhat well-versed on conformal mappings and the like but not on this, I have a function roughly of the form $x^2 + y^2 + f(x) + f(y) = R^2$. My goal is to rewrite this as $u^2 + v^2$ where $u$ and $v$ are obviously functions of $x,y$. Now, the function $f$ is non-linear... My professor says that a mapping between the two exists but I don't know how to find it. I have never dealt with non-linear maps and feel like I'm not equipped to handle this problem
12:18
This inspires me an idea: Let's make all unordered sets larger than their ordered counterparts
So we have well ordered sets < linearly ordered sets < unordered sets
and well ordered sets < partially ordered sets < preordered sets < unordered sets
Details please go to Star Wars Room
@Prashin fair! Looks like $\mathcal{R}_3$ and $\mathcal{R}_4$ just remove the sign on your real number
i.e. $\Bbb R \times \Bbb R/ \mathcal{R}_3$ just looks like $\Bbb R_{\geq 0}$
12:45
yo how did you use mathjax again?
@ÍgjøgnumMeg
%Sin i / Sin r % = % n2 / n1%
nah thats not how it works..
nvm
@LeakyNun I definitely need $X$ to be a metric space in the exercise I gave you, that's for sure.

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