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2:00 PM
i mean on sets
@LeakyNun I only know the axioms
 
and vector spaces?
 
what's a vector space?
 
@LeakyNun I am sorry, i did not see this then. Which generalization were you talking about?
 
Vector space is a set with a associated field and satisfies some specific peperties
 
2:03 PM
the thing that we did is a generalization @Silent
@taritgoswami there's more data to a vector space
 
You mean $0\le \sum\frac{\sqrt{a_n}}n\le\biggl(\sum a_n\biggr)^{1/2}\biggl(\sum\frac1{n^2}\biggr)^{1/2}.$?
 
right
 
how so?
 
well of course this inequality itself is not a generalization
I'm talking about the new theorem we proved
(hmm, looks like many people can't generalize theorems)
 
@LeakyNun Sorry there was a network error from my end. Vector space is a set with a associated field satisfying some properties, like it forms commutative group under addition etc.
 
2:06 PM
@taritgoswami there's some data in the "etc"
 
@LeakyNun Action of field on the set?
 
right
but in the language of linear algebra we often call it a scalar multiplication instead
so this gives you one interpretation of group action
 
0
Q: Uniform Limit of Integrable Functions

user193319 If $\{f_n\}$ is a sequence of bounded measure functions on $[a,b]$ and $f_n \to f$ uniformly, then $f$ is integrable. This is actually proved in the book I am working through, but I came up with a proof that looks quite different. Naturally, I was hoping someone could critique my proof and...

 
i.e. that it's some sort of scalar multiplication, but the scalars form a group instead of a field, and the set doesn't need to have addition
 
2:08 PM
@LeakyNun I think you are talking about this generalization: 'series of nonnegative terms converges iff partial sums are bounded sequence'
 
@Silent brilliant.
and one can still generalize this, but to a lesser extent
 
:) thanks
 
à la squeeze theorem
@taritgoswami another interpretation is that it is a function that assigns each $g \in G$ to a permutation on the set, such that the function composition respects group multiplication.
i.e. a group homomorphism $G \to \operatorname{Sym}(X)$.
 
cool
@LeakyNun I am not familier with the notation $Sym(X)$
You mean Symmetric group ?
 
yes
 
2:14 PM
@LeakyNun because after all series is a sequence, hence squeeze theorem holds for partial sum sequence? statement like that?
 
@Silent I'm talking about a generalization of the squeeze theorem for series
 
sorry, that's not generalization!
oh
@LeakyNun i think you are referring comparison test
 
hmm
aha
ah i'm an idiot :P
 
why?
 
yes it's just the comparison test
 
2:18 PM
ok
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg hi
nicht dass ich wüsste
 
@Mathein Komisch, es kommt auch oft vor also kann's doch kein rechtschreibfehler sein
egal, danke :D
 
Im Internet erlebt eben die Schriftlichkeit ihre triumphale Renaissance bar jeder Orthographie - ich kozze ab
 
lol
Kann sein dass es aber irgendeine regionale Buchstabierung ist oder so
 
@LeakyNun the comparison test for series is just dominated convergence for the counting measure
 
2:24 PM
er schreibt zwar auch "trokken" und "rükkenmark"
 
@MatheinBoulomenos und kommt der Generalizationmeister
 
Verallgemeinerung = generalization
 
Der Verallgemeinerungsherr
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg was ist das für ein Text?
 
@Mathein der Stille Ozean heißt das Buch
vom Gerhard Roth, österreichischer Schriftsteller
 
2:27 PM
kommt das nur in direkter Rede vor? Vielleicht gibt er irgendeinen Dialekt wieder
 
Nöööp
 
@MatheinBoulomenos for $f \in \Bbb C[X_1 \cdots X_n]$, when is $V(f)$ a manifold?
 
hmm, keine Ahnung
 
ja ich auch ned hahaha
egal
 
@LeakyNun when $V(f)$ is non-singular
 
2:31 PM
what does that mean for the coordinate ring?
 
it's basically defined to make this statement true via the implicit function theorem. $V(f)$ is non singular if for all $x \in V(f)$, the Jacobian $f'(x)$ doesn't vanish, i.e. not all partial derivatives vanish simultanously
 
so it's not sufficient that the ring reduced und irreducible seit?
@MatheinBoulomenos how would you compute $\sqrt{-6} \in \Bbb Z_7$?
say, to $O(7^{10})$
I know you wouldn't, but wie wuerdest du?
 
@LeakyNun no, consider e.g. $V(y^2-x^2(x+1))$, that's irreducible by Gauss' lemma and Eisenstein
 
you mean $y^2-x^2(x+1)$
 
yeah
sorry
 
2:39 PM
you don't need to apologize
 
What's a natural way to define the norm of an element of O(n)? I assume it can be based on the norm of the Lie algebra (e.g. the matrix logarithm of the identity matrix is the zero matrix)?
 
@LeakyNun what do you mean by $O(7^{10})$?
 
O as in order of magnitude
i.e. to ten digits
 
take the proof of Hensel's lemma, it is constructive
basically a variant of Newton's method
 
alright
 
2:46 PM
In mathematics, Hensel's lemma, also known as Hensel's lifting lemma, named after Kurt Hensel, is a result in modular arithmetic, stating that if a polynomial equation has a simple root modulo a prime number p, then this root corresponds to a unique root of the same equation modulo any higher power of p, which can be found by iteratively "lifting" the solution modulo successive powers of p. More generally it is used as a generic name for analogues for complete commutative rings (including p-adic fields in particular) of the Newton method for solving equations. Since p-adic analysis is in some ways...
in the formula for the Hensel lift you need to invert mod $p^k$ which can be done quickly with the extended Euclidean algorithm
it's interesting that the idea of an algortihm from numerical analysis can be used to prove an important lemma for algebra/number theory
 
Nevermind, found it.
 
3:16 PM
@Mathein es handelt sich um einen Zeilenumbruch! Anscheinend schreibt man statt "Brüc-ke" einfach "Brük-ke"
vielleicht in einer älteren Orthographie oder so aber wow
 
aha!
wusste ich nicht
 
Ich auch nicht, voll komisch
 
nach neuer Rechtschreibung wird "Brü-cke" getrennt
 
ja genau
aber vor 1996 schrieb man "Brük-ke"
why tf
 
I need help..please answer my question..just posted
 
4:06 PM
If $\mu$ is the Lebesgue measure and $\nu=d\mu/(x^a+1)$, what does $\nu$ actually mean? I understand that it's a measure, but I don't understand how it's defined.
 
Pig
you can think of measure as a linear functional on a space of test functions (by integration)
So the measure $\nu$ can be thought of as the functional $f \to \int f d \mu/(x^a + 1)$
alternatively (but equivalently), if you like to think in terms of usual measures more, just think of $\nu(A) = \int 1_{A} d\mu/(x^a+1)$ for a measurable set $A$
 
Okay, thanks @Pig!
 
Pig
sure!
 
The keywords to look up are "Radon-Nikodym derivative" and "absolutely continuous measure"
 
Pig
this (very strictly speaking) isn't quite true, since he's not trying to define the derivative, but just trying to understand what the measure even means
(but i'm probably being obnoxious here :P )
 
4:21 PM
Sure but if he wants to find out more and why such a measure would be of interest that might be useful
 
Pig
sure
 
If I need to write a formal proof that involves an implication where the hypothesis is false, can I just say the hypothesis is false and that the implication is thus always true?
And nothing else
 
@LeakyNun as long as it is non-singular yes (oh and if you want to be isomorphic over k then you want that there exists a k-rational point on the conic)
 
@loch interesting
 
In fact the general claim is that a smooth projective curve of genus $0$ over $k$ with a $k$-rational point is isomorphic to $\mathbb{P}^1_k$

this is also the reason why rational parametrization (which one might learn in number theory) works for conics where you can find all the rational solutions to an equation like $x^2+y^2=1$, but not for elliptic curves (which have genus $1$)
 
4:36 PM
Is the Riemannian norm on GL given by the Frobenius norm on its Lie algebra gl?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti thanks!
 
5:07 PM
In the full subcategory of Ab consisting of groups without elements of order 4, I'm looking for f,g such that gf is regular monic but f is not
Any ideas? I know that g can't be monic, and that f has to be, and I know some examples of regular mono- and nonregular monomorphisms in this category but I can't fit everything together
 
@B.Mehta that's a strange category
 
@LeakyNun It certainly is
 
what is regular?
 
regular monomorphisms are those which arise as equalizers
 
nvm
too complicated lol
I don't care about that category :P
 
5:13 PM
I guess that's a reasonable response
 
lol
 
If it's any easier, equalizers here are just maps which form a kernel - so the doubling map $\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ is an equalizer since it is the kernel of $\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$
But the quadrupling map $\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ is not an equalizer - the map $\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ doesn't exist in this category since $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ doesn't exist
 
5:47 PM
A very simple question: why divisor is defined to be positive integer in division algorithm? Is it for remainder to be non-negative($0\le r\lt n$, where n is divisor)?
 
Pig
no good reason
you can define division algorithm for negative integer with remainder less than absolute value of your divisor - no problem there at all
 
@Pig thank you, let me think about it
 
The crucial thing is that the remainder is $0 \leq r \leq n - 1$
 
@MikeMiller so $r$ is more important than $n$ in the division algorithm?
 
I mean, that condition depends on $n$
oh oops
as Pig said that should be $|n|-1$
 
5:52 PM
ok thank you~
 
if $n$ is negative the inequality I wrote is nonsense - eg $n = -2$ it gives $0 \leq r \leq -3$ :P
 
I was reading group theory and found that division algorithm is powerful in proving things
using the fact that you pointed out
@Pig May I ask that why the remainder has to be non-negative?
 
hello. i have no idea with the following task:
$\text{Let } G \text{ be a Group operating on } M, m \in M, S:= Stabilisator_G(m), \{\} \neq A \subseteq G \text{ a finite subset. Proove that } |(A^{-1}A) \cap S| \geq \frac{|A|}{|Am|}$
can anyone give me an idea how to solve this?
where $A^{-1}A = \{ a^{-1} a' | a, a' \in A \}$ and $Stabilisator_G(m) := \{ g \in G \mid gm = m \}$
 
Pig
6:18 PM
@IsanaYashiro, it's less about non-negativity of remainder, but more about the uniqueness of quotient and remainder
requiring remainder to be $0 \leq r < |n|$ (which is more than non-negativity) is one way of enforcing remainder to be unique (hence forcing quotient to be unique too)
 
@Pig thank you so much
I'm trying to give myself some explanation for those things I memorized and forgot
 
Hi. What elements of Z/mZ where m is odd square to 1?
is it just 1 and m-1?
 
Is m prime?
 
I know its true if p is prime, but I make use of primality in that argument
 
Try Z/15Z
 
6:26 PM
Damn 4^2=16=1
thanks
 
There are exactly 4 such numbers in Z/15Z by the Chinese remainder theorem
 
@Pig Is it correct to say that division algorithm define a function from a divisor to its (only) remainder?
 
1,4,11,14
 
Yep, note that 1 is 1 in Z/3Z and Z/5Z, 4 is 1 and -1, 11 is -1 and 1 and 14 is -1 and -1
 
Thats really cool
 
6:29 PM
There are two roots in Z/3Z and two roots in Z/5Z, by combining them in pairs you get 4 roots in Z/15Z, by the Chinese remainder theorem
(this works because 3 and 5 are coprime)
 
6:52 PM
hi everyone: Can we say that (in $\mathbb{R}^2$ )the differential form $dx \wedge dy$ is the infinitesimal are element dA which also gives info about the orientation?
i.e. is the purpose of differential form in calculus is to give orientation, as my usual lebesgue area measure doesn't have such property
 
Hello guys. What is the derivative of the exponential map $\exp:TM\to M$ on a riemannian manifold? Here I'm considering the exponential as a map of two variables, $p\in M$ and $v\in T_pM$, so the base point is not fixed...
 
Along the 0 section it's the identity. For some random tangent vector this seems harder to answer, and perhaps relayed to things like the cut locus.
For instance if M = S^2, if you pick v to be a vector of length pi then you always end up at the antipodal point. So the derivative in the direction of the unit tangent sphere is zero. But it is nonzero in the direction orthogonal to this.
 
Pig
7:15 PM
@IsanaYashiro that depends a lot on what you mean by division algorithm - what you mentioned is much clser to what's called modular arithmetic, which is quite related to division algorithm but is also different
@henceproved i think that's a fair thing to say
 
I mean it also gives information about volume
It just does both as opposed to say the notion of density
 
Pig
he was comparing with lebesgue area (with is more or less the same as density in this case i guess)
so orientation is likely the only extra bit
 
7:48 PM
Can we regard {(1,0,0),(0,1,0),(0,0,1)} as a minimal generating set for a semidirect product between Z3 and (Z5 X Z5), where (Z5 X Z5) is the normal subgroup?
 
generating: yes
minimal: how do I know
what's your action of Z3 on Z5 x Z5?
 
Action by conjugation
Thanks
 
???
 
clearly
jk
 
I'm considering all the possible Semi direct products between those two groups
 
8:04 PM
They're determined by all possible actions of the first on the second. Can you identify them all?
 
Hmm no, bit difficult... I'll think of an example to explain my question more clearly and come back later. Thanks a lot.
 
8:27 PM
I need some help with my memory: Is there a general name for subject in mathematics where one has that some number $x$ satisfies $p(x) = 0$ for some polynomial $p$ of degree $n$ and then this means than any power $x^m$ can be expressed in terms of $1,x,x^2,...,x^{n-1}$?
I'm talking at the high school level...
 
@copper.hat division algorithm
but the subject is algebra
 
@LeakyNun: Thanks, I'm looking for something in between :-). I think we loosely refered to them as surds, but that it not quite correct.
 
@BuddhiniAngelika aw, only a bit difficult
 
Let $(X,\mathcal A,\nu)$ be a given measure-space. Let $a,b\in \mathbb R$, $X=(1,\infty)$ and $\nu =d \mu/(x^a+1)$, with $\mu$ being Lebesgue measure. For which values of $a,b$ is there a Cauchy sequence $f_n$ in the mean (over $X$) such that $\lim_n f_n(x)=(\sin x)/x^b$ almost everywhere on $X$?

If I understand this problem correctly, I should be looking at Cauchy sequences $f_n \to (sin x)/x^b$ and show that $\int \frac{\mid f_n-f_m\mid} {x^a+1} d\mu$ goes to zero for certain values of $a,b$.
But I'm slightly confused about how I should do it. Any hints?
 
8:52 PM
Is it accurate to say that the usage of a derivative versus a partial derivative depends entirely on the input space of the thing being differentiated? So a function with n inputs and 1 output calls for partial derivatives, but a vector valued function or parametric derivative with 1 input uses ordinary derivatives (d's rather than ∂'s)?
 
9:04 PM
If $f : X \to Y$ is a continuous map and $B \subseteq Y$, is it true that $f^{-1}(\overline{B}) = \overline{f^{-1}(B})$? Showing $\overline{f^{-1}(B)} \subseteq f^{-1}(\overline{B})$ is rather easy, but the other direction is giving me trouble, which makes me wonder whether the statement isn't generally true.
 
@user193319 No it isn't true in general.
See if you can find a counterexample. What has to happen for the other inclusion to not hold?
 
9:21 PM
@KarlKronenfeld I'm thinking $f(x) = x^2$ should break it, but I can't seem to find a set $B$ for which the conjecture fails.
 
 
1 hour later…
10:24 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos @LeakyNun Hi yall
 
hi
goddag
 
so leaky
 
ja
 
Am trying to prove this statment
an ideal P in R is prime iff R/P is an integral domain
R commutative with 1
so let me show you my proof
to show that R/ P is an integral domain , we have first that R/ P is commutative with 1
so half of the stuff is done
then we need to show no zero divisors to conclude this
in this quotient Ring, [a] = 0 iff a is in P
since elements of P are considered to be zero in R/I
so we consider [a] [b] = [ab] = 0 iff ab belongs to P
so we take a not in P
 
it's quite important to remember that 1 != 0 is one of the requirements of an integral domain
 
10:28 PM
and b in R\ P
ab in P cannot happen
@LeakyNun how does that help us here leaky
 
it doesn't help you; it hinders you
 
so we get that R/I has zero divisors iff P is not prime
if we negate this statment we get what we want to prove
right?
@LeakyNun wake up :D
 
you still haven't dealt with 1 != 0
 
1 is not equal to 0
or what
 
you haven't proved that P is prime ideal -> R/P is integral domain
because you haven't shown that 1 != 0 in R/P
 
10:31 PM
what is that symbol
1 != 0
 
$1 \ne 0$
 
10:44 PM
is the whole complex plane $\CC$ a star-shaped domain.
 
@user330477 are you following Freitag?
yes, it is
and every point can be a centre
 
@LeakyNun No, I am following Gamelin.
 
I see
 
11:07 PM
I am trying to prove mean value property of harmonic functions using MVP of circles and Cauchy Integral Formula. I am stuck on how to give justification for using Cauchy Integral Formula. Can anyone help me out?
 
11:57 PM
just take a harmonic conjugate lol
 
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